Plant Genetics
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Course Introduction
Plant Genetics explores the principles and mechanisms of heredity in plants, focusing on the structure and function of genes, genetic variation, and the molecular basis of inheritance. The course covers classical Mendelian genetics, modern molecular genetics, and techniques such as genetic mapping and marker-assisted selection. Students will learn about the genetic improvement of crop plants, genetic engineering, and the role of genetics in plant adaptation, evolution, and biodiversity. Through lectures, case studies, and practical exercises, the course aims to provide an understanding of how genetic principles are applied in plant breeding and biotechnology for sustainable agriculture.
Recommended Textbook
Concepts of Genetics 3rd Edition by Robert J. Brooker
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Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The study of the processes of transcription and translation is at the ________ level of biological organization.
A) population
B) organismal
C) cellular
D) molecular
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following acts to accelerate chemical reactions in a cell?
A) nucleic acids
B) lipids
C) carbohydrates
D) enzymes
Answer: D
Q3) In humans,gametes are different than other cells of the body in that they are
A) diploid
B) haploid
C) genetic mutations
D) morphs
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Reproduction and Chromosome Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the phase when the microtubules of the spindle fiber attach to the kinetochore.
A) Metaphase
B) Prometaphase
C) Telophase
D) Anaphase
E) Prophase
Answer: B
Q2) A cytogeneticist would primarily do which of the following?
A) study the distribution of traits in a population
B) study the evolutionary changes in a specific trait
C) examine chromosomes using a karyotype
D) determine the genetic sequence of a specific gene
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following would contain genetic material that is 100% identical?
A) homologous chromosomes
B) sister chromatids
C) X and Y chromosomes
D) All of these choices are identical.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Small,closed communities of people that intermarry within the group are likely to see a higher occurrence of disease from
A) recessive alleles.
B) dominant alleles.
C) malnutrition.
D) environmental factors.
Answer: A
Q2) Statistical analysis determines the ________ between observed data and what was expected from the original hypothesis.
A) testcross
B) degrees of freedom
C) P values
D) complete hypothesis
E) goodness of fit
Answer: E
Q3) The chi square test is used to prove that a hypothesis is correct.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Sex Determination and Sex Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sex determination in humans and Drosophila is similar in the fact that
A) the ratio of X chromosomes to sets of autosomes determines maleness or femaleness in both.
B) males in both will always have one Y chromosome, whereas females will not have a Y chromosome.
C) females lack X chromosomes.
D) males have one X chromosome and females have two X chromosomes.
Q2) Dosage compensation offsets the problems associated with differences in the number of ________ chromosomes in many species.
A) sex
B) autosome
C) somatic
D) nuclear
Q3) What gene is most responsible for X-inactivation?
A) Xic
B) Xist
C) TsiX
D) Xce
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Chapter 5: Extensions of Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) When wild-type offspring are produced from a cross between parents that both display the same recessive phenotype,this illustrates the genetic phenomenon of
A) simple recessive alleles
B) incomplete penetrance
C) complementation
D) gene dosage
E) a spontaneous mutation
Q2) Epistasis is ________.
A) another term for overdominance
B) when one gene can mask the expression of a second gene
C) a trait that is only expressed in one sex of the species
D) when two dominant alleles can be expressed in the same individual
E) None of these choices are correct.
Q3) The phenylketonuria phenotype in humans is an example of ________.
A) incomplete penetrance
B) codominance
C) an environmental-influenced trait
D) incomplete dominance
E) All of these choices are correct.
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Chapter 6: Extranuclear Inheritance, Imprinting, and Maternal Effect
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of genomic imprinting is
A) Leber hereditary optic neuropathy.
B) neurogenic muscle weakness.
C) snail coiling in water snails.
D) Angelman Syndrome.
E) bicoid gene in Drosophila.
Q2) Heteroplasmy is associated with inheritance patterns involving ________.
