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This course offers an in-depth examination of the key political institutions that structure governance in the United States, including Congress, the Presidency, the federal judiciary, and state governments. Students will explore the constitutional foundations of these institutions, their historical development, and the dynamics of their interactions. Special attention is given to the roles these institutions play in policy-making, checks and balances, and representation. Through case studies and analysis of contemporary issues, the course provides insight into how institutional design shapes political outcomes in the U.S. democratic system.
Recommended Textbook
American Government and Politics Today The Essentials 17th Edition by Barbara A. Bardes
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Q1) Consent of the people means
A) governments and laws derive their legitimacy from the consent of the governed.
B) the people must consent to everything the government does.
C) government must get consent of the people before it can go to war.
D) pure democracy.
E) direct democracy.
Answer: A
Q2) The initiative is
A) a way to remove a public official from office before the end of his or her elected term.
B) the same thing as a referendum.
C) provided for in the Bill of Rights.
D) a constitutional mechanism that takes place after a recall.
E) a procedure whereby voters can propose a law or constitutional amendment within a state.
Answer: E
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Q1) The Virginia Plan
A) called for a bicameral legislature.
B) worked to the advantage of small states.
C) provided for the direct election of a president by the people.
D) settled all controversy.
E) Options B and C are true.
Answer: A
Q2) The concept of checks and balances allows
A) Congress to declare presidential actions unconstitutional.
B) the Supreme Court to break the tie on legislation.
C) the President to veto legislation he/she does not support.
D) Congress to remove members of the Supreme Court.
E) Options A and B are true.
Answer: C
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Q1) In the years after 1968, there was a transfer of power from the national government to the state governments. This transfer of power is called
A) cooperative federalism.
B) revolution.
C) regression.
D) devolution.
E) dual federalism.
Answer: D
Q2) The United States Supreme Court
A) has the final say on constitutional issues.
B) plays a significant role in determining the line between federal and state powers.
C) has given increased emphasis to state powers under the Tenth Amendment.
D) All of the above are true.
E) None of the above is true.
Answer: D
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Q1) In Osborne v. Ohio, the Supreme Court ruled that states can outlaw the possession of child pornography in the home
A) because owning the material perpetuates commercial demand for it and for the exploitation of the children involved.
B) to protect children who may be living in the home.
C) because it universally violates community standards.
D) because it encourages deviant behavior.
E) when it employs graphics, as opposed to mere text.
Q2) Supreme Court decisions make it clear that
A) all citizens have a right to protect themselves.
B) all citizens should be able to conceal weapons in any state.
C) local governments have the right to ban guns.
D) that individuals may not own a gun if they have a violent temper.
E) individuals may only own one gun in certain states.
Q3) If the Supreme Court overturned Roe v. Wade,
A) abortions would be illegal in the U.S.
B) health insurance companies would determine eligibility for abortions.
C) the authority to regulate abortion would fall to the states.
D) abortions would only be legal in the first trimester of the pregnancy.
E) abortions would be deemed "an invasion of privacy."
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Q1) In 2003, the United States Supreme Court considered two different admissions policies adopted at the University of Michigan Law School and
A) for the first time, ruled that an affirmative action was unconstitutional.
B) ruled that "diversity" could not be a compelling government interest.
C) approved affirmative action plans that took race into consideration as part of a complete examination of the applicant's background.
D) approved a plan that automatically awarded points toward admission to minority applicants.
E) ruled that the time had come for all affirmative action programs to end, since government could do nothing more to alleviate the effects of past discrimination.
Q2) De facto segregation means
A) segregation because of residential racial patterns and concentration of populations, not because of laws.
B) segregation based on different native languages.
C) racial segregation based on law.
D) segregation of southern European immigrants.
E) segregation to a minor degree.
Q3) Explain the Americans with Disabilities Act and what impact it has had.
