Political Science 101
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Political Science 101 is an introductory course that explores the fundamental concepts, theories, and structures of political systems. Students will examine the origins and development of political thought, the functions of government, the roles of institutions and actors, and the processes that shape public policy and citizen participation. Through case studies and comparative analysis, the course provides a broad overview of political ideologies, electoral systems, and the impact of political decisions at local, national, and international levels, equipping students with a foundational understanding of how politics shapes societies.
Recommended Textbook
MindTapR in Action American Government 1st Edition by Cengage
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15 Chapters
750 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Constitution
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Q1) How did the Three-Fifths Compromise affect the Constitutional Convention?
A) It delayed any conversation regarding slavery in the United States.
B) It allowed the process of developing a constitution to continue.
C) It clearly answered the question as to whether a slave was person or property.
D) It led to the establishment of an abolitionist party.
Answer: B
Q2) When Madison wrote "Ambition must be made to counteract ambition," he was addressing what concern of the Anti-Federalists?
A) The idea of three branches of government
B) Enumerated powers
C) The elastic clause
D) The system of checks and balances
Answer: D
Q3) Under the Articles of Confederation, each state operated as a
A) member of the United States.
B) territory.
C) sovereign nation.
D) federal system.
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Federalism
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Q1) The purpose of the supremacy clause is to clearly state that where state and national laws conflict,
A) the state law remains supreme.
B) the national law remains supreme.
C) a new amendment needs to be proposed.
D) the law is determined null and void.
Answer: B
Q2) In the United States, the power of government is derived from
A) federal officials.
B) state government.
C) local units of government.
D) the people.
Answer: D
Q3) McCullough v. Maryland introduced the idea of expanding the powers of Congress to include powers
A) the states chose to give up.
B) that were explicitly listed in the Constitution.
C) the people voted to give Congress.
D) not explicitly listed in the Constitution.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Civil Liberties
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Q1) In United States v. O'Brien, the protestor who burned his draft card was not covered by the First Amendment because the action
A) incited others to act in a manner that would cause a public safety issue.
B) was slanderous to the draft board.
C) destroyed an official record, which represented a compelling governmental interest.
D) destroyed an official record, which created a national security risk.
Answer: C
Q2) What does the Fourth Amendment prohibit?
A) Unreasonable searches and seizures
B) Restriction of religious expression
C) Censoring of the press
D) Closing a trial to the public
Answer: A
Q3) What must a legitimate search include?
A) A suspicion of guilt by a law enforcement official
B) Probable cause
C) Advance warning that property will be searched
D) Permission of the person being searched
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Civil Rights
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Q1) Which amendment requires that in order to conduct a legal search, police must have a reasonable suspicion that a crime has been, is being, or is about to be committed?
A) Fourth Amendment
B) Fifth Amendment
C) Sixth Amendment
D) Seventh Amendment
Q2) Title IX requires any educational institution that receives federal money to
A) take immediate and effective steps to respond to sexual violence on campus.
B) not discriminate against a job applicant or employee.
C) create a system for handling sexual harassment complaints on the job.
D) provide parental leave for employees and students.
Q3) Gerrymandering is when legislative district boundaries are drawn without regard for the
A) census and favoring political boundaries.
B) census and usually in favor of a particular political party.
C) interest of the candidates and usually in favor of the voter.
D) interest of the voters and usually in favor of a particular political party.
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6
Chapter 5: Congress
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Questions
Q1) The first step in the creation of a law is for a bill to be
A) introduced to the full House or Senate.
B) reviewed through the committee process.
C) reviewed by the executive branch.
D) proposed and sponsored by a member of the House or Senate.
Q2) What is the total number of senators?
A) 50
B) 100
C) 150
D) 200
Q3) What are two of the options the president has when a bill has been sent to the White House?
A) To sign or to table
B) To veto or to send it for judicial review
C) To sign or to veto
D) To veto or to send it back to committee
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Chapter 6: Presidency and Foreign Policy
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Q1) Which of the following is <b><u>not</b></u> a member of the National Security Council?
A) The Secretary of State
B) The Secretary of Treasury
C) The Secretary of Defense
D) The Secretary of Transportation
Q2) The purpose of the Office of Management and Budget is to help the president
A) implement his or her policy priorities across the executive branch.
B) implement his or her staffing procedures and manage accounts receivable.
C) implement his or her policies managing the budgets of the judicial and legislative branches.
D) approve budget changes for military action.
Q3) How many members made up George Washington's cabinet?
A) Three
B) Four
C) Seven
D) Eight
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Chapter 7: Bureaucracy
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Q1) Political appointees
A) are elected to the position.
B) are chosen through the merit system.
C) tend to share the president's ideology.
D) never have to go through the nomination process.
Q2) What is devolution?
A) A process that decentralizes government services from the federal government to state and local governments
B) A process of transferring government assets or services to the private sector
C) A process of transferring local government responsibilities to the federal government
D) A process where states function as laboratories of democracy and set federal standards
Q3) What are the two philosophies of government growth?
A) It is driven by citizen demand, and it is a result of a national crisis.
B) It is driven by a strong economy, and it is a result of government itself.
C) It is driven by citizen demand, and it is a result of government itself.