A) ribosomes
B) maternal effect
C) genomic imprinting
D) nuclear genes
E) chloroplasts
Q3) What is the type of inheritance that is based on a reversible modification of genomic DNA that results in the alleles of only one parent being transcriptionally active?
A) maternal
B) epigenetic
C) cytoplasmic
D) extranuclear
E) mitochondrial
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Genetic Linkage and Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following defines gene linkage?
A) Two or more genes that are physically connected on a chromosome.
B) Genes that are transmitted to the next generation as a group.
C) The process by which genetic information is exchanged between homologous chromosomes.
D) All of these choices are correct.
E) Both two or more genes that are physically connected on a chromosome and genes that are transmitted to the next generation as a group.
Q2) The individual who is credited with discovering genetic linkage in Drosophila is
A) Thomas Hunt Morgan
B) Gregor Mendel
C) Alfred Sturtevant
D) Barbara McClintock
Q3) A map unit or centiMorgan is equal to a 10% recombination frequency.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The locus is the physical place of a gene on a chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Variation in Chromosome Structure and Number
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a disease is associated with copy number variation,that suggests that it is caused by the presence of
A) mRNA transcripts missing the translation STOP sequence.
B) a much longer version of a gene.
C) a duplicated or deleted copy of a gene.
D) extra telomeres.
Q2) Select the pairs that correctly match an aneuploid condition to its genotype.
A) Edward syndrome - trisomy 18
B) Down syndrome - trisomy 21
C) Jacobs syndrome - XYY
D) Turner syndrome - XXY
E) Klinefelter - XO
Q3) Chromosomes may be identified based on which of the following characteristics?
A) location of the centromere
B) banding patterns
C) size of the chromosome
D) All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Variations in a gene are called allelic variations.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Genetics in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A minute is the basic unit of map distance in bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Who was the first to discover the process of natural transformation?
A) Morgan
B) Sturtevant
C) Griffith
D) Avery
Q3) After conjugation,the enzyme that rejoins the ends of the linear DNA into a circular plasmid is called ________.
A) relaxosome
B) relaxase
C) F factor
D) nucleoprotein
Q4) The direct movement of DNA between two bacteria is called genetic transfer.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Competent cells are those used in studies of conjugation.
A)True
B)False
11
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Chapter 10: Genetics of Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a property of emerging viruses?
A) mutate frequently
B) recent origin
C) more likely to cause infection compared to other strains
D) all of these
Q2) Which virus uses reverse transcriptase in its reproductive cycle?
A) HIV
B) Phage lamda
C) Both of the viruses use reverse transcriptase
D) Neither of the viruses use reverse transcriptase
Q3) A ________ uses the lytic cycle to begin the immediate manufacture of new phages in the host cells.
A) virulent phage
B) temperate phage
C) bacteria
D) eukaryotic cell
Q4) The genetic material of HIV is single-stranded RNA.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Molecular Structure of DNA and RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fact that the type R and S strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae that Griffith worked with possessed small differences in capsule structure satisfies which of the following criteria for genetic material?
A) transmission
B) replication
C) information
D) variation
Q2) In the Hershey-Chase experiments,the protein coat of the bacteriophage was labeled with the ³²P radioisotope.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The idea that the adenine and thymine bases of the DNA interact in some manner was first proposed by ________.
A) Watson and Crick
B) Franklin
C) Pauling
D) Chargaff
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Chapter 12: Molecular Structure of Chromosomes and Transposition
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is one reason why an amphibian,such as a salamander,might have a larger genome than a mammal,such as a chimpanzee?
A) The amphibian is more complex than the mammal.
B) The amphibian has more structural genes than the mammal.
C) The amphibian has more repetitive sequences than the mammal.
D) The amphibian has more introns than the mammal.
Q2) What feature(s)may be found in insertion elements?
A) inverted repeats
B) transposase gene
C) reverse transcriptase gene
D) antibiotic resistance gene
E) integrase gene
Q3) To date,there are no indications that transposable elements offer a selective advantage to a species.