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Q1) Here are the results of a 2012 opinion poll that measured public support for gay marriage. (Favor: 48%; Oppose: 44%. Don't know/No answer: 8%.) The results show an example of __________ opinion.
A) consensus
B) divided
C) dubious
D) favorable
E) unified
Q2) People's attitudes toward a candidate
A) are affected by emotions such as trust towards a candidate.
B) can be influenced by a recent political scandal.
C) can be affected by the candidate's personality or image.
D) can be influenced by the candidate's stance on economic issues.
E) All of the above are true.
Q3) Political socialization is the process by which
A) people form identification with their political party.
B) people acquire political values.
C) people acquire political beliefs.
D) people acquire political opinions and attitudes.
E) All of the above are true.
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Q1) Political endorsements by interest groups are
A) important because the group can publicize its choices in its membership publication.
B) not very important because while candidates can publicize the fact that their campaign is endorsed by groups, they cannot identify the specific source of the endorsement.
C) relatively ineffective today.
D) a violation of campaign finance reform laws.
E) allowed only in local elections, but forbidden in races for federal office.
Q2) Interest groups
A) have equal resources to influence legislation.
B) possess different combinations of resources to use in the policymaking process.
C) always begin as social movements.
D) are always comprised of members who have high social status.
E) All of the above are true.
Q3) Explain how economic interest groups, public-interest groups, and single-issue interest groups differ from each other.
Q4) What would be the unintended consequences if lobbying was abolished?
Q5) Describe the role played by interest groups in shaping public policy.
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Q1) In regard to cultural politics which is true?
A) Economic conservatism is associated with higher incomes.
B) Social conservatism is more common among lower income groups.
C) Cultural conservatives view themselves as embattled "ordinary Americans" under threat from liberal, cosmopolitan elites.
D) The election of President Obama and a Democratic Congress magnified conservatives fear, resulting in the Tea Party movement.
E) All the above are true.
Q2) During primary elections
A) voters chose the candidates who will represent each party in the November general election.
B) candidates compete to be the advocate of the party's philosophy.
C) competition between candidates results in severe polarization.
D) campaigning can result in "purity" contests.
E) All of the above are true.
Q3) Describe the history of political parties in the United States.
Q4) Describe the different functions of political parties in our system.
Q5) Explain the activities of political parties at the national, state, and local levels.
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Q1) Becoming a critical news viewer requires that you
A) compare and contrast news from one source.
B) compare and contrast news from many different sources.
C) analyze the news from your ideological vantage-point.
D) analyze the news for foreign influences.
E) compare and contrast the news only from American outlets.
Q2) How has the advent of online fundraising changed the process of raising campaign funds? Which candidates have used the technique with great success?
Q3) Explore the strategies devised by interest groups and parties to get around campaign finance reform legislation.
Q4) Voter registration drives
A) are a noncontroversial political activity.
B) became political issue when Acorn, a community organizing group was accused of violating election laws.
C) operate under very loose laws in Republican-controlled states.
D) are organized by public-interest and political organizations in the week before an election.
E) All of the above are true.
Q5) Describe the steps you can take to become a critical news consumer.
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Q1) After a bill has been introduced and referred to a committee, A) the committee to which it has been referred is required to pass the bill on to the entire house.
B) the committee is not allowed to make changes in the wording of the bill.
C) the committee may hold hearings and discussions to explore the merits of the bill.
D) that committee may give some bills to a subcommittee, although the Constitution requires that subcommittee involvement in legislation not exceed twenty-five percent of the total congressional workload.
E) the committee is required by the Constitution to consult with the president of the United States or the president's officially designated legislative liaison.
Q2) Explain the difference between reapportionment and redistricting.
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of Congress?
A) Spending time serving constituents
B) Educating the public through hearings and debates
C) Carrying out and executing the laws it has passed
D) Representing constituents
E) Resolving conflicts between different groups
Q4) Explain the roles played by the members of the House and Senate leadership.
