Course Introduction
Population Biology
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Population Biology explores the fundamental principles and quantitative approaches involved in understanding the dynamics, structure, and regulation of biological populations. The course covers topics such as population growth models, species interactions (competition, predation, parasitism), life history strategies, genetic and demographic variability, extinction processes, and the role of populations in ecosystem functioning. Emphasis is placed on both theoretical frameworks and empirical studies, equipping students with analytical tools essential for addressing ecological and conservation challenges in natural and managed systems.
Recommended Textbook
Elements of Ecology 1st Canadian Edition by Thomas M. Smith
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Ecology
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Q1) A field study
A)generally takes place within a greenhouse environment.
B)requires the ecologist to vary the level of an independent variable.
C)is the most controlled of research approaches.
D)utilizes sites in which the independent variable fluctuates naturally.
Answer: D
Q2) A population refers to all the individuals of the same species that occupy a given area.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) To be valid, a hypothesis must be testable.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) If an ecologist wanted to illustrate whether a relationship exists between body length and body weight, he would probably produce a(n)________.
Answer: scatterplot
Q5) The ________ forms the basic unit in ecology.
Answer: individual organism
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Chapter 2: Climate
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Q1) Air loses most of its water content as it moves up and over a mountain range and causes a ________ to form on the leeward side of the same range.
Answer: rain shadow
Q2) Cooler air is denser than warmer air.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR)
A)is the longwave radiation emitted from the Earth's surface.
B)includes wavelengths that are shorter than ultraviolet (UV)light.
C)includes only the solar energy with wavelengths of 400-700 nm.
D)is the energy that is absorbed by Earth's atmosphere.
Answer: C
Q4) The ________ are formed by the air that reaches Earth's poles, slowly sinks to the surface, and flows southward is deflected by the Coriolis Effect.
Answer: polar easterlies
Q5) The narrow region near the Equator where trade winds meet is referred to as the ________.
Answer: intertropical convergence zone
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Chapter 3: The Aquatic Environment
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Q1) Describe several adaptations that organisms have developed in response to the minimal light environments in deep water.
Answer: Organisms in deep water have developed several adaptations to survive in minimal light environments. One common adaptation is bioluminescence, where organisms produce their own light through chemical reactions. This allows them to attract prey, communicate with others, or camouflage themselves from predators. Another adaptation is the development of large eyes or light-sensitive organs to maximize the detection of any available light. Some organisms have also evolved to have transparent or reflective bodies to better utilize the limited light that reaches them. Additionally, many deep-sea organisms have heightened senses of smell and touch to compensate for the lack of visual cues in their environment. Overall, these adaptations allow organisms to thrive in the challenging conditions of the deep sea.
Q2) A region of ________ occurs where deep waters of the ocean move upward to the surface.
Answer: upwelling
Q3) Individual water molecules are joined together by ________ bonds. Answer: hydrogen
Q4) Water is a(n)________ molecule.
Answer: polar
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Chapter 4: The Terrestrial Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following soils holds the most water?
A)a clay loam on a ridge top
B)a sandy loam in a valley
C)a clay loam in a valley
D)a sandy loam on a ridge top
Q2) The greatest limitation faced by terrestrial organisms is low nutrient availability.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Field water is the water held between soil particles by capillary forces.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Organisms that live in aquatic systems experience limited temperature fluctuations due to water's
A)high specific heat.
B)high viscosity.
C)high surface tension.
D)covalent nature.
Q5) Explain why leaves that are not parallel to the ground are beneficial to plants living in arid environments and high-latitude forests.
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Chapter 5: Ecological Genetics: Adaptation and Natural Selection
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Q1) The acquisition of ________ is probably the most fundamental constraint to life.
Q2) An individual evolves during its lifetime.
A)True B)False
Q3) Evolution is defined as a change in phenotypic frequencies over time in a population.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Genetic variation is essential for natural selection.
A)True B)False
Q5) ________ mating occurs when individuals choose mates non-randomly.
Q6) A ________ individual has the same alleles at the same locus on homologous chromosomes.