A)True
B)False
Q4) LINEs and SINEs together constitute over 30% of the human genome.
A)True
B)False
14
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Chapter 13: Dna Replication and Recombination
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the attachment of a nucleotide to a DNA strand,the cleavage of the dNTP into deoxyribonucleoside monophosphate and pyrophosphate is ________.
A) exergonic
B) endergonic
C) energy neutral
Q2) DNA helicase enzymes move in what direction along the DNA during DNA replication?
A) 5 to 3
B) 3 to 5
C) They travel in both directions.
D) They remain stationary.
Q3) Which describes the mechanism of DNA replication in which the newly made double-stranded DNA contains one parental strand and one daughter strand?
A) dispersive
B) semiconservative
C) conservative
Q4) A primosome consists of a polymerase and a single-stranded binding protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Gene Transcription and RNA Modification
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Sample Questions
Q1) What enables the splicing of group I and II introns?
A) spliceosomes
B) ribozymes
C) snRNA
D) poly-A tail
Q2) What RNA modification is important for mRNA stability?
A) alternative splicing
B) RNA editing
C) base modification
D) 3' polyA tailing
E) processing
Q3) What do both the rho-dependent and rho-independent mechanisms of termination have in common?
A) terminate transcription immediately after the stop codon
B) a sequence rich with A-U base pairs
C) Both require a helicase to separate the DNA-RNA complex.
D) formation of a stem-loop structure
Q4) Basal transcription in eukaryotes involves the action of only the core promoter.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Translation of MRNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which molecule contains an anticodon?
A) DNA
B) mRNA
C) rRNA
D) tRNA
E) snRNA
Q2) In bacteria,the sequence that facilitates the binding of the mRNA to the ribosome is called the
A) Kozak sequence.
B) Shine-Dalgarno sequence.
C) start sequence.
D) rRNA sequence.
Q3) All mature polypeptides contain a methionine at the N-terminus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The one-gene,one-enzyme hypothesis was first proposed by Beadle and Tatum.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lac operon is under what type of control?
A) positive control
B) negative control
C) The gene would be expressed constitutively.
D) It depends on what the gene encodes.
Q2) Enzymes involved in metabolism are most likely regulated via ________.
A) feedback inhibition
B) acetylation
C) methylation
D) None of the answers are correct.
Q3) Regulation of gene expression may occur at which of the following levels?
A) transcription
B) translation
C) posttranslation
D) All of the answers are correct.
Q4) cAMP is a small effector molecule.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the molecular mechanism for imprinting a gene?
A) Acetylation
B) Nitration
C) Phosphorylation
D) Methylation
Q2) If a human cell has two Barr bodies then the genotype of the individual could be
A) XXXY
B) XXXXY
C) XXY
D) XYY
Q3) Where is the IRE located in the ferritin gene?
A) 5 end of DNA
B) 5 end of mRNA
C) 3 end of DNA
D) 3 end of mRNA
Q4) CpG islands are associated with which of the following?
A) nucleosome location
B) DNA methylation
C) steroid hormone activity
D) termination of translation
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Chapter 18: Non-Coding Rnas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the ways in which modifications to the chromatin brought about by HOTAIR and associated proteins are proposed to inhibit transcription.
A) Direct inhibition of RNA polymerase binding
B) Attraction of other chromatin-modifying enzymes
C) Formation of a double-stranded RNA structure between HOTAIR and the mRNA preventing translation
D) Recruitment of repressors to the DNA
Q2) A bacterial ncRNA called OxyS regulates translation by binding to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence,which prevents ribosome binding.What is the function of this ncRNA?
A) Blocker
B) Decoy
C) Ribozyme
D) Scaffold
Q3) The ncRNA HOTAIR recruits what type of proteins to target genes?
A) Histone-modifying complexes
B) Transcription factors
C) RNA polymerase
D) Histone acetyltransferase
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Chapter 19: Gene Mutation and DNA Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are examples of spontaneous mutations?
