Political Science 101 Solved
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Political Science 101 is an introductory course that explores the fundamental concepts, theories, and institutions that shape political life at both national and international levels. Students will examine the structures of government, the roles of political actors, the processes of policy-making, and the influence of ideologies and public opinion. The course also considers critical issues such as democracy, power, citizenship, and justice, providing students with the analytical tools needed to understand and engage with contemporary political challenges.
Recommended Textbook
The Enduring Democracy 4th Edition by Kenneth Dautrich
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Chapter 1: The More Things Changethe More They Stay the Same
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Q1) In considering government, power _____________.
A) always has negative results
B) is not conducive to democracy
C) does not exist in a democracy
D) is necessary in any government in order that it may enforce its rules
E) is necessary in a democracy in order that antigovernment forces may be kept quiet and under control.
Answer: D
Q2) Representative democracy is often referred to as which of the following synonymous terms?
A) monarchy
B) capitalism
C) federalism
D) republic
E) congress
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Founding and the Constitution
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Q1) For which of the following purposes did Congress originally call for the Philadelphia Convention?
A) to abolish the Articles of Confederation
B) to draft amendments to the Articles of Confederation
C) to return the young nation to a monarchy
D) to elect the president of the United States
E) to declare war on Canada
Answer: B
Q2) The First Continental Congress ________.
A) did not advocate outright independence from England
B) encouraged the colonial militias to arm themselves
C) was formed in protest to the series of legislation passed by Parliament
D) began to collect and store weapons
E) All of these choices are correct.
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Federalism
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Q1) The era of cooperative federalism was rooted in the Great Depression struggles of the late 1930s. How did cooperative federalism differ from the previous era of dual federalism?
A) Cooperative federalism acted as a return to the strict doctrine of state powers.
B) Cooperative federalism increased the powers of the federal government when necessary, but retained basic state powers.
C) Cooperative federalism was an arrangement whereby the state governments were allowed to approve all Supreme Court rulings.
D) The Supreme Court had no authority under the dual federalism arrangement so the state governments cooperatively granted the Court its necessary powers.
E) State supreme courts continued to be the supreme authority in the national government structure.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Civil Liberties
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Q1) Griswold v. Connecticut held __________________________.
A) that women have a constitutional right to an abortion under certain circumstances
B) any jury that imposes capital punishment must have the chance to consider mitigating circumstances that might generate sympathy for the defendant
C) that several provisions of the Bill of Rights in conjunction with the Fourteenth Amendment create a "zone of privacy"
D) that the defendant's lawyers must be given a chance to argue against imposition of the death penalty without having to prove the defendant not guilty
E) a jury cannot impose the death penalty at the same time it finds the defendant guilty
Q2) In the United Stated, the term liberties normally refers to _____________.
A) rights and privileges extended to veterans
B) rights received from a higher authority
C) natural rights
D) due process
E) rights extended only during times of peace
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Chapter 5: Civil Rights, Equality and Social Movements
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Q1) During the twentieth century, African Americans, their supporters, and other organizations and groups unified to overcome the discrimination and inequalities of that era. In doing so, several tactics were utilized. Which of the following is not of the tactics used by these groups to seek their civil rights?
A) civil disobedience
B) litigation
C) legal boycotts
D) riots
E) working within the political system
Q2) The ability to enter into a work contract would be an example of ___________ equality.
A) social
B) economic
C) visible
D) political
E) practical
Q3) Provide an understanding of the Equal Rights Amendment and describe its history during the twentieth century. Explain how Supreme Court decisions beginning in the 1970's may have affected support for the amendment.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Congress
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Q1) Members of the U.S. House of Representatives serve _______________.
A) terms of two years
B) terms of four years
C) terms of six years
D) lifetime appointments
E) staggered terms
Q2) The presiding officer in the U.S. Senate is _____________________.
A) the majority whip of the senate
B) the president pro tempore of the senate
C) the vice president of the United States.
D) the clerk of the senate.
E) the secretary of state.
Q3) Discuss the key differences between the powers granted to the House of Representatives and the senate.
