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Political Science 101 offers an introduction to the fundamental concepts, theories, and structures that define the study of politics. Students will explore the nature of political power, the functions of government, the role of citizens, and the dynamics of political institutions at local, national, and global levels. The course examines key topics such as democracy, political ideologies, public policy, and international relations, while encouraging critical analysis of current events and political debates. Through lectures, discussions, and case studies, students will gain a foundational understanding of how political systems operate and the impact of politics on society.
Recommended Textbook
American Government Power and Purpose 13th Edition by Theodore J. Lowi
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Q1) Political scientists would most accurately classify a governing system that recognizes no formal limits on its power and seeks to absorb or eliminate other social institutions that might challenge it as:
A)autocratic
B)dictatorial
C)democratic
D)authoritarian
E)totalitarian
Answer: E
Q2) Institutions do the public's business while relieving communities of having to reinvent collective action each time it is required.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The term politics is defined as the decisions reached by democratic processes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Prior to the Revolutionary War,British policies harmed the economic interests of which two large sectors of colonial society that previously supported British rule?
A)royalists and small farmers
B)Southern planters and New England merchants
C)laborers and small farmers
D)New England merchants and shopkeepers
E)Southern planters and royalists
Answer: B
Q2) The framers intended an active and powerful government,so they included language to signify that the enumerated powers were meant to be a source of strength to the national government,not a limitation on it.This "elastic clause" is most commonly known as the:
A)national supremacy clause
B)separation of powers clause
C)necessary and proper clause
D)privileges and immunities clause
E)federal caveat
Answer: C
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Q1) Article IV of the U.S.Constitution calls for "full faith and credit," meaning that:
A)each state is expected to honor the public acts of other states
B)a state cannot discriminate against someone from another state
C)the laws passed at the national level are superior to state laws
D)states have the power to regulate the health,welfare,and morals of its citizens
E)the federal government is obligated to pay its debts
Answer: A
Q2) Federalism is a system of government in which the Constitution divides power between a central government and regional governments.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The necessary and proper clause of the Constitution put severe restrictions on what actions the federal government could take.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) In 2003,the Supreme Court overturned a previous ruling and struck down a law banning consensual homosexual relations in:
A)Bowers v.Hardwick
B)Texas v.Johnson
C)Lawrence v.Texas
D)Romer v.Evans
E)Griswold v.Connecticut
Q2) Are courts political institutions? Explain why or why not in relation to the advancement of civil rights in the United States.
Q3) Why is commercial speech not entitled to full First Amendment protection?
A)Regulating commercial speech protects gullible consumers from rampant overspending.
B)Commercial entities have a history of making reliable advertising claims,and the Supreme Court wanted that to continue.
C)Commercial speech is not political speech,so it can be regulated more heavily.
D)Commercial speech always targets minors,who need greater protection.
E)It is difficult to determine who actually speaks for a commercial entity.
Q4) Explain due process and the constitutional rights protected under due process.
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Q1) What is the area of policy over which a committee is assigned responsibility?
A)area of expertise
B)central function
C)domain
D)home turf
E)jurisdiction
Q2) A representative who votes according to the preferences of his or her constituency acts as a delegate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The franking privilege is an example of a tool that leads to:
A)the incumbency advantage
B)a professional legislature
C)frequent ethics violations
D)pork-barrel legislation
E)patronage
Q4) In your opinion,should congressional representatives act more as delegates or as trustees? Explain why.
Q5) Beyond legislation,what additional powers does Congress possess to influence the process of government?
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Q1) Which of the following factors does NOT limit the effectiveness of public appeals?
A)Popular support can be fickle and fade quickly.
B)Programs advocated by the president almost inevitably fall short of popular expectations,leading to a decline in public support.
C)When presidents have high public support,they tend to be unwilling to spend their "political capital" on potentially controversial programs.
D)Declines in popular approval during a president's term are nearly inevitable.
E)Presidents do not always keep campaign promises,resulting in lower public support.
Q2) President Nixon established the Environmental Protection Agency through an executive order.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Even when the president's party is in the minority in Congress,it is a tremendous asset to the achievement of his or her legislative program.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Policies focused on banks,credit,and currency are called fiscal policies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Each expansion of the national government into new policies and programs in the twentieth century was accompanied by a parallel restriction on the president's management authority.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Elections have negligible effect on the conditions for employment of bureaucrats in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As long as the United States is not in a state of insurrection,which agency is tasked with conducting most of the nation's internal security?