A) depurination
B) deamination
C) tautomeric shifts
D) nitrogenous base oxidation
Q2) Which of the following integrate into the double-helix of DNA,interfering with DNA replication?
A) EMS
B) nitrous acid
C) 5BU
D) acridine dyes
Q3) The wild-type eye color of Drosophila is red.A single-base mutation occurs that produces a white eye color.Which of the following is correct regarding this mutation?
A) It is an example of a mutation that alters protein function.
B) Individuals with white eyes are called reversions.
C) It would be an example of a silent mutation.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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Chapter 20: Molecular Technologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are performing a mobility shift assay with a protein complex that is composed of proteins A,B,C,& D,each of which can bind to the DNA of interest.You run the gel with the lanes as follows:
Lane 1: Protein A + DNA
Lane 2: Proteins A + B + DNA
Lane 3: Proteins A + B + C + DNA
Lane 4: Proteins A + B + C + D + DNA
In which lane will the DNA run closest to the top of the gel?
A) Lane 4
B) Lane 3
C) Lane 2
D) Lane 1
Q2) Select the technique that can be used to see how a specific mutation affects the expression of a gene and the function of a protein.
A) site-directed mutagenesis
B) Western blotting
C) real-time PCR
D) DNA sequencing
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Chapter 21: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the screening of a DNA microarray,detection of a fluorescent signal from one of the genes indicates which of the following?
A) The labeled cDNA hybridized to that particular gene.
B) The labeled cDNA did not hybridize to that particular gene.
C) The experiment was not conducted correctly.
D) None of these choices are correct.
Q2) What does physical mapping provide that the other types of genetic mapping do not?
A) recombination distances between genes
B) number of nucleotide base pairs between genes
C) relationship of the gene to specific chromosomal banding patterns
D) frequencies of alleles in a population
Q3) Gene chips are being used for which of the following purposes?
A) to examine patterns of gene expression under various environmental conditions
B) to establish levels of genetic variation
C) to determine gene expression specific to certain cell types
D) to identify species of bacteria
E) All of these choices are possible.
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23
Chapter 22: Medical Genetics and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epigenetics may play a role in cancer by A) causing a change in gene expression patterns.
B) directly inducing inversion mutations.
C) directly resulting in gene deletions.
D) causing translocations.
Q2) Which of the following is typically associated with an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance?
A) an affected offspring has one or more affected parents
B) an affected individual with one affected parent will have 50% of its offspring affected
C) two affected heterozygous individuals will have 25% of their offspring unaffected
D) an affected offspring has two unaffected parents
Q3) In a disease that is associated with a single recessive allele,the concordance among dizygotic twins should be
A) 0%.
B) 25%.
C) 50%.
D) 75%.
E) 100%.
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24
Chapter 23: Population Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a gene has more than one allele and each allele has a frequency that is less than 99%,then the gene is considered to be
A) monomorphic.
B) polymorphic.
C) bialleleic.
D) polyallelic.
Q2) Microevolution is defined as
A) changes in the gene pool from one generation to the next.
B) changes in gene flow from one generation to the next.
C) the ability of different genotypes to succeed in a particular environment.
D) morphological changes that occur from one generation to the next.
Q3) Which of the following types of selection creates two phenotypic classes from a single original distribution?
A) disruptive selection
B) stabilizing selection
C) directional selection
D) balancing selection
Q4) Most natural populations are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Quantitative Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) After several generations of artificial selective breeding,a plateau is reached where artificial selection is no longer effective. This is called the ________.
A) realized limit
B) realized heritability
C) selection coefficient
D) selection limit
Q2) Heritability is the amount of genetic variation in a particular population and a particular environment.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A heritability value of 0.997 indicates which of the following?
A) The majority of the phenotypic variation has a genetic basis.
B) The majority of the phenotypic variation has an environmental basis.
C) The trait is polygenic.
D) There is a significant difference between the two strains.
E) None of these choices are correct.
Q4) A population that is homozygous for a given allele is called monomorphic.
A)True
B)False
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