Plant Genetics
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Plant Genetics explores the principles of heredity and genetic variation in plants, covering fundamental concepts such as Mendelian and molecular genetics, gene structure and function, and genome organization. The course examines the mechanisms of genetic inheritance, the molecular basis of trait development, and the application of modern genetic techniques including genetic mapping, marker-assisted selection, and genetic engineering in plant breeding and biotechnology. Students will also learn about genetic diversity, mutation, and the role of genetics in plant evolution and adaptation to different environments.
Recommended Textbook
Concepts of Genetics Books a la Carte Edition 11th Edition by William S. Klug
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25 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the 1600s,William Harvey studied reproduction and development.What is the term given to the theory which states that an organism develops from the fertilized egg by a succession of developmental events that lead to an adult?
A) preformation
B) sequential pattern formation
C) equational transformation
D) transduction
E) epigenesis
Answer: E
Q2) A number of genomes have been sequenced in recent years: Escherichia coli,Saccharomyces cerevisiae,Caenorhabditis elegans,Drosophila melanogaster,and Mus musculus.What are the common names for these organisms?
Answer: bacterium,yeast,roundworm,fruit fly,mouse
Q3) What is meant by the term genetic code?
Answer: The genetic code consists of a linear series of three adjacent nucleotides present in mRNA molecules.
Q4) What is meant by complementarity in terms of the structure of DNA?
Answer: base pairing of A with T,and G with C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Mitosis and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The centromere of a chromosome separates during anaphase.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Assume that an organism has a diploid chromosome number of six.Two chromosomal pairs are telocentric,and the other pair is metacentric.Assume that the sex chromosomes are morphologically identical.Draw chromosomes as you would expect them to appear at the following stages:
Primary oocyte (metaphase)
Secondary spermatocyte (metaphase)
First polar body (metaphase)
Answer: 11ea597f_0b33_95bf_82f8_e1f04650a461_TB4464_00
Q3) You may have heard through various media of an animal alleged to be the hybrid of a rabbit and a cat.Given that the cat (Felis domesticus)has a diploid chromosome number of 38 and a rabbit (Oryctolagus cuniculus)has a diploid chromosome number of 44,what would be the expected chromosome number in the somatic tissues of this alleged hybrid?
Answer: 41
Q4) After which meiotic stage (meiosis I or II)would one expect monads to be formed?
Answer: meiosis II
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Chapter 3: Mendelian Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A certain type of congenital deafness in humans is caused by a rare autosomal dominant gene.In a mating involving a deaf man and a deaf woman,could all the children have normal hearing? Explain your answer.
Answer: Assuming that the parents are heterozygotes (because the gene is rare),it is possible that all of the children could have normal hearing.
Q2) A recessive allele in tigers causes the white tiger.If two normally pigmented tigers are mated and produce a white offspring,what percentage of their remaining offspring would be expected to have normal pigmentation?
A) 25%
B) 50%
C) about 66%
D) 75%
E) about 90%
Answer: D
Q3) Assume that a Chi-square test provided a probability value of 0.02.Should the null hypothesis be accepted?
Answer: no
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5
Chapter 4: Extensions of Mendelian Genetics
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Q1) Can females display pattern baldness?
Q2) With both incomplete dominance and codominance,one expects heterozygous and homozygous classes to be phenotypically identical.
A)True
B)False
Q3) With which of the following would hemizygosity most likely be associated?
A) codominance
B) incomplete dominance
C) trihybrid crosses
D) X-linked inheritance
E) sex-limited inheritance
Q4) Many of the color varieties of summer squash are determined by several interacting loci:
AA or Aa gives white,aaBB or aaBb gives yellow,and aabb produces green.Crosses among heterozygotes give a 12:3:1 ratio.What type of gene interaction would account for these results?
Q5) Pattern baldness is determined by a single autosomal gene pair.When females are homozygous for this gene pair,can they show pattern baldness?
Q6) Name three modes of inheritance that are influenced by the sex of individuals.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Chromosome Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Assume that a cross is made between AaBb and aabb plants and that the offspring occur in the following numbers: 106 AaBb,48 Aabb,52 aaBb,94 aabb.These results are consistent with the following circumstance:
A) sex-linked inheritance with 30% crossing over.
B) linkage with 50% crossing over.
C) linkage with approximately 33 map units between the two gene loci.
D) independent assortment.
E) 100% recombination.
Q2) If interference is complete,what would be the frequency of double crossovers?
Q3) Diagram chromosomal events that will ultimately result in the segregation of alleles (A and a)during meiosis II rather than meiosis I.
Q4) The cross GE/ge × ge/ge produces the following progeny: GE/ge 404; ge/ge 396; gE/ge 97; Ge/ge 103.From these data one can conclude that there are 20 map units between the G and E loci.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What advantage does BrdU (bromodeoxyuridine)have in the study of chromosome structure and recombination?
