Police Procedures and Operations
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course offers a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles, practices, and challenges of police procedures and operations within modern law enforcement. Students will explore the structure and functions of police organizations, patrol methods, investigation techniques, arrest and detention processes, and the use of force. The course emphasizes legal frameworks governing police conduct, ethical issues, community policing strategies, and the impact of technology on police work. Through case studies, simulations, and analysis of real-world scenarios, students will gain practical insights into the complexities of police operations and develop an understanding of how police procedures uphold justice and public safety.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Investigation 11th Edition by Charles R Swanson
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Chapter 1: The Evolution of Criminal Investigation and Forensic Science
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Q1) To supplement the rogues' gallery,Thomas Byrnes instituted the ________ where at 9 o'clock every morning; all criminals arrested in the past 24 hours were marched before his detectives who were expected to make notes and to recognize the criminals later.
Answer: Mulberry Street Morning Parade
Q2) Why does the Henry classification enjoy greater use than Vucetich's system?
Answer: In 1917,the Argentine government seized all of Vucetich's records and forbade him to do further work (due to strong protests in Buenos Aires against wide-spread fingerprint registration).In 1925,Vucetich died a disappointed man.In contrast,Henry became the head of what was then the world's most prestigious police organization and enjoyed the support of his country.These advantages,coupled with Vucetich's loss of support in his own country,meant the Henry classification system would become adopted virtually worldwide.
Q3) After Prohibition was adopted nationally in 1920,the Bureau of Internal Revenue was responsible for its enforcement.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Legal Aspects of Investigation
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Q1) Which of the following is not usually required to be in the contents of a valid arrest warrant?
A) the authority under which the warrant is issued
B) the identity of the person to be arrested
C) the designation of the offense
D) the authority to search the person arrested
Answer: D
Q2) The two major benefits derived from securing prior judicial approval for arrests are that the approval relieves the law enforcement officer of the burden of proving the legality of the arrest,and it provides for automatic approval of evidence to be used during the trial for the crime the person was arrested for.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The law allows an officer to make warrantless arrests in felony cases provided reasonable grounds or probable cause exists to make the arrest.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Investigators, the Investigative Process, and the Crime Scene
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Q1) ________ a crime scene offers several advantages: cameras are relatively inexpensive,incorporate audio,use can be quickly learned,and images can be played back immediately.
Answer: Videotaping
Q2) What are the preliminary and follow-up investigations?
Answer: The actions taken by the first officer arriving at the crime scene after its detection and reporting is termed preliminary investigation.Normally the preliminary investigation is conducted by a uniformed officer from the Patrol Division and consists of the following seven major steps: 1.Receipt of Information and Initial Response; 2.Emergency Care; 3.Crime Scene Control; 4.Issue BOLO; 5.Crime Scene Determination; 6.Evidence; 7.The Incident/Offense Report The follow-up investigation is the effort expended by the police in gathering information subsequent to the initiation of the original report until the case is ready for prosecution or closed.
Q3) A basic diagram of the scene showing important points is the
A) forensic map.
B) strip search.
C) coordinates.
D) crime scene sketch.
Answer: D
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Physical Evidence
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Q1) Which is used as a presumptive or preliminary field test for blood?
A) Hemident
B) Limpit
C) Dolcet
D) Nodocen
Q2) Define fracture match and discuss its use and importance in criminal investigations.
Q3) Dicuss the conditions that affect the quality of fingerprints.
Q4) It is possible to determine the direction from which a bullet penetrated glass: on the same side of the surface of initial impact,there will be a characteristic cone-shaped area.The larger area of the cone shape indicates the area from which the bullet was fired.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The direction of a shot through a glass window can be determined by
A) Concentric cracks
B) Radial cracks
C) A cone shaped area on the opposite side from impact
D) All of the above
Q6) What are class and individual characteristics?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Interviewing and Interrogation
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Q1) Duckworth v.Eagen (1989)held that it was not necessary that Miranda warnings be given in the exact form described in the Miranda decision.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The primary purpose of a polygraph examination according to the textbook is to
A) determine if victims/witnesses are being truthful or untruthful about what they say.
B) elicit a confession from a suspect.
C) eliminate the innocent from consideration during a criminal investigation.
D) corroborate the suspect's alibi.
Q3) Once witnesses have been identified,they should be separated from one another and,as much as possible,isolated from other people who may be nearby.Why?
A) To prevent witnesses from seeing or hearing irrelevant matters that may taint their actual knowledge.
B) To prevent witnesses from leaving the area before they have been released by the police investigator.
C) To prevent "outsiders" from hearing what witnesses tell the police.