Q7) The specific traits of a particular organism in a given environment are called A)mutations. B)genes. C)adaptations. D)phenotypes.
Q8) ________ is the movement of individuals between local populations. Page 7
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Chapter 6: Plant Adaptations to the Environment
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Q1) Carbon balance focuses on the balance between
A)uptake of CO in photosynthesis and loss of heat via evapotranspiration.
B)loss of CO through respiration and gain of nutrients.
C)loss of H O balanced with the gain of CO via transpiration.
D)uptake of CO in photosynthesis balanced with the loss of CO during respiration.
Q2) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)PEP carboxylase has a low affinity for oxygen.
B)CO is initially fixed into oxaloacetate (OAA)in the mesophyll cell.
C)C plants have a lower water use efficiency than C plants.
D)C plants are mostly grasses.
Q3) Plants adapted to low-nutrient environments attain maximum growth rate at much lower nitrogen levels than high-nutrient plants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Dehydration can be a problem for plants in cold habitats.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Terrestrial plants exchange heat by convection and ________.
Q6) Some plants have the ability to tolerate extreme cold, known as ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 7: Animal Adaptations to the Environment
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Q1) As the surface area of a body increases, the surface-area to volume ratio (SA/V)also increases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Liquid water is the sole source of water for terrestrial animals.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The circadian rhythm of an animal is controlled by ________.
Q4) Describe and contrast the osmotic challenges faced by marine and freshwater animals.
Q5) Homeotherms can sustain a higher level of physical activity for longer periods of time than poikilotherms.
A)True
B)False
Q6) In what environment would you expect an organism with evaginated organs to live? Why?
Q7) The reproductive, or seasonal, activity is unaffected by day length in ________ organisms.
Q8) Living tissue is ________ dense than water.
Q9) Compare and contrast the torpor states of a bat, chipmunk, and black bear. Page 10
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Chapter 8: Life History Patterns
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Q1) As an individual ________ its reproductive effort, it ________ its survivorship.
A)increases; reduces B)increases; increases C)increases; does not change D)decreases; reduces
Q2) Large body size is often positively correlated with fecundity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Asynchronous hatching
A)ensures survival of all offspring in times of limited resources.
B)is practiced by many insect species.
C)favours the survival of the early hatched young.
D)is the same as siblicide.
Q4) Semelparous organisms initially allocate energy into growth, development, and energy storage and later allocate energy into one massive reproductive effort before dying.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ is a form of asexual reproduction in which the ovum develops without fertilization by a male.
12
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Chapter 9: Properties of Populations
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Q1) A group of individuals of the same species living in a given area is called a A)genet.
B)population.
C)community.
D)ramet.
Q2) Provide the mark-recapture equation used for estimating population size and define the terms of the equation. Why is mark-recapture such a popular and effective method for determining animal population densities?
Q3) Unlike the one-way movement of an individual in emigration and immigration, migration is a round-trip.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following would NOT be expected to change with the age of individuals in a population?
A)sex ratio
B)reproductive output
C)probability of survival
D)species identity
Q5) A module developed asexually from a genet is known as a ________.
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Chapter 10: Population Growth
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Q1) Because birth and death rates are not constant, tables and models developed by a demographer may have limited relevance to real populations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The average number of female offspring born to a female over her lifetime is the A)crude birth rate.
B)age-specific birth rate.
C)gross reproductive rate.
D)net reproductive rate.
Q3) There is no change in population size when the instantaneous per capita rate of growth (r)is equal to ________.
Q4) Explain how is used by demographers to predict the future size of a population.
Q5) Colonizing populations generally exhibit ________ population growth while they establish in a new environment.
A)exponential
B)logistic
C)tangential
D)dynamic
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Page 14
Chapter 11: Intraspecific Population Regulation
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Q1) A plant grown at high density will produce ________ seeds than the same plant grown at low density.
Q2) Why are social organization and territoriality adaptive? How do human populations exhibit these two behaviours?
Q3) As the density of a population increases, the A)survival rate increases.
B)reproductive rate increases.
C)intensity of intraspecific competition decreases.
D)individual growth rate increases.
