Plant Genetics
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Plant Genetics explores the fundamental principles of heredity and variation in plants, emphasizing the molecular, classical, and population genetics that underpin plant breeding and biotechnology. Students learn about gene structure and function, genetic mapping, inheritance patterns, genetic diversity, and the application of genetic methods to improve plant species. The course covers techniques such as genetic modification, marker-assisted selection, and genomic tools, alongside discussions of ethical, environmental, and societal impacts of genetic advancements in agriculture.
Recommended Textbook
Concepts of Genetics Books a la Carte Edition 11th Edition by William S. Klug
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25 Chapters
1189 Verified Questions
1189 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A number of genomes have been sequenced in recent years: Escherichia coli,Saccharomyces cerevisiae,Caenorhabditis elegans,Drosophila melanogaster,and Mus musculus.What are the common names for these organisms?
Answer: bacterium,yeast,roundworm,fruit fly,mouse
Q2) What term is used to describe the fact that different genes in an organism often provide differences in observable features?
Answer: phenotype
Q3) Arabidopsis is a model organism for the study of ________.
Answer: plants
Q4) Research dealing with which human blood disorder was instrumental in linking the genotype to a specific phenotype,and what conclusion was reached?
Answer: The work on sickle-cell anemia was instrumental in showing that a mutant gene produced a mutant protein molecule.
Q5) What is a transgenic organism?
Answer: A transgenic organism is an organism produced by biotechnology that involves the transfer of hereditary traits across species.
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Chapter 2: Mitosis and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The meiotic cell cycle involves two cell divisions but only one DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Name two cellular organelles,each containing genetic material,which are involved in either photosynthesis or respiration.
Answer: chloroplasts and mitochondria
Q3) Homologous chromosomes are those that can be matched by virtue of their similar structure and function within a nucleus.Which chromosomes making up a genome do not follow the same characteristics of homology?
Answer: sex-determining chromosomes
Q4) During meiosis,chromosome number reduction takes place in anaphase II. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) How many haploid sets of chromosomes are present in an individual cell that is tetraploid (4n)?
Answer: 4
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Chapter 3: Mendelian Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assume that a Chi-square test was conducted to test the goodness of fit to a 9:3:3:1 ratio and a Chi-square value of 10.62 was obtained.Should the null hypothesis be accepted?
Answer: no
Q2) Mendel's discoveries were well received and understood by his contemporaries. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The phenotype of vestigial (short)wings (vg)in Drosophila melanogaster is caused by a recessive mutant gene that independently assorts with a recessive gene for hairy (h)body.Assume that a cross is made between a fly with normal wings and a hairy body and a fly with vestigial wings and normal body hair.The wild-type F flies were crossed among each other to produce 1024 offspring.Which phenotypes would you expect among the 1024 offspring,and how many of each phenotype would you expect?
Answer: Phenotypes: wild,vestigial,hairy,vestigial hairy; Numbers expected: wild (576),vestigial (192),hairy (192),vestigial hairy (64)
Q4) What are two typical testcross ratios?
Answer: 1:1 and 1:1:1:1
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Extensions of Mendelian Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mutation in a gene often results in a reduction of the product of that gene.The term for this type of mutation is ________.
A) codominance
B) incomplete dominance
C) gain of function
D) multiple allelism
E) loss of function or null (in the case of complete loss)
Q2) Typically,when one wishes to represent a gene,the symbol used is _________.
A) in italics
B) in all lowercase letters
C) in all upper case letters
D) in bold print
E) underlined
Q3) Multiple mutations that are found to be present in a single gene are said to belong to the same ________ group.
A) phenotypic
B) allelic
C) transfer
D) complementation
E) expression
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Chapter 5: Chromosome Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assume that two genes are 80 map units apart on chromosome II of Drosophila and that a cross is made between a doubly heterozygous female and a homozygous recessive male.What percent recombination would be expected in the offspring of this type of cross?
Q2) Assume that investigators crossed a strain of flies carrying the dominant eye mutation Lobe on the second chromosome with a strain homozygous for the second chromosome recessive mutations smooth abdomen and straw body.The F Lobe females were then backcrossed with homozygous smooth abdomen,straw body males,and the following phenotypes were observed:
\( \begin{array}{lr}\text { smooth abdomen, straw body } & 820 \\ \text { Lobe } & 780 \\ \text { smooth abdomen, Lobe } & 42 \\ \text { straw body } & 58 \\ \text { smooth abdomen } & 148 \\ \text { Lobe, straw body } & 152\end{array} \)
a) Give the gene order and map units between these three loci.
b) What is the coefficient of coincidence?
