Political Institutions
Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the structures, functions, and dynamics of political institutions, both in theory and practice. Students will examine the role of constitutions, legislatures, executives, judiciaries, and bureaucracies in shaping political outcomes within different governmental systems. Through comparative analysis, the course addresses how institutions influence political stability, policy-making, representation, and accountability. Emphasis is placed on understanding institutional development, reform, and the interaction between institutions and broader social, economic, and cultural contexts.
Recommended Textbook
American Government Institutions and Policies 14th Edition by James Q. Wilson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Study of American Government
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the significance of log-rolling to the legislative process.
Answer: A legislator supports a proposal favored by another in return for support of his or hers. Trading votes in this way attracts the support of members of Congress to form majority coalitions.
Q2) For representative democracy to work
A) there must be an opportunity for genuine competition of leadership.
B) individuals and parties must be free to run for office.
C) there needs to be freedom of speech and press.
D) voters must perceive that a meaningful choice exists.
E) All of the above are True.
Answer: E
Q3) When the Framers of the Constitution wrote "republican form of government," they were referring to
A) direct democracy.
B) democratic centralism.
C) mob rule.
D) town meetings.
E) representative democracy.
Answer: E
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Constitution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Articles of Confederation created a strong central government.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which of the following statements most accurately characterizes the motives behind the support that different Framers gave to the U.S. Constitution?
A) Most Framers acted out of a mixture of motives, with economic interests playing only a modest role.
B) Those Framers who did not hold government debt but who did own slaves tended to support the U.S. Constitution.
C) Those Framers who held debt but who did not own slaves tended to oppose the U.S. Constitution.
D) The support that different Framers gave to the U.S. Constitution tended to divide along class lines.
E) The Framers acted in a manner that reflected the religious convictions of their respective states.
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Federalism
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ are terms set by the national government that states must meet whether or not they accept federal grants.
A) Conditions of aid
B) Mandates
C) Strings-attached edict
D) Court decisions
E) Pontifications
Answer: B
Q2) The Founders did not include in the U.S. Constitution an explicit statement of state powers but added it later in
A) the Second Amendment.
B) the Seventh Amendment.
C) the Tenth Amendment.
D) the Fourteenth Amendment.
E) None of the above is True.
Answer: C
Q3) Many of the powers of the federal government are exercised through the states.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: American Political Culture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared with Americans, Japanese are more likely to
A) stress social harmony and group cohesion in their social relations.
B) emphasize the virtues of individualism and competition in social relations.
C) emphasize the virtue of treating others fairly but impersonally, with due regard for their rights.
D) rely on individual decision making rather than decisions made by groups.
E) believe in a divine being.
Q2) In the 2000 presidential election, George Bush was the only candidate who extolled the virtues of religion and advocated the right of religious organizations that deliver social services to receive government funding.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Americans are more willing to tolerate __________ than __________.
A) economic inequality; political inequality
B) freedom of speech; freedom of religion
C) economic liberty; political liberty
D) social inequality; economic inequality
E) civil liberties; civil rights
Q4) Compare and contrast political culture in America and in Japan.
Q5) Discuss the four sources of American political culture mentioned in the text.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Civil Liberties
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Espionage and Sedition Acts that were passed in 1917 and 1918 placed restrictions on publications that
A) advocated the overthrow of the government by force or violence.
B) made any defamatory statements about the president or other member of government.
C) advocated the crossing of state lines or use of interstate commerce to incite a riot.
D) advocated treason, insurrection, or forced resistance.
E) made any defamatory statements about military personnel or war strategy.
Q2) The exclusionary rule holds that
A) double jeopardy cannot occur.
B) defendents who have had their rights violated can plea bargain.
C) police officers must be disciplined.
D) evidence gathered in violation of the Constitution cannot be used in a trial.
E) states must prohibit religious displays in court.
Q3) Under the Espionage and Sedition Acts of 1917 and 1918, thousands of individuals were prosecuted, imprisoned, or deported.
A)True
B)False
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7
Chapter 6: Civil Rights
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Q1) A supporter of equality of opportunity as a way of redressing past civil rights inequities would be most likely to advocate
A) color-blind administration of the laws.
B) preferential treatment for blacks.
C) comparable-worth pay scales.
D) busing for racial integration of schools.
E) affirmative action.
Q2) In 1883, the Supreme Court ruled that racial discrimination in public accommodations (such as hotels) was unconstitutional.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The courts have so far declined to submit laws that treat men and women differently to the strict scrutiny test.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Indicate the factors that are considered in gender discrimination cases specifically, as a result of a 1971 case regarding the administration of estates.
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Chapter 7: Public Opinion
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Q1) Explain why activists are much more likely to exhibit clear ideological consistency than the average member of the public.