Q4) The rate of aggressive interactions among individuals increases as population density increases.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ growth is the inverse relationship between population density and individual growth.
Q6) Plants can capture and defend space.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The area that an animal normally uses during a year is its ________.
Q8) Compare and contrast space capture in plants and territoriality in animals.
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Chapter 12: Metapopulations
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Q1) Discuss three characteristics of species that affect their potential rates of colonization and extinction.
Q2) Describe the assumptions made to mathematically model metapopulation dynamics. Are these assumptions appropriate? Why or why not?
Q3) A large patch of habitat tends to be more spatially heterogeneous than a small patch of habitat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the model of population dynamics developed by Levins?
A)Each patch contributes equally to the pool of emigrants.
B)Patches are of equal size.
C)The probability of local population extinction is independent of all other populations.
D)Some patches supply more resources than others.
Q5) Explain the relationship between patch size and habitat heterogeneity. Why is habitat heterogeneity a benefit to a population?
Q6) Explain how territory fragmentation effects survival of metapopulations.
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Page 16
Chapter 13: Interspecific Competition
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Q1) When two organisms use a portion of the same resource simultaneously, it is referred to as ________ overlap.
Q2) Competition has been regarded as a major force behind species divergence and specialization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When two organisms use a portion of the same resource simultaneously, it is referred to as
A)niche overlap.
B)competitive release.
C)intraspecific competition.
D)territoriality.
Q4) The competitive ability of a species remains constant even when environmental conditions change.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The limnologist G. E. Hutchinson proposed the idea of the niche as a multidimensional response called a(n)________.
Q6) The ________ principle states that two "complete competitors" cannot coexist.
Page 17
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Chapter 14: Predation
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Q1) Costs can be measured in terms of the ________ and energy expended in the act of foraging, and benefits should be measured in terms of ________.
Q2) Graphically illustrate an example of the three-way interaction between a carnivore, an herbivore, and a plant. Explain how the plant is affected by both direct and indirect interactions.
Q3) A type ________ functional response occurs when the number of prey taken per predator increases quickly at first with prey density and then increases at a much slower rate as prey density continues to increase.
Q4) Give two examples of considerations besides food acquisition that might influence an animal's decision about whether and for how long to forage in a given resource patch. What rules might an animal use to make a decision?
Q5) Unlike a scavenger, a predator is a heterotroph.
A)True
B)False
Q6) A parasitoid usually kills its host.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Compare and contrast the three types of predation.
Page 18
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Chapter 15: Parasitism and Mutualism
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Q1) Parasites always complete their life cycle in a single host species.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A mutualism in which two species must live together and cannot survive when apart is referred to as a(n)
A)obligatory mutualism.
B)trophic mutualism.
C)dispersive mutualism.
D)facultative mutualism.
Q3) Plant parasites that are photosynthetic but draw water and nutrients from their host plant are referred to as A)mycorrhizae.
B)vectors.
C)parasitoids.
D)hemiparasites.
Q4) Plants do not benefit from insects that prey on their nectar.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How might a plant respond to invasion by a fungal or bacterial parasite?
Q6) Discuss the differences between direct and indirect transmission of a parasite.
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Chapter 16: Community Structure
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Q1) Variation in environmental conditions within a community, or environmental ________, can have a strong influence on the diversity of a community.
Q2) A diagram that illustrates the flow of energy, linking several species as prey and predators, is referred to as a A)food web.
B)food chain.
C)trophic level.
D)gene pool.
Q3) Indirect interactions occur when
A)one species is influenced by interactions with many species.
B)one species does not interact with a second species but influences a third species, which interacts directly with the second.
C)a prey species is controlled by a predator species.
D)a predator species is controlled by a prey species.
Q4) When prey populations are controlled by predators in a trophic level above them they are said to be under ________ control.
Q5) Explain the differing roles of fundamental niches and species interactions in controlling community structure.
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Chapter 17: Community Dynamics
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Q1) Changes in community composition and structure over time are called A)succession.
B)stratification.
C)zonation.
D)characterization.
Q2) Within an area, a group of sites that are at different stages of succession is known as a ________.