Q4) What is a filibuster? Why is it used? How does it work, and how does it end? Do you think a filibuster is an appropriate technique to be used in the senate? How do you think proceedings in the House of Representatives would change if it employed use of the filibuster?
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Chapter 7: The Presidency
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Lend-lease" was a _________________.
A) program to provide federal jobs for the unemployed
B) corollary to the Monroe Doctrine
C) policy to sell Britain war supplies in exchange for rights to build military bases on British possessions
D) declaration permitting the United States to intervene in Latin America
E) a policy establishing the ability of the United States to act as the "world's policeman"
Q2) The presidency of Woodrow Wilson is crowned by successful intervention of the United States into World War I in 1917. Though Wilson saw several successes, his greatest downfall was ________________________.
A) his failure to gain senate approval to join the League of Nations, which he was instrumental in creating
B) the loss of the Philippines to Japan
C) the attack on Pearl Harbor by the Empire of Japan
D) his failure to enact comprehensive civil rights legislation
E) his inability to desegregate the military
Q3) Discuss the evolution of executive powers since World War II.
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Chapter 8: The Federal Bureaucracy
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Q1) The government agency that has been given much discretion in setting specific standards for car emissions and pollution is the _____________________.
A) Occupational Safety and Health Administration
B) Environmental Protection Agency
C) Federal Reserve
D) Treasury
E) NASA
Q2) What is meant by the term administrative judge?
A) It is a judge who does not preside in a courtroom but handles court-related paperwork.
B) It is a judge who serves as a magistrate.
C) It is a judge who works within a federal agency to hold hearings and make judgments on cases related to that agency.
D) It is a lower court judge who determines guilt but not punishments.
E) It is another name for an appellate court judge, such as those on the Court of Appeals.
Q3) Compare and contrast the following methods of getting control of the federal bureaucracy: privatization, deregulation, and devolution. Evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of each method.
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Chapter 9: The Judiciary
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Q1) Approximately __________ of convictions in the federal judicial system are the direct result of a negotiated plea bargain.
A) less than 10 percent
B) 25 percent
C) 40 percent
D) 75 percent
E) 90 percent
Q2) Sets of legislative codes, laws, or rules that are enacted by duly authorized lawmaking bodies or offices are broadly known as __________ laws.
A) civil
B) martial
C) case
D) common
E) executive
Q3) Describe the ways in which a case may reach the U.S. Supreme Court. Explain the Court's process for selecting cases, and what factors justices may take into consideration during the case selection process.
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Chapter 10: Public Opinion
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Q1) During Page and Shapiro's study, they also investigated the link between public opinion and public policy. What was their finding?
A) The public expects its elected representatives to seek its opinion before developing public policy.
B) There is very little correlation between public opinion and public policy.
C) When public opinion shifts, a corresponding shift in public policy is likely to follow.
D) As public opinion is impossible to be accurately determined, public opinion cannot be impacted.
E) Divisive partisan politics have the impact of creating impasse, whereby public opinion becomes irrelevant to enactment of public policy.
Q2) Discuss the ways in which you have been influenced in the development of your political orientation. What groups, factors, or institutions have played an important role in this development?
Q3) Define a scientific poll. Explain why a scientific poll is preferable to an unscientific poll. Why are unscientific polls conducted (give examples of at least two different types of unscientific polls)?
Q4) Public opinion exists at three basic levels. List and describe these levels.
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Chapter 11: Interest Groups
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Q1) In the United States, which type of workers are the most likely to be unionized?
A) professionals
B) service providers
C) laborers
D) all sectors of the workforce are unionized equally
E) unions have been outlawed nation wide
Q2) Groups that exist to promote favorable economic conditions and economic opportunities for their members, are referred to as ________________ groups.
A) economic interest
B) self-help
C) self-interest
D) social interest
E) governmental interest
Q3) Compare and contrast the different types of economic interest groups. Distinguish between those functioning on behalf of businesses and those that serve individuals as members. What is the difference between labor unions and professional associations? What are the advantages and disadvantages of each?