D) All are reasons for isolating witnesses.
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Chapter 6: Field Notes and Reporting
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Q1) What is the purpose of field notes?
A) To provide a short written record of events.
B) To replace incident reports when the call is minor and a full report is not necessary.
C) It may be used to replace the booking slip when a person is arrested.
D) To keep a written, continuing record of conditions in the field.
Q2) What is required when a case is inactivated?
A) The person assigned responsibility for the case must complete a supplemental report to substantiate the basis for inactivation.
B) The assigned investigator must get approval from the "chain of command" before the case can be inactivated.
C) The case can only be inactivated by a commanding officer after requesting the case files.
D) None of the preceding.
Q3) Describe the significant role of field notes in a criminal investigation.
Q4) Explain what an effective report is and what is required to write effective reports.
Q5) Write the report in ________,using "I arrived at the scene at 0821 hours".
Q6) Briefly discuss the operational and administrative uses of incident reports.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: The Follow-Up Investigation and Investigative Resources
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Q1) ________ is an investigative strategy that used the locations of a series of crimes to determine the most probable area of the offender's residence.
Q2) Which statement about conducting a lineup is <b>most</b> accurate?
A) The clothing worn by persons in the lineup should be dissimilar.
B) The witness should be given the opportunity to see the defendant prior to the lineup.
C) Include only one suspect in each identification procedure.
D) There should be at least three persons in the lineup including the suspect.
Q3) The police have been quick to use the internet for
A) investigative purposes
B) public information purposes
C) administrative purposes
D) All of the above are police uses of the internet
Q4) Why should we check the booking reports of jailed suspects?
Q5) A supplemental report is filled out when patrolling officers identify persons or vehicles that are suspicious to them but are not connected with any particular offense.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: The Crime Laboratory
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Q1) Describe the role and importance of DNA analysis in criminal investigation.
Q2) Frye v.United States (1923)ruled that the results of a "deception test," an early version of the polygraph could be used in court if the operator personally testified to the veracity of the results.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A national online fingerprint and criminal-history database with identification and response capabilities,________ consists of three integrated segments: the Automated Fingerprint Identification System (AFIS),the Interstate Identification Index (III),and the Identification Tasking and Networking (ITN).
Q4) What limitations are placed on the submission of evidence to the FBI laboratory?
Q5) Describe the measures of effectiveness of crime laboratories.
Q6) DNA evidence can
A) identify criminals with amazing accuracy when biological evidence exists.
B) be used to clear suspects.
C) exonerate persons who have been mistakenly accused or convicted of crimes.
D) all of the preceding are correct.
Q7) Describe NIBIN,IAFIS,and CODIS.
Q8) What are the primary DNA Analysis techniques used since 1985?
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Chapter 9: Injury and Death Investigations
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Q1) ________ wounds are suffered by victims attempting to protect themselves from an assault,often by a knife or club.
Q2) Which one of the following is not the typical type of offense reported to the National Center for the Analysis of Violent Crime for analysis?
A) Sexually oriented murder or assault by mutilation or torture, dismemberment, violent sexual trauma, or asphyxiation
B) Mass murder
C) Robbery, murder, and nonfatal robbery with extreme violence
D) Bank robbery in which the teller was murdered
Q3) In a hanging death,where is livor mortis most pronounced?
A) In the lower portions of the arms and legs.
B) In the jaw.
C) Around the face and lips.
D) All of the preceding are where livor mortis is most pronounced in a death by hanging.
Q4) The so-called ________ attitude of the body is a natural result of the dehydrating effect caused by the heat from the fire and is not related to the cause or manner of death.
Q5) Describe an incised wound,stab wound,and laceration.
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Chapter 10: Sex-Related Offenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The side effects of the date rape drug Rohypnol include all of the following except A) muscle relaxation.
B) increased excitation.
C) sedation.
D) reduction in anxiety.
Q2) In order to obtain voluntary DNA evidence from a suspect,a signed authorization should be obtained as the suspect has a legal right against self-incrimination.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Both wet and dry condoms may contain the spermicide ________.
Q4) The insertion of a lubricated fist and forearm up to the elbow into the anal cavity of another man is called
A) coprolangia.
B) urolangia.
C) anal intercourse.
D) fisting.
Q5) Why do women sometimes make false rape allegations?
Q6) What are condom exchangeable traces composed of?
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Chapter 11: Crimes Against Children
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Q1) _______________ is defined as using the Internet,cellular phone,or other technology to harass another person.
Q2) ________ is the taking of a child less than one year old by a nonfamily member.
Q3) Tourism organized with the primary purpose of facilitating the effecting of a commercial-sexual relationship with a child is called ________.
