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Political Science 101 introduces students to the fundamental theories, concepts, and practices within the field of political science. This course explores the structures and functions of government, the nature of political behavior, and the processes of public policy-making on local, national, and international levels. Students will examine key political ideologies, the roles of different political institutions, and the impact of globalization and current events on democratic and non-democratic systems. By engaging in discussions and critical analysis, students will develop a foundational understanding of citizenship, power dynamics, and the importance of active participation in political life.
Recommended Textbook
The Enduring Democracy 3rd Edition by David A. Yalof
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Q1) Which of the following terms best describes Hobbes's image of society without government?
A) Peaceful
B) Stable
C) Harmonious
D) Brutish
E) All of the above are true.
Answer: D
Q2) When considering public policy the president and other elected officials utilize several perspectives. The __________ perspective considers prior decision as a precedent for the current situation.
A) historical
B) global.
C) popular
D) common
E) anticipative
Answer: A
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Q1) Including the Bill of Rights, the U.S. Constitution has __________ Amendments.
A) twelve
B) one
C) ten
D) twenty-seven
E) fifty-three
Answer: D
Q2) One of the foundation principles of the U.S. Constitution is popular sovereignty, which means that
A) the people are tightly controlled by the government.
B) the president is the ultimate governmental power.
C) Congress is supreme.
D) the people are ultimately in charge of their political and social destiny.
E) the Supreme Court is subordinate to no other agency or group.
Answer: D
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Q1) The power to coin money is an example of a(n)
A) enumerated power.
B) reserved power.
C) concurrent power.
D) dictated power.
E) revealed power.
Answer: A
Q2) Sovereignty is defined as
A) the power of a governmental unit to control the destiny of another unit.
B) the lack of a centralized government.
C) the supreme political power of a government to regulate its affairs with outside interference.
D) the political power to control all subordinate governments.
E) a state of anarchy.
Answer: C
Q3) What is meant by the term "New Federalism"? Discuss this era in comparison with earlier eras, especially regarding the roles of federal and state governments.
Answer: Answers may vary.
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Q1) The idea that the best test for truth is to present all arguments, valid and invalid, is an example of
A) the "marketplace of ideas."
B) self-governance.
C) a "safety valve."
D) self-fulfillment.
E) "clear and present danger."
Q2) "Positive rights"
A) cannot be denied by a government.
B) exist even in the absence of government.
C) are "inalienable."
D) are granted by and subject to government authority.
E) are based on the natural laws of human society.
Q3) In Griswold v. Connecticut the United States Supreme Court advanced the idea that the Fourteenth Amendment and portions of the Bill of Rights created a "zone of privacy."
Compare and contrast Griswold's holding with the concept of "reasonable expectation of privacy" forming the basis of the decisions in Katz v. United States and California v. Ciraolo.
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Q1) The case of McLaurin v. Oklahoma State Regents
A) invalidated the exclusion of black students from law school absent some other provision from their legal training.
B) rejected an attempt to create a separate law school for blacks by roping off a section of the state capitol and assigning three law teachers to them.
C) invalidated an attempt to create to create an alternative law school for blacks because any such alternative would be inherently different in the reputation of its faculty.
D) rejected as "unequal" an attempt to provide graduate education to a black student by making him sit in a classroom surrounded by a railing marked "reserved for colored."
E) ruled that no scheme of racial discrimination can stand if "there is state participation through any arrangement, management, funds, or property."
Q2) Discuss the direct impact of the 1964 Civil Rights Act on the rights of African Americans.
Q3) Compare and contrast the efficacy of the Gay Rights and Disability Rights movements. How successful have each of these groups been?
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Q1) As an elected member of Congress prepares to vote on a proposed bill, he/she is influenced by a number of factors. List at least five modern factors and describe how they may affect the legislation process.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a duty or responsibility of the Speaker of the House?
A) Appointing all committee members
B) Acting as arbiter and interpreter of House rules
C) Recognizing members who speak in the House
D) Assigning bills to committees for consideration
E) Censuring House members for disciplinary reasons
Q3) Discuss the key differences between the powers granted to the House of Representatives and the Senate.
Q4) The U.S. Senate attempt to block a bill from passage by refusing to end discussion is known as a(n)
A) cloture.
B) open rule.
C) filibuster.
D) tabling.
E) flanking.
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Q1) What are the differences between an executive order and a law?
Q2) The power to "receive ambassadors" includes
A) the power to deny official recognition to foreign governments.
B) the power to meet with visiting heads of state.
C) the power to host official state dinners.
D) the power to make treaties.
E) the power to grant reprieves and pardons.
Q3) In 1941, the deadly attack on ____ influenced America to enter into WWII.
A) New York
B) Pearl Harbor
C) Washington D.C.
D) Paris
E) London
Q4) A presidential action that removes the punishment, as well as the finding of guilt, from a person convicted of a federal crime is called
A) a reprieve.
B) a commutation.
C) a full pardon.
D) presidential prerogative.
E) certiorari.
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Q1) While expanded federal programs are often popular for Americans, this much larger bureaucracy suffers during a downturn in economic growth, such as was experienced in the 1970s. Why does an economic downturn create such challenges?
A) There are fewer citizens for the bureaucracy to serve.
B) Economic downturns often create federal budget deficits that make it very difficult to continue supporting a large bureaucracy.
C) State governments begin to take away the federal government's role in providing social benefits.
D) Downturns in the economy always create international tensions that require a stronger military presence, which in turn drains off available resources.
E) As the U.S. Constitution requires a balanced budget, the federal government must eliminate agencies when income decreases.
Q2) Compare and contrast the activities of political appointees, career professionals, and civil service employees. Explain how each group is hired and how each function.