Q4) Compare and contrast the different types of noneconomic interest groups. Provide examples of each.
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Chapter 12: The Media and American Politics
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Q1) The standard TV news show, developed in the early 1950s, _______________________.
A) covered the Army-McCarthy Hearings live
B) was a half-hour program produced each evening
C) provided gavel-to-gavel coverage of the Democratic and Republican conventions
D) was a 15-minute daily news program
E) was developed from the program "Martin Kane-Private Eye"
Q2) Criticism of private media companies sensationalizing the news can be explained by _______________.
A) private media companies not having access to government officials
B) the profit motive of private ownership
C) lack of funding to travel internationally and cover worldwide news stories
D) lack of interest in politics
E) lack of legitimacy
Q3) Provide an understanding of the principle functions of the media in American politics, and how each promotes the free flow of information to the public.
Q4) How has the U.S. Supreme Court interpreted the First Amendment's freedom of the press and applied it to mass media? Give examples of some court cases.
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Chapter 13: Political Parties and Voting
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Q1) An election that results in a clear shifting of voter preferences from one party to another, or that clearly solidifies a party's unity, is referred to as a
A) realigning, or critical, election
B) divisive, or polarizing, election
C) party election, or political sweep
D) party overthrow
E) sectionalization
Q2) Which of the following is considered a proper role of political parties?
A) The constitutional role of political parties is to balance control of the legislative and executive branches.
B) Political parties control the government, thereby keeping government power in check.
C) The major political parties play a central role in running government, including organizing and providing context to voters.
D) Political parties stir dissent so that citizens do not trust their government too much.
E) Effective political parties successfully eliminate competition.
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Chapter 14: Campaigns and Elections
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Q1) Most states require that a voter declare a party affiliation ahead of time and, at the time of voting, he or she can only vote in that party's election. This process is called a(n)
A) open primary
B) closed primary
C) the caucus
D) forced selection
E) restricted access
Q2) What is meant by the phrase, "open election"?
A) Voters from either party can vote for any candidate.
B) Anyone can file as a candidate for the seat.
C) Neither candidate is an incumbent.
D) Neither candidate has declared a party affiliation.
E) Non-registered citizens may still cast votes if they prove residency.
Q3) Several amendments to the constitution (the Twelfth, Twenty-Second and Twenty-Third) have altered the presidential selection process. Compare and contrast the operation and impact of each amendment.
Q4) How have campaign finance laws evolved? Citing specific examples, describe the ways in which current laws influence campaign finance.
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Chapter 15: American Domestic Policy
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Q1) The first revenue-raising bill ever passed by Congress was ___________.
A) an income tax
B) Social Security
C) an excise tax
D) a property tax
E) a tariff
Q2) A flat tax is one in which ________________________.
A) the tax rate on an individual's income increases as the amount gets larger
B) the tax is imposed on personal income and employers
C) all entities are taxed at the same rate as a proportion of income
D) the tax exacts a larger percentage of income from a lower wage earner than from a higher income earner
E) a fee is levied on imports
Q3) Define the term fiscal policy. Describe America's evolution of thought with regard to this policy, from laissez-faire, to one based in Keynesian economic theory, to "supply-side economics." Which do you believe is the best approach for America, and why?
Q4) Compare and contrast the crime control model and the due process model of the criminal justice system. Apply criticisms of the criminal justice system to evaluate the effectiveness of each model.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: American Foreign Policy
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Q1) According to the preemption doctrine _____________________.
A) wars should be kept classified as top secret until after the fighting has ended
B) the United States had a right to use advance strikes to stop rogue states from developing weapons of mass destruction
C) self-defense is the only justification for using force against another nation
D) all previous wars have been discredited
E) presidents should have unlimited authority when dealing with foreign policy, but limited in the domestic sphere
Q2) Which theory referred to the policy held by certain U.S. presidents, positing that the Communist takeover of Vietnam or Korea during their respective wars would lead to the fall of other Asian countries as well?
A) expansion theory
B) domino theory
C) Asian theory
D) anti-Communist theory
E) American sphere of influence theory
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