Q3) Provide a brief definition for positive interference.
Q4) What are two commonly used DNA landmarks for mapping human genes?
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Chapter 6: Genetic Analysis and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a bacterial cross in which the donor (Hfr)is a b and the recipient strain (F )is a b ,it is expected that recombinant bacteria will all be a b .
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the consequence of a mutation in the recA gene in bacteria?
Q3) Name three forms of recombination in bacteria.
Q4) The "interrupted mating technique" provides a genetic map in Drosophila.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Lysogeny is most likely associated with transduction.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the role of the F factor in bacterial recombination?
Q7) A symbiotic relationship between a phage and a bacterium apparently occurs in the process of lysogeny.
A)True
B)False
Q8) What are the roles of the recBCD genes?
Q9) What is a form of recombination in bacteria that involves the F plasmid? Page 8
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Sex Determination and Sex Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the composition of a Barr body?
Q2) Give the sex of the following organisms assuming that the autosomes are present in the normal number.
\(\begin{array}{lll}
\text {Sex Chromosome } && \text {Organism } \\ \text { Complement } & \text {Humans } & \text { Drosophila } \\
\hline \text { XX } & \underline { \quad\quad\quad}& \underline { \quad\quad\quad} \\
\text { XY } & \underline { \quad\quad\quad} & \underline { \quad\quad\quad} \\ \text { XO } & \underline { \quad\quad\quad} & \underline { \quad\quad\quad} \\ \text { XXX } & \underline { \quad\quad\quad} & \underline { \quad\quad\quad} \\ \text { XXY } & \underline { \quad\quad\quad}& \underline { \quad\quad\quad} \end{array}\)
Q3) Give the sex-chromosome constitution (X and Y chromosomes)and possible genotypes of offspring resulting from a cross between a white-eyed female (X X Y)and a wild-type male (normal chromosome complement)in Drosophila melanogaster.Include all zygotic combinations whether viable or inviable.
Q4) Describe an experiment in which transgenic mice were used to identify the male-determining region of the Y chromosome.
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Chapter 8: Chromosome Mutations: Variation in Number and Arrangement
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Sample Questions
Q1) The condition known as cri-du-chat syndrome in humans has a genetic constitution designated as ________.
A) 45, X
B) heteroplasmy
C) 46, 5p-
D) triploidy
E) trisomy
Q2) Trisomy 21,or Down syndrome,occurs when there is a normal diploid chromosomal complement but one (extra)chromosome 21.Although fertility is reduced in both sexes,females have higher fertility rates than males.Van Dyke et al.(1995; Down Syndrome Research and Practice 3(2): 65-69)summarize data involving children born of Down syndrome individuals.Assume that children are born to a female with Down syndrome and a normal 46-chromosome male.What proportion of the offspring would be expected to have Down syndrome?
A) One-third of the offspring would be expected to have Down syndrome.
B) Two-thirds of the offspring would be expected to have Down syndrome.
C) All the children would be expected to have Down syndrome.
D) None of the offspring would be expected to have Down syndrome.
E) One-half of the offspring would be expected to have Down syndrome.
Q3) What explanation is generally given for lethality of monosomic individuals?
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Chapter 9: Extranuclear Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of a form of extrachromosomal inheritance that is due to transmission of symbiotic or parasitic microorganisms?
Q2) Mitochondrial mutations are passed equally to offspring by both males and females.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How are reciprocal crosses used to identify cases of extrachromosomal inheritance? What criteria would one use to state that a particular mode of inheritance is extrachromosomal?
Q4) Researchers in the late 1950s isolated multiple antibiotic-resistant strains of the bacterium Shigella,which causes dysentery.Such resistance was caused by nonchromosomal R factors that originated in E.coli.Which of the following forms of extrachromosomal heredity-maternal effect,organelle heredity,infectious heredity-would you consider most closely related to the transfer bacterial antibiotic-resistant strains?
Q5) List two classes of extrachromosomal inheritance and give an example of each.
Q6) In what way do mitochondrial mutations influence phenotype?
Q7) List three criteria indicating that a human disorder may be attributable to genetically altered mitochondria.
Page 12
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Chapter 10: DNA Structure and Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme found in association with retroviral activity.It has the property of ________.