Q3) How do Congress, the president, and the judicial branch make bureaucracies accountable?
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Q1) Approximately __________ of convictions in the federal judicial system are the direct result of a negotiated plea bargain.
A) less than 10 percent
B) 45 percent
C) 65 percent
D) 89 percent
E) 95 percent
Q2) Which of the following characteristics is NOT one of the considerations that a president normally uses when selecting a nominee for an open seat on the U.S. Supreme Court?
A) The nominee's ideological and policy preferences
B) The nominee's judicial competence
C) The nominee's experience as a trial lawyer
D) Demographic considerations such as race or gender of the nominee
E) The current political environment
Q3) Several types of laws have influenced the creation of the American judicial system. Discuss the differences among the following: criminal law, constitutional law, administrative law, and common law.
Q4) Compare and contrast appellate and original jurisdiction.
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Q1) According to research done in the 1950s and 1960s, schools promote a positive attachment to democracy by
A) first grade.
B) third grade.
C) middle school.
D) high school.
E) college.
Q2) Many scholars use which of the following as a general definition of public opinion?
A) The official results of an election
B) The summation of individual opinions on any particular topic or issue
C) The results of a Gallup opinion poll
D) The views of elected officials as to the direction of the nation
E) The collective political preferences of the majority of citizens
Q3) The process of acquiring political values, beliefs, and opinions begins
A) at birth.
B) during childhood.
C) at around 18 to 21 years old.
D) around middle age.
E) in retirement years for many individuals.
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Q1) Noneconomic interest groups that focus on specific and sometimes very narrow perspectives and issues, such as abortion or capital punishment, are referred to as
A) public interest groups.
B) issue and ideological groups.
C) business groups.
D) opinion associations.
E) environmental advocacy groups.
Q2) Often an issue will gain significant support from across the spectrum of interest groups to the point that it becomes known as a movement. Which of the following would
NOT be considered a social movement in American history?
A) Women's rights
B) Civil rights
C) Child labor laws and child protection
D) Prohibition of alcohol
E) Upgrading of the military
Q3) What guarantees does the First Amendment provide to interest groups?
Q4) Discuss the free rider problem. Explain how it operates and explain the pros and cons of operating as a free rider.
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Q1) Historically the news media have been effective as checks against governmental power and have been trusted by most Americans. Because of their protections by the First Amendment and their ability to check governmental powers, the media are often referred to as
A) the agitator.
B) the fourth branch of government.
C) the government's police.
D) the mediator of government.
E) the voice of the people.
Q2) The theory of media effects that suggests that heavy television exposure helps develop an individual's overall view of the world is
A) cultivation theory.
B) social learning theory.
C) minimal effects theory.
D) agenda setting theory.
E) hypnotic theory.
Q3) How has the U.S. Supreme Court interpreted the First Amendment's freedom of the press and applied it to mass media? Give examples of some court cases.
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Q1) The Libertarian Party
A) endorses the notion that government should be small and limited, interfering as little as possible with the lives of citizens.
B) place a premium on individual liberties and personal responsibility.
C) bases the foundation of its political activities on religious principles of Christianity.
D) Both options A and B are true.
E) Both options B and C are true.
Q2) What was the opinion of political parties held by many of the Founders who drafted the U.S. Constitution?
A) The Founders held political parties in high regard and viewed them as proper and necessary for organizing the new government.
B) Political parties were viewed with great suspicion but were accepted as legitimate and necessary.
C) Political parties did not exist in the 1700s.
D) Political parties were distrusted and rejected as tools of the politically ambitious that tended to promote corruption and bias.
E) The Founders had no opinion concerning political parties.
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Q1) The Twenty-third Amendment, ratified in 1961, provides __________ with three electoral votes.
A) Guam
B) U.S. Virgin Islands
C) Puerto Rico
D) Washington, D.C.
E) American Samoa
Q2) Discuss the concept of "power of the incumbency." What is meant by the term? Do you feel that it is a realistic phenomenon? What advantages would an incumbent have over an inexperienced challenger? Is this power the same for members of Congress and the President?
Q3) The unit rule, in which the candidate who receives the most votes among the popular votes cast for President receives all of the electoral votes for that state, is used by all states except
A) Maine and Nebraska.
B) Rhode Island and Hawaii.
C) Texas and California.
D) Kansas and Arkansas.
E) Louisiana and Michigan.
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a factor that could tend to make the reported unemployment rate unreliable?
A) Unemployed citizens who are not seeking employment
B) Determining the rate of temporary seasonal employment
C) Voluntary job changes
D) Routine shifts in economic conditions that help some businesses but hurt others
E) Increased layoffs at the largest employer
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the federal budget?
A) It creates a comprehensive plan laying out what the government will spend for various programs.
B) It sets limits on the profitability of key industries and service companies.
C) It sets priorities for the government.
D) It details how the government expects to raise money.
E) It manages and implements the fiscal policy.
Q3) Fully explain the process through which the Federal Reserve Board generates and applies monetary policy.
Q4) Describe the impact of entitlements on the budgetary process.
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Q1) Created in 1949, which alliance bound the United States to the military defense of Western Europe and placed it squarely at odds with the Soviet Union?
A) Warsaw Pact
B) North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
C) League of Nations
D) Strategic Air Command (SAC)
E) Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
Q2) Ideological individuals who advocate that diplomacy rather than military action should be the preferred means of protecting U.S. interests abroad are often referred to as
A) hawks.
B) republicans.
C) realists.
D) socialists.
E) isolationists.
Q3) What are the underlying interests/benefits associated with U.S. foreign aid distributions? Analyze the arguments in favor of and opposed to American foreign aid. What is the trickle-down theory and is it still relevant?
Q4) Discuss the impact of 9/11 and how it changed American foreign policy.
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