Q3) Using specific examples for each, explain the differences between primary and secondary succession.
Q4) Define the intermediate disturbance hypothesis.
Q5) ________ environmental change is change that is a direct result of the organisms within the community.
Q6) Community structure changes over relatively short time scales through succession, but generally is stable over longer geological time scales.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Briefly describe the cycle of succession in marshes.
Q8) ________ is a temporal change in community composition and structure.
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Q9) Outline and describe the three proposed mechanisms used in early succession.
Chapter 18: Landscape Ecology
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Q1) The intensity of a disturbance is measured by the proportion of total biomass or the population of a species that is killed or eliminated by a disturbance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ________ of a disturbance is measured by the spatial extent of the impact of a disturbance relative to the size of the affected landscape.
Q3) Subpopulations within a metapopulation are isolated from each other with no movement of individuals between subpopulations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the potential value of corridors to large-bodied species such as carnivores.
Q5) Which of the following does NOT function as a habitat corridor?
A)a large lake
B)a hedgerow
C)the vegetation along a river
D)a drainage ditch
Q6) Explain the role of disturbances in the shifting-mosaic view of the landscape.
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Chapter 19: Systems Ecology
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Q1) A trait that is characteristic of the system as a whole but is not observable in any one part is a(n)________ property.
A)established
B)crucial
C)emergent
D)inconspicuous
Q2) The tendency to return to a particular trajectory is known as A)homeorhesis.
B)homeostasis.
C)resistance.
D)dynamic equilibrium.
Q3) Stress thresholds that, once surpassed, shift an ecosystem into an alternative stable state are known as A)critical variables.
B)essential nutrients.
C)tipping points.
D)tolerance limits.
Q4) Explain how positive feedback can result in a negative outcome.
Q5) Explain why the ecosystem can be considered the basic unit of nature.
Q6) Define what is meant by an alternative stable state.
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Chapter 20: Ecosystem Energetic
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Q1) In terrestrial ecosystems, most of the primary production goes into the grazing food chain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Secondary production is limited primarily by A)primary production.
B)nutrient availability.
C)water availability.
D)light availability.
Q3) ________ efficiency is the ratio of productivity in a given trophic level to the productivity of the trophic level on which it feeds.
Q4) Net primary productivity refers to
A)the total rate of photosynthesis, or energy assimilated, by autotrophs.
B)the rate of energy storage as organic matter by autotrophs after respiration is deducted.
C)the amount of accumulated organic matter found in an area at a given time.
D)the production of new tissues and offspring by heterotrophs.
Q5) Net primary productivity is greater in the open ocean than along the coast.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Decomposition and Nutrient Cycling
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Q1) ________ is the process by which plants absorb a portion of their nutrients from senescing tissues to be stored and used for the production of new tissues.
Q2) In an estuary, the zone of maximum vertical difference in density of water layers is called the A)thermocline. B)pycnocline.
C)mixing zone. D)hypolimnion.
Q3) Describe the soil microbial loop.
Q4) Compounds resistant to decomposition are known as A)labile.
B)recalcitrant.
C)cellulose. D)humus.
Q5) Aerobic bacteria are decomposers, but anaerobic bacteria are not. A)True
B)False
Q6) Using nitrogen cycling, explain the feedback between primary production and decomposition.
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Chapter 22: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) The element ________ is a basic constituent of all organic compounds and is involved in the fixation of energy by photosynthesis.
Q2) Seasonal fluctuations in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations are greater in the Northern Hemisphere than in the Southern Hemisphere.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most carbon is buried in sedimentary rocks.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Much of the problem associated with forest die-back is a direct result of A)high heavy metal levels.
B)denitrifying bacteria.
C)soil acidification.
D)global climate change.
Q5) Describe how atmospheric carbon dioxide levels fluctuate daily, seasonally, and geographically. Explain why such fluctuation occurs.
Q6) Carbon dioxide occurs in both the atmosphere and in oceans. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Terrestrial Ecosystems
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Q1) Arid environments that occur in the rainshadow of mountain barriers or are located far inland where moist maritime air rarely penetrates are referred to as ________.