Q4) The ________ is a voluntary partnership between law enforcement agencies,state transportation officials and radio,television and internet broadcasters to activate an urgent news bulletin in child abduction cases.
Q5) Where does much of the commercial child pornography distributed in the United States originate from?
A) Underground child pornography rings, primarily on the West Coast of the United States.
B) From Mexico.
C) From foreign countries.
D) From producers in New York City.
Q6) Describe the appearance of a SIDS victim.
Q7) How is child pornography behaviorally defined?
Q8) What is Munchausen's Syndrome by Proxy (MSBP)?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Human Trafficking
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Q1) Worldwide,men suffer disproportionately from trafficking.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Foreign victims found in labor trafficking may have entered the country under a/the____________.
Q3) When conducting an investigation into sex trafficking,the investigator should use a/an _____________.
Q4) When a person is forced against his/her will to work by force,threat of force or abuse of law to pay off a debt and the value of the work has not been adequately applied to the debt,they have been subjected to A) peonage
B) involuntary servitude
C) debt bondage
D) forced labor
Q5) The _________is available to immigrants who are victims of a wide range of serious crimes.
Q6) Most trafficked persons cases are for sex trafficking.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Robbery
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Q1) The purpose of running a file check on robbery victims is to see if
A) there are any outstanding warrants on them.
B) they gave their true identity.
C) they have a history of making criminal complaints.
D) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) An officer's expectations that the robber will be of a particular description or have difficulty believing witnesses descriptions is a definition of
A) action stereotyping.
B) physical stereotyping.
C) situational stereotyping.
D) racial stereotyping.
Q3) When choosing a store to rob,which of the following factors are important to the robber?
A) The amount of money they can get.
B) Escape route.
C) A lone employee.
D) All of the preceding are important factors.
Q4) What are action,physical,and situational stereotyping?
Q5) Getaway vehicles are more prevalent when there are ________ or more offenders.
Page 15
Q6) How are drivers confronted in truck hijacking robberies?
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Chapter 14: Burglary
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Q1) Which of the following best describes those persons most often arrested for burglary?
A) Young females under 25.
B) Middle aged males.
C) White males.
D) Males between 30-40.
Q2) With respect to the possible illegal receiving of stolen property,what are some indicators of the absence of good-faith purchasing?
Q3) Which of the following is/are method(s)of attacking a safe?
A) Punch, pulling.
B) Peel, rip.
C) Blasting, manipulation.
D) All of the preceding are methods of attacking a safe.
Q4) When tools used in burglaries are recovered at the scene,they most often will be
A) highly sophisticated.
B) unlike most household tools.
C) technologically advanced.
D) similar to those found in households.
Q5) Whereas amateur burglars act on impulse,the ________ burglars are less likely to take chances.
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Chapter 15: Larceny Theft and White-Collar Crime
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the three most common ways identity thieves obtain personal information?
A) Stolen wallet.
B) Friends/relatives with access to the information.
C) Corrupt employees with access to the information.
D) Pick-pockets.
Q2) Making multiple deposits of cash,or buying multiple bank drafts,which are checks issued by one bank against funds deposited in the bank that authorize a second bank to make payment to the entity named in the draft is
A) smurfing.
B) shoulder smurfing.
C) check kiting.
D) a type of "black market peso exchange."
Q3) ________ is what Nigerian cons call the black money scheme,it is also an advanced fee scam.
Q4) After identity theft is committed,follow-up crimes occur.Identify five types of follow-up crimes.
Q5) Describe smurfing and shoulder surfing.
Q6) How are prime bank and promissory note frauds operated?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Vehicle Thefts and Related Offenses
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Q1) The National Insurance Crime Bureau is
A) an agency in the U.S. Justice Department.
B) a branch of the FBI.
C) a non-law enforcement agency created by insurance companies.
D) a division of the U.S. Department of Transportation.
Q2) Which of the following contributes to the causes and problems of investigating the theft of heavy equipment?
A) The absence of titling and registration requirements.
B) The lack of a uniform vehicle identification numbering system.
C) The lack of an effective inventory control system.
D) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) All of the following identifiers are part of the 17 character standardized VIN except A) engine type.
B) color.
C)body style.
D) country of manufacturer.
Q4) Effective November 1,1972,the Federal Boating Safety Act of 1971 required boats to have a 12 character ________.
Q5) What is odometer fraud and why is it a significant offense?
