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Political Science 101 introduces students to the foundational concepts, theories, and institutions that shape political systems and behavior both domestically and internationally. The course explores the nature of government, political ideologies, the role of citizens, and the processes by which public policy is formulated and implemented. Through the study of key topics such as democracy, authoritarianism, political parties, elections, and international relations, students develop critical thinking skills and a deeper understanding of how political power operates in diverse contexts. Designed for those with little or no prior background in the field, Political Science 101 provides essential knowledge for further study and informed participation in civic life.
Recommended Textbook
We the People 11th Essentials Edition by Benjamin Ginsberg
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14 Chapters
1101 Verified Questions
1101 Flashcards
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73 Verified Questions
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of the process of direct democracy?
A) citizens in a state approving the use of medical marijuana through a popular referendum
B) a citizen calling her representative to complain about potholes on local roads
C) a group of citizens coming together to debate the pros and cons of higher taxes
D) a citizen deciding to contribute money to his preferred presidential candidate
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Native Americans have always been recognized as citizens of the United States.
B) Native Americans became U.S. citizens in 1868.
C) Native Americans became U.S. citizens in 1924.
D) Native Americans have never become U.S. citizens under American constitutional law.
Answer: C
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102 Verified Questions
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Q1) The framers employed the separation of powers and federalism in order to A) prevent the new government from abusing its power.
B) end the slave trade.
C) create a replica of the British political system.
D) promote economic equality among all citizens.
Answer: A
Q2) During the ratification debates, who were the Antifederalists?
A) those who opposed the new Constitution because they wanted a weaker central government
B) those who opposed the Constitution because it did not create a strong enough central government
C) those who opposed the Constitution because it contained a strong national government
D) those who believed that the United States should enter into a confederation with Britain and Canada
Answer: A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Federal officials seeking to give states more authority are most likely to support A) unfunded mandates.
B) block grants.
C) categorical grants.
D) project grants.
Answer: B
Q2) An example of ________ federalism is when federal officials establish environmental standards that every state must follow.
A) cooperative
B) dual
C) regulated
D) "marble cake"
Answer: C
Q3) Unfunded mandates are unpopular among those who want to A) reduce the power of the federal government.
B) increase the scope of federal regulations.
C) exercise a strong principle of preemption.
D) eliminate the principle of home rule.
Answer: A
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131 Verified Questions
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Q1) In 1965, in the seven states of the Old Confederacy covered by the Voting Rights Act (VRA), approximately ____ percent of the eligible black residents were registered to vote, compared with approximately ____ percent of the white residents.
A) 10; 85
B) 15; 80
C) 30; 75
D) 40; 70
Q2) Why was New York Times v. Sullivan (1964) significant?
A) The justices ruled that a newspaper had to print false and malicious material deliberately in order to be guilty of libel.
B) The justices ruled that newspapers could be guilty of libel if they published any information that was ultimately proven to be inaccurate.
C) The justices ruled that the government could prevent the publication of newspapers and magazines only under the most extraordinary circumstances.
D) The justices ruled that "shield laws" were unconstitutional.
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Q1) A wealthy businessperson who is very liberal is an example of the A) fact that group memberships can fully explain all of an individual's political views.
B) fact that group memberships never fully explain all of an individual's political views.
C) power of the bandwagon effect.
D) negative consequences of the power of the mass media.
Q2) A liberal would most likely support
A) an expansion in governmental social services.
B) an increase in the federal military budget.
C) prayer in the public schools.
D) a reduction in foreign aid for poor countries.
Q3) The fact that Americans strongly support minimal governmental interference with individuals' lives and property illustrates their commitment to A) anarchy.
B) democracy.
C) liberty.
D) socialism.
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a radio station aired a personal attack against a candidate but refused to allow the same candidate the opportunity to respond to that attack on its station, the station would be in violation of the
A) Telecommunications Act of 1996.
B) Fairness Doctrine.
C) right of rebuttal.
D) Communications Decency Act.
Q2) The power of the media to draw public attention to particular issues and problems is called
A) framing.
B) canvassing.
C) agenda-setting.
D) the bandwagon effect.
Q3) Large media conglomerates own approximately ________ percent of daily newspapers.
A) 25
B) 40
C) 55
D) 75
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Q1) The Populist Party appealed to which of the following groups?
A) western mining interests, small farmers, and urban workers
B) eastern bankers, southern planters, and wealthy merchants
C) northern bankers, landowners, and factory workers
D) eastern mining interests, southern merchants, and small farmers
Q2) Which of the following political officers is/are subject to recall elections?
A) the president
B) members of the House of Representatives
C) federal judges
D) the governor of the state of California
Q3) During midterm elections, voters are selecting
A) federal judges.
B) members of Congress.
C) the president.
D) national-level referendums.
Q4) Super PACs were made possible by the
A) Federal Election Campaign Act.
B) Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act.
C) Supreme Court's decision in Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission.
D) Supreme Court's decision in Buckley v. Valeo.