A) synthesis of DNA from an RNA template
B) synthesis of RNA from a DNA template
C) requiring no template
D) translation
E) most lysozymes
Q2) G and C are present in both DNA and RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In 1953,Watson and Crick published a paper that described the structure of DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The base content of a sample of DNA is as follows: A = 31%,G = 31%,T = 19%,C = 19%.What conclusion can be drawn from this information?
Q5) Avery et al.(1944)determined that DNA is the genetic material in T2 bacteriophage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: DNA Replication and Recombination
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Sample Questions
Q1) What three possible models were suggested to originally describe the nature of DNA replication?
Q2) Assume that you grew a culture of E.coli for many generations in medium containing ¹ N (from the ammonium ion),a heavy isotope of nitrogen.You extract DNA from a portion of the culture and determine its density to be 1.723 gm/cm³ (call this sampleA).You then wash the remaining E.coli cells and grow them for one generation in ¹ N,and extract the DNA from a portion of the culture (call this sampleB).You let the culture grow for one more generation in ¹ N,and extract the DNA (call this sampleC)is then subjected to ultracentrifugation.Present the centrifugation profiles that you would expect under (a)semiconservative replication and (b)conservative replication.(Note: Assume that unlabeled [¹ N] DNA has a density of 1.700 gm/cm³.)Each sample of DNA (A,B,andC).
Q3) Which of the following terms accurately describes the replication of DNA in vivo?
A) conservative
B) dispersive
C) semidiscontinuous
D) nonlinear
E) nonreciprocal
Q4) Describe the function of the RecA protein.
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Page 14
Chapter 12: DNA Organization in Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viral chromosomes exist in a variety of conformations and can be made up of
A) protein- or lipid-coding sequences
B) DNA only
C) DNA or RNA
D) RNA only
E) DNA, RNA, or protein
Q2) What is meant by SINE in terms of chromosome structure? By LINE? Why are they called "repetitive"?
Q3) In situ hybridization allows one to "visualize" the location of labeled RNA or DNA in a tissue or cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Briefly describe the makeup of VNTRs (variable number tandem repeats).
Q5) What are minisatellites and microsatellites?
Q6) In instances in the eukaryotic genome,DNA sequences represent evolutionary vestiges of duplicated copies of genes.What are such regions called and what are their characteristics?
Q7) How do VNTRs relate to DNA fingerprinting?
Page 15
Q8) What are histones,and how are they arranged in nucleosomes?
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Chapter 13: The Genetic Code and Transcription
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following two terms relate most closely to split genes?
A) 5 -cap, 3 -poly-A tail
B) introns, exons
C) elongation, termination
D) transcription, translation
E) heteroduplex, homoduplex
Q2) Describe the function of N-formylmethionine in prokaryotes.
Q3) In which cellular organelle do the three posttranscriptional modifications often seen in the maturation of mRNA in eukaryotes occur?
A) nucleus
B) cytoplasm
C) mitochondrion
D) lysosome
E) Golgi
Q4) The relationship between codon and anticodon can be characterized as involving
Q5) Messenger RNA is usually polycistronic in eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Referring to the genetic code,what is meant by "wobble"?
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Translation and Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the basic structure of normal adult hemoglobin and the abnormality observed in sickle-cell hemoglobin.
Q2) By their experimentation using the Neurospora fungus,Beadle and Tatum were able to propose the far-reaching hypothesis that ________.
A) prototrophs will grow only if provided with nutritional supplements
B) several different enzymes may be involved in the same step in a biochemical pathway
C) the role of a specific gene is to produce a specific enzyme
D) genetic recombination occurred in Neurospora
E) more than one codon can specify a given amino acid
Q3) The primary structure of a protein is determined by ________.
A) the sequence of amino acids
B) hydrogen bonds formed between the components of the peptide linkage
C) a series of helical domains
D) pleated sheets
E) covalent bonds formed between fibroin residues
Q4) Much has been learned about the relationship between genes and gene products through the use of the mold Neurospora.What specific attributes make Neurospora a good organism for such studies?
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Chapter 15: Gene Mutation,dna Repair,and Transposition
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Sample Questions
Q1) How were insertion sequences (IS elements)first discovered?
Q2) Some bacterial transposons,known as Tn elements,are larger than insertion sequences (IS elements)and contain protein-coding genes that have human health significance.What might such a bacterial transposon contain?
A) drug resistance
B) oncogene
C) pseudogene
D) proto-oncogene
E) dissociation element
Q3) Of the two cell lines that can contain a mutation in an organism,somatic and germ line,the latter is more consequential to subsequent generations.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Under certain conditions,the rate of mutation of a particular gene may be determined in humans.What three properties of the mutation would favor the most direct determination of mutation rate in humans?