Q6) What are two commonly used DNA landmarks for mapping human genes?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Genetic Analysis and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Q1) Lysogeny is a process that occurs during transformation and conjugation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a significant difference between a lytic and a lysogenic cycle?
Q3) Present the general structural features of a plasmid and give an example.
Q4) What is the consequence of a mutation in the recA gene in bacteria?
Q5) Name the typical phases of the bacterial growth cycle in liquid culture medium.
Q6) When a bacteriophage genome incorporates itself into the chromosome of the host,that phage genome is referred to as a(n)________.
Q7) Lysogeny is an important phenomenon in bacteria and phages.Briefly describe lysogeny (using labeled diagrams if helpful).
Q8) Explain what is meant by the term heteroduplex in the context of bacterial transformation.
Q9) The "interrupted mating technique" provides a genetic map in Drosophila.
A)True B)False
Page 8
Q10) What is meant by the term cotransformation?
Q11) Describe how different strains of E.coli can reveal different linkage arrangements of genes in Hfr crosses.
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Chapter 7: Sex Determination and Sex Chromosomes
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Q1) Individuals have been identified who have two different karyotypes,such as 45,X/46,XY or 45,X/46,XX.Such individuals are called ________.
Q2) Data produced by C.Bridges in the early part of this century indicate that sex in Drosophila is determined by ________.
Q3) Give the sex-chromosome constitution (X and Y chromosomes)and possible genotypes of offspring resulting from a cross between a white-eyed female (X X Y)and a wild-type male (normal chromosome complement)in Drosophila melanogaster.Include all zygotic combinations whether viable or inviable.
Q4) What can cause phenotypic mosaicism for X-linked genes in female mammals?
Q5) For an individual with the XXY chromosomal composition,the expected number of Barr bodies in interphase cells is ________.
A) variable
B) one
C) two
D) three
E) zero
Q6) Describe three distinct genetic regions of the human Y chromosome.
Q7) Under what condition might a human female have the XY sex chromosome complement?
Page 10
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Chapter 8: Chromosome Mutations: Variation in Number and Arrangement
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Q1) Translocations may be pericentric or paracentric.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The chromosomal aberration that causes cri du chat syndrome can be referred to as a segmental deletion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Familial Down syndrome is caused by a translocation involving chromosome 21. A)True
B)False
Q4) Individuals with familial Down syndrome are trisomic and have 47 chromosomes. A)True
B)False
Q5) An individual with Patau syndrome would be called a triploid.
A)True B)False
Q6) Inversions and translocations are without evolutionary significance. A)True B)False
Q7) What is meant by the terms acentric and dicentric? Page 11
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Chapter 9: Extranuclear Inheritance
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Q1) It is safe to say that a maternal effect is caused by the genotype,not the phenotype,of the parent producing the egg.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the molecular and transmission characteristics of Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON).
Q3) The inheritance of the petite phenotype in yeast is complicated by an interaction of mitochondrial and nuclear genes.What are these complications? Which three categories of petites are commonly described?
Q4) It appears as if the direction of shell coiling in Lymnaea peregra is influenced by the orientation of the first cleavage division.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An example of organelle heredity involves pigmentation in Mirabilis jalapa.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name two human disorders that appear to be transmitted extrachromosomally.
Q7) List two classes of extrachromosomal inheritance and give an example of each.
Q8) List three organisms that provide examples of organelle heredity.
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Chapter 10: DNA Structure and Analysis
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Q1) What is the difference between a polynucleotide and an oligonucleotide?
Q2) G and C are present in both DNA and RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When and in which journal did Watson and Crick publish their now-famous paper entitled "Molecular Structure of Nucleic Acids: A Structure for Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid."
Q4) Describe four major functions of DNA in a cell.
Q5) In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of double-stranded DNA to see which bases are equivalent in concentration,which of the following would be true?
A) A = C
B) A = G and C = T
C) A + C = G + T
D) A + T = G + C
E) A = G and C = T and A + C = G + T are both true.
Q6) Deoxyribonuclease is an enzyme that adds 3 -hydroxyl groups to RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q7) At what approximate wavelengths do DNA,RNA,and proteins maximally absorb light?
Page 14
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Chapter 11: DNA Replication and Recombination
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Q1) Which terms accurately reflect the nature of replication of the chromosome in E.coli?
A) bidirectional and fixed point of initiation
B) unidirectional and reciprocal
C) unidirectional and fixed point of initiation
D) multirepliconic and telomeric
E) bidirectional and multirepliconic
Q2) During DNA replication,what is the function of RNA primase?
Q3) G-quartets are G-rich single-stranded tails that loop back on themselves forming G-G double stranded sections.Such looping is involved in aligning chromosomes for homologous recombination.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Each of the following terms refers to the replication of chromosomes.Describe the role (relationship)of each in (to)chromosome replication.
(a)Okazaki fragment
(b)Lagging strand
(c)Bidirectional
Q5) Compare the rate of DNA replication in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
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Chapter 12: DNA Organization in Chromosomes
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Q1) List the components of a nucleosome.