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Chapter 17: Cybercrime
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Q1) The primary purpose of a virus is to
A) replicate itself as many times as possible
B) cause mischief or damage to the infected computer
C) make the computer "sick"
D) Both A and B
Q2) When asking for consent to search for computer-related evidence,the investigator is required by law to have the person giving the consent sign a "Consent to Search" waiver.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A small program that sends itself to other computers,rather than relying on user actions,is a
A) virus.
B) Malicious Mobile Code.
C) Trojan horse.
D) worm.
Q4) Discuss the professional criminal typology of cybercriminal,including their characteristics,motivations and skill level
Q5) Discuss the differences between "black hatters" and "white hatters."
Q6) Discuss how scareware attacks are executed.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Agricultural, Wildlife, and Environmental Crimes
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Q1) For the investigation of most environmental crimes it is necessary to A) use helicopters.
B) consult with the local mayor.
C) use only federal law enforcement.
D) form a team that includes an attorney.
Q2) The illegal taking or possession of game,fish,and other wildlife is known as A) jacklighting.
B) hunting out of season.
C) poaching.
D) both A and B.
Q3) ________ crimes are committed by companies that treat hazardous waste without a permit or treat it inadequately,store it without a permit to do so,improperly identify the nature of the waste or store it under inadequate conditions,discharge it into sewers,simply abandon it,mix it with regular waste for cheaper disposal,or store incompatible chemicals or amounts of chemicals beyond their permitted level.
Q4) In its most base state,the purpose of livestock identification is to establish that a particular animal is the property of a specific owner.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Arson and Explosives Investigations
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Q1) What are some of the advantages and disadvantages of olfactory detection in determining the presence of fire accelerants at the scene of a fire?
Q2) Most chemical ignition units leave some residue; have a distinctive odor,or both.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the "layer checking" technique and how can it assist in determining the cause and origin of a fire?
Q4) In another broad category of arson for profit,the beneficiary of the fire is not the owner-insured but a ________ who arranges for the fire out of some economic incentive.
Q5) According to the textbook,only professional arsonists and pyromaniacs seem to favor striking matches.
A)True
B)False
Q6) If arson is suspected,why should firefighters not disarrange the premises by mopping up or overhauling the scene of the fire,especially at the point of origin?
Q7) A ________ is used to spread the fire.It is ignited by the blaze from the plant.
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Chapter 20: Recognition, Control, and Investigation of Drug Abuse
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Q1) The term ________ is still widely used,often to include inhalation of a broad range of common products besides glue.
Q2) Title II of the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 classified drugs by Federal Law as belonging to one of five schedules.Schedule I include those drugs having a high potential for abuse and has accepted medical uses in with severe restrictions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Khat (pronounced "cot")is a leafy import from northeast Africa whose active ingredients are cathinone and cathine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hallucinogenic drugs,natural or synthetic,distort the perception of objective reality.The unpredictability of their effects is the greatest danger to the user.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the major exceptions to searching without a search warrant?
Page 22
Q6) Define a conspiracy,and give examples of the types of conspiracy cases.
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Chapter 21: Terrorism
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Q1) ________ involves violent acts or acts dangerous to human life that are the violation of the criminal laws of the United States or any state,or that would be a criminal act if committed within the jurisdiction of the United States or any state.
Q2) Which type of anthrax is extremely unlikely to occur through person-to-person contact,so communicability is not a concern?
A) Biological anthrax.
B) Cutaneous anthrax.
C) Intestinal anthrax.
D) Inhalation anthrax.
Q3) Left-wing terrorists generally profess a revolutionary ________ doctrine and view themselves as protectors of the people against capitalism and imperialism.
Q4) One of the five pillars of Islamic faith is charitable giving.What term is used to denote this pillar?
A) Hawala.
B) Fasalaw.
C) Hawak.
D) Zakat.
Q5) Discuss the nativist movement and how it relates to right-wing terrorism.
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Chapter 22: The Trial Process and the Investigator As a Witness
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Q1) What is the hearsay rule and why does it exist?
Q2) According to the textbook,for the law enforcement witness,what is the first step in preparation for testifying in court?
A) Ensure that a complete investigation was conducted.
B) Ensure that all investigative leads were followed and all avenues explored.
C) Review all notes, reports, electronic recordings, and physical evidence prior to testifying.
D) All of the preceding are correct.
Q3) The courtroom process begins with the selection and swearing in of a jury.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The process by which an attorney on cross-examination attempts to discredit or contradict the testimony of a witness to show that the witness is unworthy of belief is called
A) prior inconsistent statements.
B) destroying competency.
C) impeaching the witness.
D) rehabilitating the witness.
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Q5) What factors affect the credibility of the investigator as a witness?
Q6) How important are a witness's appearance and demeanor to credibility?
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