Police and Society Review Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the intricate relationship between the police and the broader society they serve. It examines the historical development of policing, organizational structures, and the social roles and expectations placed upon law enforcement agencies. Through an analysis of contemporary issues, including community-police relations, police culture, accountability, and the impact of race, class, and gender, students gain a critical understanding of how policing both shapes and is shaped by social values, institutions, and movements. The course encourages examination of policies, reform efforts, and innovations designed to foster public trust and improve policing outcomes in diverse communities.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Procedure 3rd Edition by Matthew Lippman
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15 Chapters
856 Verified Questions
856 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Criminal Procedure
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A criminal trial not held before a jury is known as a/an _____.
A)petty trial
B)statutory trial
C)bench trial
D)unconstitutional trial
Answer: C
Q2) U.S. Supreme Court eras are typically named after _____.
A)the chief justice of that Court
B)the president(s) in office
C)the Court's political leaning
D)famous cases decided by that Court
Answer: A
Q3) The federal judicial system is best represented by a _____.
A)cube
B)sphere
C)hourglass
D)pyramid
Answer: D
Q4) The lowest level of the federal court system is made up of 94 _____.
Answer: district courts
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Chapter 2: The Sources of Criminal Procedure
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) As a general rule, a new U.S. Supreme Court decision applies only to those individuals whose cases are initiated after the rule has been passed.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Justice Douglas's term "coextensive coverage" means that _____.
A)all of the rights in the Bill of Rights apply to the states
B)incorporated amendments apply equally to the state and federal governments
C)some amendments inherently apply to both state and federal governments
D)incorporated rights apply to all citizens regardless of race, age, or gender
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following states that the U.S. Constitution and laws passed by the U.S. Congress eclipse state constitutions and state laws?
A)The First Amendment
B)The Supremacy Clause
C)The Federalist Article
D)The Jefferson Addendum
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 3: Searches and Seizures
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When speaking with an individual, citizens _____ that the person may be a government informant or agent.
Answer: assume the risk
Q2) Which of the following is not a feature that distinguishes curtilage from open fields?
A)Access
B)Enclosure
C)Function
D)Protection
Answer: A
Q3) The level of the burden that must be satisfied to justify a stop depends on the
A)experience level of the officer
B)level of interference with the individual's freedom
C)jurisdiction where the stop takes place
D)reason for which the individual has been stopped
Answer: B
Q4) The Fourth Amendment protects citizens from _____ searches and seizures.
Answer: unreasonable
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Chapter 4: Stop and Frisk
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a suspect flees from the police, officers can consider that act when determining whether reasonable suspicion exists to perform a Terry stop.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The level of proof necessary to conduct a stop and frisk is _____.
Q3) Due to the landmark case that established the test for such a stop, a stop and frisk is known in legal vernacular as a _____.
Q4) To rely solely on race to stop or detain a person would be against the rights provided in the _____ and Fourteenth Amendments.
A)Second
B)Fifth
C)Ninth
D)Thirteenth
Q5) The purpose of a frisk is to check a suspicious person for weapons and contraband.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the role of ethnicity and religion in reasonable suspicion.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Probable Cause and Arrests
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain when an arrest satisfies the reasonableness requirement of the Fourth Amendment.
Q2) What level of force may be used when an officer is making an arrest?
Q3) Situations in which officers must urgently take immediate action are known legally as _____.
A)reasonable circumstances
B)emergency situations
C)exigent circumstances
D)warrantless times
Q4) When/why is a warrant unnecessary for the public arrest of individuals?
Q5) A hearing to determine whether an officer had probable cause when he/she engaged in a warrantless arrest is known as a _____.
A)post hoc warrant hearing
B)probable cause hearing
C)McLaughlin hearing
D)Gerstein hearing
Q6) It is that the magistrate issues a warrant be both _____ and _____.
Q7) Only a trained judge/magistrate can issue an arrest warrant.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Searches and Seizures of Property
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When arresting a suspect for a misdemeanor, the officer must have reasonable suspicion to believe the suspect is dangerous to conduct a search incident to arrest.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Police observe a suspect with a bag they believe (with probable cause) to be carrying drugs. The suspect places the bag in the trunk of the car and drives away. When the police stop the vehicle, where can they look to find the drugs?
A)Anywhere in the car drugs can be hidden
B)On the suspect's person and in the trunk
C)On the suspect's person and in the bag in the trunk
D)They cannot stop him until they get a warrant
Q3) Explain when it is reasonable for the police to break down the door to a home.
Q4) What are the differences between actual authority and apparent authority, and how do these concepts impact third-party consent to searches?
Q5) A rule established by the U.S. Supreme Court that is clearly established and defined (very "black and white") is known as a _____ rule.
Q6) The knock-and-announce rule has its origins in _____.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Inspections and Regulatory Searches
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a justification for warrantless searches of vehicles at driver checkpoints?
A)Drivers are informed of the checkpoints by signs as they approach so they aren't taken by surprise.
B)Drivers are surprised and subjected to unnecessary delay.
C)The stops are brief, and they minimize the stress and fear experienced by motorists.
D)Police do not single out particular motor vehicles for inspection.
Q2) When conducting motor vehicle checkpoints, officers cannot single out certain drivers to be or not to be stopped.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The U.S. Supreme Court has held that administrative warrants to search a house may be based on "_____."
Q4) Which of the following is not considered a special-needs search?
A)Workplace drug testing
B)A schoolwide locker search for weapons
C)A search of a parolee by his parole officer
D)An inspection of a business to ensure enforcement of safety regulations
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Chapter 8: Interrogations and Confessions
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Sample Questions
Q1) When reading a suspect his rights, it is vital that police use the exact terminology outlined by the Court in Miranda.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The U.S. Supreme Court has adopted which test to determine whether a custodial interrogation has taken place?