Q2) Public policy is invariably consistent with public opinion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Democratic advantage among female voters is obvious.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most Americans do not employ the words "liberal" or "conservative" when explaining their political beliefs and preferences.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cleavages in public opinion are more common in the United States than in many other countries because the United States
A) has a socially diverse population.
B) is a relatively classless society.
C) has a high degree of religious freedom.
D) places a high value on social equality.
E) is more protective of freedom of press.
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Chapter 8: Political Participation
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Q1) One way that whites prevented blacks from voting prior to passage of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 was by requiring them to
A) meet qualifications found in Article III of the Constitution.
B) register six months in advance of an election.
C) become U.S. citizens.
D) memorize the Bill of Rights.
E) pass a literacy test.
Q2) What view of history do scholars take that believe that there has been a real decline in voter turnout?
Q3) The nation with the highest voter turnout as percentage of voting-age population is
A) Belgium
B) Italy
C) United States
D) Sweden
E) New Zealand
Q4) Writing a letter to the editor would be an example of political participation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Political Parties
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Sample Questions
Q1) After a decade of reforms, the Democrats and Republicans have come to represent two ideologically different sets of
A) independent voters.
B) lower-income voters.
C) traditional, religious Americans.
D) first-time voters.
E) upper-middle-class voters.
Q2) The classical machine-type party was developed and perfected
A) in the nineteenth century, before the large-scale Irish and Italian immigrations.
B) in the nineteenth century, after the large-scale Irish and Italian immigrations.
C) at the time of the New Deal, when thousands of civil servants were jobless.
D) after World War II, when thousands of soldiers returned from Europe and the Pacific.
E) during the implementation of Great Society programs in the Deep South.
Q3) Identify the five different ways that political parties have organized in the United States.
Q4) Explain the ways that American parties differ from their European counterparts.
Q5) Discuss how political parties first formed in this nation.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Elections and Campaigns
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Q1) Define gerrymandering and malapportionment in Congressional districts.
Q2) The apportionment of seats in the U.S. House of Representatives is detailed in
A) Article I, Section 2 of the U.S. Constitution.
B) Article II, Section 2 of the U.S. Constitution.
C) Article IV, Section 1 of the U.S. Constitution.
D) Article I, Section 5 of the U.S. Constitution.
E) Article III, Section 3 of the U.S. Constitution.
Q3) Explain the restrictions that federal law places on contributions to candidates by individuals and PACs and the rules of eligibility for federal matching grants.
Q4) Nearly everyone is in agreement over a __________ issue, and the candidate fully supports the public's view.
A) valence
B) primary
C) secondary
D) position
E) residual
Q5) The Constitution says nothing about congressional districts.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Interest Groups
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Sierra Club was organized in the
A) 1990s.
B) 1980s.
C) 1970s.
D) 1960s.
E) 1890s.
Q2) The Audubon Society can be considered an interest group.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is NOT an example of an interest group?
A) Chamber of Commerce
B) National Association of Manufacturers
C) American Medical Association
D) Green Party
E) Urban League
Q4) The number of interest groups has grown rapidly since the 1960s.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are earmarks? How are they related to interest group politics.
Q6) What information must all registered lobbyists report twice a year?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Media
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Q1) Which of the following statements about newspapers during the early years of the republic is True?
A) They were cheaper than today.
B) They made little or no attempt to appear objective.
C) They were supported by paid advertising.
D) They were read avidly by both the elite and the masses.
E) They were generally objective.
Q2) What explanations does William G. Mayer provide for why conservative radio talk shows are so common?
Q3) Which best describes individual privacy protections in newspaper articles.
A) Newspapers can print libelous stories due to the freedom of the press.
B) Newspapers can print an individual's name and picture without consent if they are part of a news story of some conceivable public interest.
C) Newspapers can print False statements about people.
D) Newspapers can print information without it being part of a story of some conceivable public interest.
E) All of the above are True.
Q4) What are the four ways that reporters and public officials communicate?
Q5) Discuss how the degree of competition in the media has changed.
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Chapter 13: Congress
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Q1) __________ decide(s) the outcome of disputed congressional elections.
A) Congress alone
B) Congress and the Supreme Court
C) The Supreme Court
D) State legislatures
E) Governors
Q2) A basic difference between a parliament such as Great Britain's and the U.S. Congress is
A) that the principal role of Congress is to debate national issues.
B) members of Parliament have more power and higher pay.
C) members of Congress are more likely to vote the party line.
D) Congress does not select a president.
E) members of Parliament have nicer offices.
Q3) When a bill passes the House and Senate in substantially different forms, the differences are resolved in
A) a joint committee.
B) a committee of the whole.
C) the Rules Committee.