Q5) What are LINES?
Q6) How was it determined that X-rays are mutagenic?
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Chapter 16: Regulation of Gene Expression in Prokaryotes
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Q1) Within the control region of the trp operon is a section of DNA that is sensitive to levels of tryptophan in the system.What is the name of this region?
Q2) Describe the positive control exerted by the catabolite activating protein (CAP).Include a description of catabolite repression.
Q3) Under a system of positive control,transcription does not occur unless a regulator molecule directly stimulates RNA production.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Present an overview of prokaryotic regulation in terms of growth efficiency.
Q5) Attenuation involves the termination of mRNA synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The trp and lac operons are both subject to forms of control that are typically called negative.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Describe what is meant by a gratuitous inducer.Give an example.
Q8) What is the function of the lacY gene in the lac operon?
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) When transcription factors interact with DNA,is the resulting genetic control typically positive or negative?
Q2) In what way is gene rearrangement related to gene regulation? Give an example.
Q3) Transcription factors are proteins with at least two functional domains-one that binds to DNA and one that binds to RNA polymerase or to other transcription factors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Alternative RNA processing generates different mRNAs,which can direct the synthesis of different polypeptides.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What evidence indicates that steroid hormones exert their influence at the level of DNA?
Q6) In what ways are eukaryotic transcription factors thought to function?
Q7) In what way is 5 -azacytidine used (experimentally)in the treatment of sickle-cell anemia?
Q8) List at least three levels or types of genetic regulation in eukaryotes.
Page 20
Q9) Describe the function and general nature of promoters in eukaryotes.
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Chapter 18: Developmental Genetics
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Q1) Which class of genes controls the developmental identity of segments along the anterior-posterior axis?
Q2) In Drosophila,what is the order of function of the segmentation genes?
Q3) It is presently believed that the asymmetric distribution of substances in the egg,positioned by the mother,is responsible for establishing the determined state.Which general term describes such molecular positioning?
Q4) Do Hox gene clusters exist in humans? If so,how many are known to exist?
Q5) What significant conclusion has the classic work on the eyeless and Pax6 genes provided in terms of developmental mechanisms?
Q6) A gene that specifies the fate of a particular anatomical segment in Drosophila is called a(n)________.
Q7) Provide an explanation of the differences between differentiation and determination.Provide examples of each process and indicate how each is involved in development.
Q8) Segmentation genes,such as the pair-rule class,are inherited through mitochondrial DNA in Drosophila.
A)True
B)False
Page 21
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Chapter 19: Cancer and Regulation of the Cell Cycle
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Q1) What functional differences exist between various cyclins?
Q2) Chronic myelogenous leukemia appears to be associated with a chromosomal rearrangement.Which chromosome(s)is(are)involved,and what is the name of the rearrangement?
Q3) What is the significance of CDK?
Q4) Describe the molecular nature of mutation,as related to cancer,in a ras gene.
Q5) When the normal retinoblastoma protein is dephosphorylated,it acts to suppress cell division by binding to and inactivating the E2F transcription factor. A)True
B)False
Q6) List at least three environmental agents or factors that are known to cause cancer.
Q7) Provide a simple definition of a carcinogen.
Q8) In what way might a virus contribute to cancer formation?
Q9) If someone has a predisposition to cancer,what genetic circumstance likely exists?
Q10) Differentiate among the following types of genes: tumor-suppressor gene,proto-oncogene,and oncogene.
Q11) In what way can loss of heterozygosity lead to cancer?
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Chapter 20: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) In the polymerase chain reaction,what is the purpose of the initial high temperature? What is the purpose of cooling in the second step?
Q2) Following are four processes common to most cloning experiments:
a) transforming bacteria
b) plating bacteria on selective medium
c) cutting DNA with restriction endonucleases
d) ligating DNA fragments
Place components of this list in the order in which they would most likely occur during a cloning experiment.
Q3) The function of a ddNTP in DNA sequencing is to methylate guanine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Assume that one conducted a typical cloning experiment using a typical plasmid,transformed an appropriate host bacterial strain,and plated the bacteria on an appropriate X-gal medium.Blue and white colonies appeared.Which of the two types of colonies,blue or white,would most likely contain the recombinant plasmid?
Q5) Under ideal conditions,how many copies of all the sequences of the host genome should be represented in a genomic library?