A)National Security Service
B)Department of State
C)Agency for Internal Security
D)Department of Defense
E)Departments of Justice and Homeland Security
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Q1) Individual senators who share the president's party identification can effectively exercise veto power over appointments to the federal bench in their own states through an informal but seldom violated practice called:
A)judicial abatement
B)legislative blackball
C)advise and consent
D)senatorial privilege
E)senatorial courtesy
Q2) Most criminal cases arise in which of the following courts?
A)the Supreme Court
B)state and municipal courts
C)federal district courts
D)federal appellate courts
E)arbitration outside of the court system
Q3) Explain the various stages in the decision-making process of the Supreme Court.
Q4) In a public law case,the government is the plaintiff.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the process and politics surrounding the appointment of federal judges.
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Q6) How do presidents and Congress influence decision making by the Supreme Court?
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Q1) In terms of political orientation,men tend to be more militaristic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a democracy,to whom are the media accountable for the use of their formidable power?
Q3) Self-interest often informs individuals' political preferences.
A)True
B)False
Q4) American radio and television are regulated by an independent regulatory agency established in 1934 called the:
A)Public Broadcasting Corporation
B)National Broadcasting Commission (NBC)
C)National Public Regulation Authority (NPR)
D)Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
E)Federal Broadcast Regulatory Authority (FBRA)
Q5) Interest groups have little influence on public opinion.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Is voting an accurate reflection of public opinion? Why or why not?
Q7) What do you see as the future impact of the Internet on the political process?
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Q1) An electorate that is allowed to elect only one representative from each district is called a(n):
A)one-man show
B)one-person,one-vote district
C)single-member district
D)equilateral district
E)unirepresentational district
Q2) The adoption of the secret ballot system enabled voters to engage in split-ticket voting.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss the politics surrounding congressional redistricting.
Q4) When California voters placed a measure on the ballot to remove an unpopular governor,Gray Davis,from office,they made use of the:
A)recall
B)initiative
C)franchise
D)referendum
E)mediated lawmaking process
Q5) How does government regulate the electoral process?
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Q1) Today's parties provide valuable services for candidates.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Franklin Roosevelt's New Deal was a plan to reduce the intrusion of the federal government in Americans' lives.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Third-party candidates often emerge to represent issues that were not given voice by the major parties.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The body that runs the day-to-day business of the national parties is the:
A)national convention
B)national committee
C)congressional campaign committees
D)national congregation
E)supreme soviet
Q5) How have third parties influenced American politics? Why is it difficult for the influence of third parties to endure? Do third parties achieve any success in accomplishing their aims?
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Q1) When the Service Employees International Union spent over $30 million in independent campaign activity on behalf of Barack Obama,they exemplified the strategy of:
A)contributions through PACs
B)campaign activism
C)vote buying
D)Internet campaigning
E)Astroturf lobbying
Q2) What do you think that the framers of the American Constitution would say about interest-group involvement in contemporary politics? Would they be pleased or disappointed with the evolution of their political design?
Q3) What roles do interest groups play in the political process? In what ways do they hinder or promote the democratic process?
Q4) Interest groups provide funds for candidates but are rarely involved in other aspects of political campaigns.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the characteristics of interest groups?
Q6) How do interest groups attempt to influence elections?
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Q1) Policies that manipulate the growth of the entire economy by controlling the availability of money to banks are called ________ policies.
A)monetary
B)reserve
C)fiscal
D)pecuniary
E)social
Q2) The provision of an interstate highway system is considered to be a:
A)liability
B)labor cost
C)public good
D)market structure
E)tangible good
Q3) What is the Federal Reserve System,and what are its powers? Has the Fed been effective at fighting financial crises,such as the foreclosure crisis that occurred in the first decade of the 2000s?
Q4) Unlike Social Security,Medicare is a means-tested program.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Is there a substitute for war?
Q2) Does the Bush doctrine of preemptive war make the world a safer place?
Q3) The International Monetary Fund makes loans that are consonant with the interests of the:
A)world community
B)European Union,its primary sponsor
C)United Nations,its parent government
D)United States,Europe,and Japan,its leading shareholders
E)Federal Reserve,its primary sponsor
Q4) Since the collapse of the Soviet Union,the North Atlantic Treaty Organization has not expanded to include former Warsaw Pact countries.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which choice best defines sanctions?
A)a loan to provide economic aid
B)a cash incentive to provide economic aid
C)permission to engage in international commerce
D)a type of treaty
E)an economic punishment
Q6) Which is better foreign policy strategy,unilateralism or multilateralism? Why?
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