Q2) In the tropical latitudes, the length of the dry season increases with distance from the equator.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss the differences in structure and climate between tropical savannahs and deserts.
Q4) The dry forests of tropical regions are referred to as tropical savannahs. A)True B)False
Q5) Discuss the differences in structure and climate between tropical rain forest and dry tropical forest.
Q6) Explain why the soils of rain forests are poor for agriculture.
Q7) More than one-half of all known plant and animal species occur in tropical ________ forests.
Q8) Similar climates produce similar vegetation structure around the world.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 24: Aquatic Ecosystems
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Q1) Decomposition in lakes and ponds occurs primarily in the benthic zone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Oxygen concentrations are relatively high in the bottom ooze of lakes and ponds.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Non-flowing water bodies, such as lakes, are referred to as lotic ecosystems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Invertebrates that feed on the algal coating of stones and rubble in streams and rivers are referred to as A)shredders.
B)gougers.
C)grazers.
D)collectors.
Q5) Smaller than diatoms, the ________, which include tiny cyanobacteria, haptophytes, and coccolithophores, make up the largest biomass in temperate and tropical water.
Q6) The zone in the ocean from the surface to approximately 200 metres deep is called the ________, or photic, zone.
Page 28
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Chapter 25: Coastal and Wetland Ecosystems
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Q1) Compare the physical conditions to which intertidal organisms must be adapted to in sandy and rocky shores.
Q2) In salt marshes, predatory fish move in when A)the tide is high.
B)migratory fishes are spawning.
C)the sun goes down.
D)salinity is low.
Q3) For what reasons have humans drained wetlands in the past, and what valuable services are we losing when we drain a wetland?
Q4) Bogs formed when a lake basin fills in from above rather than from below, creating a floating mat of peat over open water, are called A)fens.
B)blanket mires.
C)moors.
D)quaking bogs.
Q5) ________ plants are adapted to grow in water or on soil that is periodically anaerobic because of excess water.
Q6) The root extensions of mangroves are called ________.
Q7) Discuss the flow of water and nutrients in three topographic types of wetlands.
Page 29
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Chapter 26: Population Growth, Resource Use, and Sustainability
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a nonrenewable resource?
A)groundwater
B)trees in a forest
C)tuna
D)coal
Q2) The vast majority of human food resources are derived from agriculture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Genetically modified crops rely on the insertion of a beneficial gene from a closely related species because genes from distantly related species are incompatible.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In ________ cutting, mature single trees or groups of trees scattered through the forest are removed, which produces only small openings or gaps on the forest canopy.
Q5) Trees harvested for timber require a longer rotation period than trees harvested for paper products.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 27: Conservation Ecology
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Q1) The diverse topography of mountainous regions generally supports more species of plants and animals than the consistent terrain of flatlands.
A)True B)False
Q2) About 90% of the shallow-water marine invertebrates became extinct at the end of the Permian period.
A)True B)False
Q3) As elevation increases, the number of terrestrial species ________.
Q4) Genetic models suggest that the size of a population required to ensure the long-term survival of a species is higher for annual plants and invertebrates than for mammals.
A)True B)False
Q5) Choose one of several mass extinction events of the past or present and discuss the potential cause(s)of the mass extinction.
Q6) Discuss the major geographical trends in diversity and productivity in marine environments. Give one possible explanation for these patterns.
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Chapter 28: Global Climate Change
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Q1) Deforestation is a major cause of the recent rise in concentrations of the atmospheric gas ________.
Q2) Deforestation is a major cause of increased atmospheric concentrations of A)carbon dioxide. B)ozone.
C)oxygen.
D)chlorofluorocarbons.
Q3) In response to an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide, plants generally A)decrease their water-use efficiency.
B)increase their rate of photosynthesis. C)open their stomata more.
D)increase water loss from transpiration.
Q4) Most species of agricultural crops will benefit from a rise in carbon dioxide concentrations by increasing crop yields.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Samples of pollen taken from ________ cores in lake beds have allowed scientists to reconstruct the vegetation of many regions of the past 20 000 years.
Q6) Describe the potential impacts of global climate change on coastal environments.
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