A)An objective test
B)A subjective test
C)A reasonableness test
D)The custody test
Q3) Once a suspect initiates contact with the police by asking them unnecessary questions, any invocation of his/her Miranda rights is waved.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The U.S. Supreme Court has stated that the objective of the voluntariness test is to provide _____.
Q5) What does it mean to say we operate within an adversarial system instead of an inquisitorial legal system?
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Chapter 9: Eyewitness and Scientific Identifications
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA was first used in criminal cases in which decade?
A)1940s
B)1960s
C)1980s
D)1990s
Q2) The Frye test is used to determine _____.
A)how well a scientific technique meshes with the defendant's rights
B)whether a scientific technique has been carried out by a sufficiently trained individual C)whether a scientific technique is explained clearly enough to a jury
D)whether a scientific technique is sufficiently established and accepted
Q3) The act of a victim comparing one person to another in a lineup then pointing to the one person in the lineup who most closely resembles the offender, whether the person actually is the offender is not, is known as which type of threat to accuracy identification?
A)Closure
B)Selection
C)Shoehorning
D)Suggestiveness
Q4) Why should polygraph evidence be admissible or inadmissible at trial?
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Chapter 10: The Exclusionary Rule and Entrapment
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the many exceptions to the exclusionary rule is to so-called "good faith" exception. Explain this exception, why the Court allows it, and how it has been used in the past. What are some of the criticisms of this exception? Do you believe these are valid? Why or why not?
Q2) As a general rule, defendants must challenge the admissibility of evidence as a pretrial motion to be allowed to appeal a conviction based on that evidence being allowed at trial.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Evidence unlawfully obtained from a defendant can be used to impeach testimony given by a defense witness.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which test for entrapment focuses on the actions of the police?
A)The subjective test
B)The objective test
C)The due process test
D)The reasonableness test
Q5) Explain the process one might use to invoke the exclusionary rule.
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Chapter 11: Civil and Criminal Remedies for Constitutional Violations
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46410
Sample Questions
Q1) Civilian review boards often have the power to act as mediators between police officers and civilians.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which case did the U.S. Supreme Court establish the precedent allowing civilians to bring suit against federal law enforcement officers and other government employees under 42 U.S.C. § 1983?
A)Bivens v. Six Unnamed FBI Agents
B)Griffin v. Maryland
C)Monroe v. Pape
D)West v. Atkins
Q3) In order for an officer to be sued under § 1983, the officer must be acting under _____.
Q4) An allegation against the police investigated by internal affairs will be ruled not sustained if the evidence does not sufficiently clearly prove or disprove the allegation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the difference between absolute immunity and qualified immunity?
Q6) Parole officers and probation officers are granted _____ from § 1983 suits.
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Chapter 12: The Initiation of the Legal Process, Bail, and the Right to Counsel
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A defendant who is unable to reasonably afford counsel is said to be _____.
Q2) A prosecutor who chooses to prosecute an individual due to his/her sex or religion has engaged in _____.
A)discriminatory prosecution
B)ominous prosecution
C)selective prosecution
D)vindictive prosecution
Q3) In Riverside County v. McLaughlin, the U.S. Supreme Court held that a two-day wait for a probable cause hearing was an unreasonably long time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Defense attorneys have a duty to investigate possible mitigating circumstances for all homicide charges.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Unlike much of the pretrial and trial process, probable cause hearings are described as "nonadversarial."
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: The Courtroom: The Pretrial and Trial Process
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46412
Sample Questions
Q1) A grand jury indictment is required to possess all but which of the following?
A)The essential legal elements of the crime
B)Defendant's criminal intent
C)Defendant's criminal acts
D)Exculpatory evidence
Q2) There are two standards followed by courts in determining whether to bind over a defendant for trial. What are they and which is followed by a majority of states?
Q3) Which of the following is not typically considered by a court in deciding whether a defendant's right to a speedy trial has been violated?
A)Whether the defendant is aware of this right
B)The complexity of a case
C)Whether the defendant asserted this right
D)The prosecutorial justification for the delay
Q4) In order for the exclusion of a certain group from jury venire to be unconstitutional, the exclusions must be systematic.
A)True
B)False
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15
Chapter 14: Sentencing and Appeals
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most states view the prohibition against cruel and unusual punishment as a concept that evolves with time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An offender murders three people and is sentenced to die in the electric chair as just punishment for his acts. This is an example of which purpose of punishment?
A)Deterrence
B)Incapacitation
C)Restitution
D)Retribution
Q3) The burden of proof of a habeas corpus hearing rests on the petitioner.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Federal sentencing guidelines are not mandatory.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the increasing controversy surrounding mandatory minimums and the studies that indicate problems with these laws.
Q6) _____ is the purpose of punishment based on the concept of just deserts.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Counterterrorism
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46414
Sample Questions
Q1) Habeas corpus reviews have been granted to several Guantanamo detainees.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following officially ended the use of so-called enhanced interrogation techniques?
A)The Detainee Treatment Act of 2005
B)The Geneva Convention Reaffirmation Act of 2006
C)Hamdan v. Rumsfeld
D)United States v. Sattar
Q3) The prohibition of communication between criminal investigator and intelligence agents, struck down by the USA PATRIOT Act, is known as _____.
Q4) The USA PATRIOT Act allows the attorney general to authorize the FBI to detain citizens and noncitizens indefinitely if it can be shown that they have engaged in terrorist acts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are enhanced interrogation techniques? When can they be used? Do you agree with their use?
Q6) What is an enemy combatant for purposes of the CSRT process?
Page 17
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