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Chapter 21: Genomics, bioinformatics, and Proteomics
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Q1) One major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic genes is that eukaryotic genes can contain internal sequences,called ________,that get removed in the mature message.
Q2) A bacterial polygenic transcription unit ________. A) contains information for one protein product B) contains information for more than one protein product C) is capped at the 5'end and carries a poly-A tail at the 3'end D) is void of start (AUG) and termination (UAA, UGA, UAG) triplets E) None of the answers listed is correct.
Q3) Describe the organization of the -globin gene in humans.
Q4) The Human Genome Project is an international effort to construct a base sequence of the approximately 3 billion base pairs in the haploid human genome. A)True B)False
Q5) Typically,bacterial DNA contains less repetitive DNA than eukaryotic DNA. A)True B)False
Q6) Intron frequency varies considerably among eukaryotes.Provide a general comparison of intron frequencies in yeast and humans.What about intron size?
Page 24
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Chapter 22: Applications and Ethics of Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology
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Q1) How are gene therapy and recombinant DNA technology related?
Q2) There is a fear that preconception genetic testing may lead to "designer babies." What historical practice comes to mind regarding the production of such babies?
Q3) Many instances involving genetically modified organisms,especially food crops,will be entering the human food chain in the years to come.On what basis are genetically modified foods considered safe to eat?
A) They are only slightly toxic.
B) All products to be cleared for human consumption have been personally tested by all members of the regulatory agency.
C) Because of the possible economic impact of rigorous testing, such food products are minimally tested in sheep and cattle.
D) Each genetically modified food product is screened for its resistance to antibiotics.
E) Genetically modified food products are considered safe if they are found not toxic or allergenic or have other negative physiological effects.
Q4) Describe the structure of a DNA microarray and its use.
Q5) Name at least three applications for examining sequence variants such as RFLPs.
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Chapter 23: Quantitative Genetics and Multifactorial Traits
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Q1) Assume that a cross is made between tall and dwarf tobacco plants.The F generation showed intermediate height,while the F generation showed a distribution of height ranging from tall to dwarf,like the original parents,and many heights between the extremes.These data are consistent with which one of the following modes of inheritance?
A) multiple-factor inheritance
B) alternation of generations
C) codominance
D) incomplete dominance
E) hemizygosity
Q2) Interpret the meaning of an H² (broad-sense heritability)value that approaches 0.0.
Q3) Assume that in the F of a series of crosses,1/64 of the offspring resemble one of the parents (P).How many gene pairs are involved in producing these results?
Q4) What is the term given to a random subset of individuals who are selected for measurement in a particular study?
Q5) Assume that four polygenic gene pairs are involved in determining phenotypes of F .How many phenotypic classes are expected?
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Chapter 24: Neurogenetics
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Q1) Humans are relatively unavailable as experimental subjects in genetic investigations,yet considerable interest surrounds intelligence,language,personality,and emotional behaviors.One difficulty in studying such behaviors is the high likelihood that they ________.
A) are strongly influenced by birth order and diet
B) are affected by the environment
C) follow non-Mendelian patterns of inheritance
D) follow extranuclear patterns of inheritance
E) have no likely genetic influence
Q2) Briefly describe the mutant status of the HD gene.
Q3) Much effort has been expended to understand genetic involvement in brain function in Drosophila.Why might this research be important in understanding the functioning of the human brain?
Q4) Present an overview of the research dealing with the genetics of behavior in small mammals (mice or rats)and Drosophila.
Q5) What is the biochemical role of adenyl cyclase?
Q6) A transgenic mouse model now exists for Huntington disease in humans.
A)True
B)False
Page 27
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Chapter 25: Population and Evolutionary Genetics
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Q1) What is meant by the equation p + q = 1.0?
Q2) Genetic drift is primarily associated with relatively small breeding populations. A)True
B)False
Q3) Cytochrome c is a respiratory pigment found in the mitochondria of eukaryotes.Compared with some other proteins,it has changed very slowly over long periods of time.Why?
Q4) What single event is probably common to all occurrences of speciation?
Q5) In a population of 100 individuals,49% are of the NN blood type.What percentage is expected to be MN assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium conditions?
A) 9%
B) 21%
C) 42%
D) 51%
E) There is insufficient information to answer this question.
Q6) Why are some proteins more likely than others to diverge within a species?
Q7) Assume that in a Hardy-Weinberg population,9% of the individuals are of the homozygous recessive phenotype.What percentage are homozygous dominant?
Page 28
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