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Q1) The number of political appointments available to the president
A) is constrained by the civil service system.
B) puts the president in charge of deciding which individuals will occupy more than fifty thousand jobs in government.
C) allows the president to appoint a majority of the civilian appointments in the bureaucracy.
D) is confined mainly to the military.
E) has been dramatically limited by the use of the constitutional amendment process.
Q2) Explain the concept of executive privilege and how it has been used by the presidents.
Q3) The office that includes most of the key personal and political advisers to the president is the
A) Council of Economic Advisers.
B) cabinet.
C) Executive Presidential Office.
D) White House Office.
E) Domestic Policy Council.
Q4) Analyze the president's functions as party chief and superpolitician.
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Q1) The percentage of the total U.S. workforce that is employed by local, state, and federal governments is
A) 10 percent.
B) 25 percent.
C) 16 percent.
D) 50 percent.
E) 6 percent.
Q2) All of the following statements about political appointees are true \(\bold{except}\)
A) they have been called the "aristocracy" of the federal government.
B) they are sometimes appointed as a reward for campaign contributions or other political favors.
C) they will probably occupy their position for a brief time compared to career civil servants.
D) career civil servants sometimes ignore their wishes.
E) their major source of authority is the ease with which they can fire civil servants.
Q3) Describe the ways in which bureaucracy both controls and benefits your life.
Q4) Describe the different models of bureaucracy.
Q5) Describe the manner(s) in which Congress attempts to control the bureaucracy.
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Q1) How do recent Supreme Court decisions show how the Court has moved rightward?
Q2) The United States Constitution
A) is the supreme law of the land.
B) is subordinate to State Constitutions in many matters.
C) does not specify the details of state and federal powers, instead leaving that up to Congress.
D) outlines the details of various state criminal codes.
E) outlines the details of court case law.
Q3) Explain how the United States Supreme Court decides cases and explains its decisions.
Q4) Describe the changes to the federal court system in an effort to fight terrorism
Q5) Which of the following are important requirements that must be met before a case can be brought to court?
A) Issues must be political questions.
B) Jurisdiction and standing to sue
C) Precedents and stare decisis
D) Judicial maxims
E) Requirements for legislation
Q6) Describe some of the judicial traditions and doctrines that act as a restraint of the courts.
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Q1) The health-care reform legislation that was passed in 2010, A) had most of the major provisions in place by the end of 2010.
B) bars insurance companies from dropping people when they get sick.
C) was passed by a majority of Republicans and Democrats.
D) lets young adults stay on their parents' health plans until age twenty-six.
E) Both options B and D are true.
Q2) Explain the rising cost of entitlement programs and what should be done in the future.
Q3) An example of policymaking is the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, which A) was a government take over of the healthcare industry.
B) seeks to provide health insurance to all Americans.
C) had its share of opponents.
D) Options B and C are true.
E) All of the above are true.
Q4) Explain the stages of the policymaking process.
Q5) Explain the difference between progressive and regressive taxes. Would we be better served by simply employing a flat tax across the board?
Q6) Explain the problem of long-term unemployment and the affect on government spending.
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Q1) During the Cold War, there was (were)
A) continuous conversation between United States and Soviet military advisors.
B) no direct military conflict between the United States and the Soviet Union.
C) an occasional exchange of artillery fire across the East German/West German border.
D) direct fighting between United States and Soviet ground troops during the Korean War.
E) occasional dogfights between United States and Soviet fighter planes over Europe.
Q2) During the 1800s, the United States generally
A) stayed out of European conflicts and politics but pursued an expansionist policy in the Western hemisphere.
B) pursued an expansionist and activist policy in both European conflicts and in this hemisphere.
C) pursued an expansionist policy in European conflicts but stayed out of matters in this hemisphere.
D) stayed out of both European conflicts and matters in this hemisphere.
E) has been characterized as Pax Americana.
Q3) What problems might there be if the draft was used again in the United States?
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