D) It is driven by a strong economy, and it is a result of a national crisis.
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Chapter 8: Judiciary
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Q1) Who represents the U.S. government when it is a party in a case before the Supreme Court?
A) The president or vice president
B) The attorney general
C) The solicitor general
D) The chief justice
Q2) What relatively recent term refers to the Senate systematically attacking a nominee during confirmation hearings?
A) Gang up
B) Filibuster
C) Nuclear option
D) Borking
Q3) Which Supreme Court case found that the power to accept territories into the Union as free or slave was <b><u>not </b></u>an enumerated power of Congress?
A) Marbury v. Madison
B) Plessy v. Ferguson
C) Dred Scott v. Sandford
D) Brown v. Board of Education
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Chapter 9: Public Opinion
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Q1) Which of the following presents the greatest challenge to modern opinion research?
A) Population mobility
B) Increased diversity
C) Availability of the Internet
D) A shift in telephone ownership and usage
Q2) Bar graphs are particularly useful in examining
A) upward trends.
B) data between categories.
C) downward trends.
D) data within a single category.
Q3) What is the purpose of a town hall meeting?
A) To influence public opinion
B) To find out what constituents think
C) To find out what elites think
D) To formulate media opinion
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11
Chapter 10: Interest Groups
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Q1) Labor unions, such as the American Federation of State, County, and Municipal Employees, and the AFL-CIO, are considered types of
A) business groups.
B) professional associations.
C) issue networks.
D) political action committees.
Q2) Issue networks were first described by researchers in the A) 1960s.
B) 1970s.
C) 1980s.
D) 1990s.
Q3) Groups, such as the National Rifle Association, that tend to focus on one particular substantive area are referred to as
A) partisan groups.
B) ideological groups.
C) issue groups.
D) corporate action committees.
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Chapter 11: Media
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Q1) Who participated in the first televised debate?
A) Wendall Wilkie and Franklin D. Roosevelt
B) Adlai Stevenson and Estes Kefauver
C) John F. Kennedy and Richard M. Nixon
D) George McGovern and Hubert Humphrey
Q2) Which of the following explains the effects of framing?
A) Information is biased because of the public's reliance on a single, primary news source.
B) The information and language used by the media in presenting issues influences the way people form opinions about it.
C) Information is biased because of the significant role of elites in shaping public opinion.
D) Decision-making is based on poor understanding of the significant issues of the day.
Q3) In what year was the Fairness Doctrine repealed?
A) 1977
B) 1987
C) 1997
D) 2007
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Chapter 12: Political Parties
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Q1) Party-in-the-electorate is best described as being characterized by
A) feelings of loyalty to the political party.
B) national American committees that hold conventions.
C) infrastructure developed for the purpose of supporting party candidates.
D) cooperative work by congressional members with the same party affiliation.
Q2) Which of the following was <b><u>not</b></u> a focus of Abraham Lincoln's campaign for the 1860 presidential election?
A) Tariffs
B) Slavery
C) Internal improvement
D) Corruption in the outgoing administration
Q3) The goal of the 1883 Pendleton Act was to
A) create a more competent bureaucracy.
B) inject prestige into government employment.
C) provide assistance to former government workers.
D) eliminate partisan politics.
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Chapter 13: Participation
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Q1) Which of the following is <b><u>true</u></b> in regard to the federal voting system in the United States?
A) Voting is compulsory.
B) A win in an election is achieved through a plurality of the votes.
C) Voter registration is unimportant.
D) Majoritarian and proportional voting formulas are applied in different electoral tiers.
Q2) Which voting system is in place in the United States?
A) Majoritarian
B) Absolute majority
C) Proportional representation
D) Mixed
Q3) "The extent to which an individual pays attention to politics and understands what he or she has encountered" is the definition of political
A) impact.
B) behavior.
C) awareness.
D) participation.
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Chapter 14: Campaigns and Elections
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Q1) What is the invisible primary?
A) The early voting that occurs after candidates have announced their candidacy
B) The time when candidates begin to secure endorsements and fundraising commitments
C) A set of secret meetings held across the country to decide how to attack the credibility of opposing candidates
D) A period of gracefully bowing out for candidates who have made the decision to abandon a potential candidacy
Q2) Which statement best describes an open race in Congress?
A) A sitting member of Congress is not running for reelection.
B) A sitting member of Congress is considering stepping down from office.
C) A sitting member of Congress does not have the support of the party.
D) A sitting member of Congress is fighting a political controversy.
Q3) In gerrymandering, congressional districts are drawn
A) to reflect diverse representation.
B) with participation of nonvoters.
C) to please local lobbyists.
D) for the purpose of partisan gain.
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Chapter 15: Domestic Policy
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Q1) Which term can be defined as "a measure of the average change over time in the prices paid by urban consumers for a market basket of consumer goods and services"?
A) National debt
B) GDP per capita
C) Market economy
D) Consumer price index
Q2) Which economist advocated for increased government spending to stimulate overall economic development?
A) Ronald Reagan
B) Adam Smith
C) Alan Greenspan
D) John Maynard Keynes
Q3) The policymaking power of the president is best described as
A) limited, but long-term.
B) limited and transitory.
C) equal to that of Congress.
D) extensive.
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Page 17