D) a conference committee.
E) a team-plan committee.
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Chapter 14: The Presidency
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Questions
Q1) Alexander Hamilton stood at the Constitutional Convention and gave a five-hour speech calling for
A) a plural executive.
B) an elected president.
C) an official declaration that George Washington would be the first president.
D) his own appointment as chief executive.
E) an elective monarchy.
Q2) Customarily, the members of the president's cabinet are
A) close friends.
B) campaign aides.
C) representatives of important constituencies.
D) experts on various policy issues.
E) All of the above are True.
Q3) If the president should die in office, the vice president is next in line. When there is no vice president, the next successor in line is the
A) Secretary of State
B) Secretary of the Interior
C) Speaker of the House
D) Secretary of Defense
E) Senate president
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Chapter 15: The Bureaucracy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Probably the most effective means an agency has of remaining powerful is
A) cultivating public opinion.
B) attaining a monopoly on technical expertise in a particular policy area.
C) pleasing congressional staff.
D) doing its job well.
E) entering alliances with influential interest groups.
Q2) When a law originating in a legislative committee specifies a certain sum of money, it is called a(n) __________ measure.
A) allocation
B) appropriation
C) monetary-enhancement
D) fiscal
E) authorization
Q3) Before 1913 and the Sixteenth Amendment, the federal government could not collect income taxes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How have appropriations committees lost power over government agencies in recent years?
Q5) Define bureaucracy and give examples of types of bureaucracies.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Judiciary
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Sample Questions
Q1) Senatorial courtesy is an especially important consideration in nominations to A) legislative courts.
B) courts of appeals.
C) district courts.
D) constitutional courts.
E) intermediate appellate courts.
Q2) One unintended consequence of the Supreme Court's heavy caseload is an increase in the influence wielded by
A) the chief justice.
B) associate justices.
C) the attorney general.
D) the deputy attorney general.
E) law clerks.
Q3) There have only been _________ chief justices of the United States Supreme Court.
A) sixteen
B) twenty
C) thirty
D) fifty
E) sixty
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Chapter 17: Domestic Policy
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Q1) The Sherman Act of 1890 is an example of
A) social welfare legislation.
B) antitrust legislation.
C) spending on military matters.
D) moral legislation.
E) entrepreneurial politics.
Q2) Leading up to the 1936 presidential election, this politician was proposing a radical economic plan entitled "Share Our Wealth."
A) Upton Sinclair
B) Herbert Hoover
C) Huey Long
D) Alf Landon
E) Dr. Francis E. Townsend
Q3) What are four important factors to consider when thinking about the social welfare policy in the United States?
Q4) Explain how Madison and Hamilton disagreed over the Constitution's statement "promote the general welfare."
Q5) What three problems does the text associate with Medicare?
Q6) Explain how public opinion changed and AFDC lost its legitimacy.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Economic Policy
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Q1) Republicans tend to support free trade, but George W. Bush imposed sharp increases in the taxes that must be paid on imported steel because
A) Congress pressured him to do so.
B) the CEA recommended that he do so.
C) other nations had done the same thing.
D) he wanted political support in states such as Ohio and Pennsylvania.
E) of a bargain with Democratic senators.
Q2) Discuss some of the major initiatives by the federal government to stimulate the economy.
Q3) The health of the American economy creates __________ politics.
A) majoritarian
B) interest group
C) client
D) entrepreneurial
E) egalitarian
Q4) People who tell pollsters that their families' finances have gotten worse are more likely than other people to vote against the incumbent president.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Foreign and Military Policy
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the National Security Council is True?
A) It reports directly to the secretary of state.
B) Its membership is appointed by the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI).
C) Its influence is limited by constant squabbling among agencies.
D) Its membership is appointed by Congress.
E) It grew in influence during the Kennedy administration.
Q2) The National Security Council includes all of the following except the A) Speaker of the House.
B) president.
C) vice president.
D) secretary of state.
E) secretary of defense.
Q3) The War Powers Act mandates that within 60 days of the president ordering troops into hostile situations, the Congress must authorize the use of military force.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The nation grew isolationist in the aftermath of World War I.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: American Democracy, Then and Now
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Q1) Until the twentieth century, the Supreme Court refused to allow the delegation of broad discretionary power to administrative agencies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Political elites change their minds more slowly than the average citizen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Under the Old System, the presidency
A) was small.
B) was somewhat personal.
C) had only a rudimentary White House staff.
D) Options A, B, C, and D are True.
E) None of the above is True.
Q4) What are four consequences of the enlarged scope of governmental action?
Q5) Under the New System, power is in the hands of A) party activists.
B) interest group leaders.
C) members of Congress.
D) heads of government agencies.
E) All of the above are True.
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