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Q1) What are some of the historical reasons for the proliferation of interest groups during the 1960s? Using examples of specific organizations, explain how the groups that emerged in the 1960s differed from the groups that preceded them.
Q2) The Teamsters and the American Federation of Labor and Congress of Industrial Organizations are examples of ________ groups.
A) public interest
B) business
C) labor
D) ideological
Q3) If a person enjoys the benefits of a group's collective efforts but does not contribute to those efforts, he or she is called a
A) citizen.
B) subject.
C) free rider.
D) lobbyist.
Q4) Describe some of the different strategies that interest groups use to gain influence on public policy. In your answer, be sure to give specific examples of each of the strategies you discuss.
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Q1) What is cloture?
A) the ability of a senator to speak for as long as he or she wishes to prevent action from being taken on legislation that he or she opposes
B) the process by which three-fifths of the Senate can end a filibuster
C) the rule that allows one house of Congress to circumvent the other during the legislative process
D) a lawsuit filed by a member of the Senate against a member of the House or vice versa
Q2) ________ bills are one of Congress's favorite vehicles for pork-barrel spending.
A) Education
B) Veteran's affairs
C) Health care
D) Highway
Q3) The Joint Select Committee on Deficit Reduction was unique among joint committees because it
A) included members of both the House and the Senate.
B) had the power to write and report legislation.
C) was created as a permanent committee.
D) only included members of the House of Representatives.
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Q1) After the Civil War, why was it considered inappropriate for President Andrew Johnson to make a series of speeches seeking public support for his policies?
A) President Johnson traveled with his own press secretary, the first time a president had used public relations officials.
B) During the nineteenth century, it was perceived to be undignified for a president to campaign on his own behalf.
C) President Johnson did not speak to the general public but instead spoke only to handpicked audiences where he knew he would be favorably received.
D) President Johnson's speeches were delivered only in the former Confederate states and ignored the North, where he most needed support.
Q2) President Clinton was unusual among modern presidents because he left the White House
A) less popular than when he entered.
B) more popular than when he entered.
C) without issuing a single signing statement.
D) without issuing a single executive order.
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Q1) The different agencies of the executive branch can be grouped according to the different kinds of services they provide. Describe the three main categories of agencies. What kinds of services do they provide? Provide some examples of each.
Q2) The greatest number of federal government professionals working abroad are under the authority of the Department of
A) State.
B) Defense.
C) Commerce.
D) Homeland Security.
Q3) Which of the following is a government corporation?
A) the National Park Service
B) Amtrak
C) the Federal Bureau of Investigation
D) the Department of Agriculture
Q4) Which of the following executive agencies was created by Congress in 2010?
A) the Federal Reserve Board
B) the Department of Housing and Urban Development
C) the Council of Economic Advisers
D) the Consumer Financial Protection Bureau
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Q1) A writ of habeas corpus declares that
A) the government must show a legal cause for holding someone in detention.
B) the government cannot send a defendant to stand trial in a geographically distant jurisdiction.
C) a defendant in a felony trial must receive assistance from legal counsel.
D) capital punishment can be neither cruel nor unusual.
Q2) The assignment of the opinion in a Supreme Court case is
A) unimportant because the final vote of the justices is the only statement that carries any weight in future cases.
B) important because differences in wording and emphasis can have important implications for how the decision is interpreted in future litigation.
C) unimportant because all justices usually describe their decisions in exactly the same way.
D) important because every word of a decision is legally binding.
Q3) ________ and ________ are the two most common types of civil law cases.
A) Contracts; habeas corpus
B) Contracts; torts
C) Stare decisis; habeas corpus
D) Torts; habeas corpus
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Q1) A cost-of-living adjustment is based on the A) financing approved by Congress during each session.
B) rate of inflation.
C) relationship between the level of the federal deficit compared to the nation's gross national product.
D) changing needs of each recipient.
Q2) The Temporary Assistance to Needy Families program is administered by the A) federal government.
B) states, with uniform benefit levels set by the federal government.
C) states, with benefit levels varying between states.
D) federal government, with benefit levels varying between states.
Q3) About ________ percent of America's children live in poverty.
A) 6
B) 13
C) 22
D) 40
Q4) In what ways do liberals and conservatives tend to react differently to poverty and social policies? What does it mean to say that Americans are "philosophical conservatives and operational liberals"? Which kinds of programs do Americans typically prefer?
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Q1) The final collapse of the Soviet Union occurred in
A) 1985.
B) 1989.
C) 1991.
D) 1999.
Q2) The North American Free Trade Agreement is a(n)
A) trade treaty between Mexico, Canada, and the United States designed to lower and eliminate tariffs.
B) executive agreement between the United States and the other nations of North and Central America, giving one another most favored-nation trade status.
C) treaty between the United States, Canada, and Mexico pledging a unified strategy regarding trade with Asia and Europe.
D) executive agreement reducing trade and immigration barriers throughout North America.
Q3) In a crisis, which of the following has the greatest foreign policy influence?
A) the president
B) Congress
C) the Senate
D) the public
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