Q2) What are histones,and how are they arranged in nucleosomes?
Q3) In contrast with euchromatin,heterochromatin contains more genes and is earlier replicating.
A)True
B)False
Q4) That some organisms contain much larger amounts of DNA than are apparently "needed" and that some relatively closely related organisms may have vastly different amounts of DNA is more typical in ________.
A) viruses than in bacteria
B) RNA viruses than in DNA viruses
C) eukaryotes than in prokaryotes
D) the alphoid rather than the diploid family
E) prokaryotes than in eukaryotes
Q5) In the formation of nucleosomes,one histone class,H1,is not directly involved,yet it does associate with DNA to form higher level chromosomal structures.Where does this histone (H1)associate?
Q6) Approximately how much of the mammalian genome is composed of repetitive DNA?
Q7) What are minisatellites and microsatellites?
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Chapter 13: The Genetic Code and Transcription
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Q1) The finding that virtually all organisms use the same genetic code provides the basis for declaring that the code is universal.Name at least two exceptions to such universality.
Q2) An intron is a section of ________.
A) protein that is clipped out posttranslationally B) RNA that is removed during RNA processing C) DNA that is removed during DNA processing D) transfer RNA that binds to the anticodon E) carbohydrate that serves as a signal for RNA transport
Q3) List four base triplets that are clearly responsible for punctuation (initiation,termination).
Q4) Suppose that in the use of polynucleotide phosphorylase,nucleotides A and C are added in a ratio of 1A:5C.What is the probability that an AAA sequence will occur?
Q5) A base at the first position of an anticodon on the tRNA would pair with a base at the ________ position of the mRNA.
Q6) From the late 1950s to the mid-1960s,numerous experiments using in vitro cell-free systems provided information on the nature of the genetic code.Briefly outline significant experiments in the determination of the genetic code.
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Page 17
Chapter 14: Translation and Proteins
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Q1) The chain of adult hemoglobin is composed of 146 amino acids of a known sequence.In comparing the normal chain with the chain in sickle cell hemoglobin,what alteration is one likely to find?
A) valine instead of glutamic acid in the sixth position
B) glutamic acid replacing valine in the first position
C) extensive amino acid substitutions
D) trinucleotide repeats
E) frameshift substitutions
Q2) Draw and label the spatial and polarity relationships among the following translational components: ribosome (small and large subunits),growing polypeptide chains,amino acid attachment to tRNA,mRNA,codon,and anticodon.
Q3) Side groups of amino acids are typically classified under which of the following?
A) polar, nonpolar
B) linear, circular
C) alpha, omega
D) long, short
E) primary, secondary
Q4) What is the general ethnic distribution of the sickle-cell gene?
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Page 18
Chapter 15: Gene Mutation,dna Repair,and Transposition
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Q1) Nutritional mutations can be defined as ________.
A) those mutations that do not allow a bacterium or fungus to grow on minimal medium but do allow growth on complete medium
B) those mutations that change the composition of the medium
C) those mutations belonging to the group called prototrophs
D) those mutations caused by site-specific mutagenesis
E) all strains that are not auxotrophic
Q2) Which of the following name two mutagens that would be classified as base analogs?
A) acridine orange and proflavine
B) ethylmethane sulfonate and ethylmethylketone peroxide
C) ultraviolet light and cosmic radiation
D) 5-bromouracil and 2-amino purine
E) hydroxyurea and peroxidase
Q3) Some mutagens cause genetic changes that can be "corrected" by reexposing cells to the same mutagen.Other mutagens do not behave in this way.Provide one example of each of these two types of agents and describe the mutational changes caused in DNA.Explain why some mutagens behave in one way,while others do not.
Q4) List five general categories of mutation.
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Chapter 16: Regulation of Gene Expression in Prokaryotes
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Q1) Present an overview of prokaryotic regulation in terms of growth efficiency.
Q2) In the lac operon,the product of structural gene lacZ is capable of ________.
A) nonautonomous replication
B) forming lactose from two glucose molecules
C) replacing hexokinase in the early steps of glycolysis
D) splitting the -linkage of lactose
E) forming ATP from pyruvate
Q3) Within the control region of the trp operon is a section of DNA that is sensitive to levels of tryptophan in the system.What is the name of this region?
Q4) Regarding the lactose utilization system in E.coli,a constitutive mutant is one in which the three enzymes are produced regardless of the presence or absence of lactose.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the function of the lacY gene in the lac operon?
Q6) Under a system of negative control,genetic expression occurs unless such expression is shut off by some form of regulator.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 17: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Considering the location of genes in the interphase nucleus,certain chromosomal territories appear to exist.Specifically,________.
A) each chromosome appears to occupy a discrete domain
B) gene-poor regions of chromosomes are located outside the nucleus, whereas gene-rich
C) regions are located inside the nucleus
D) even-numbered chromosomes are located in the interior of the nucleus, whereas odd-numbered chromosomes are located peripherally
E) large chromosomes are more likely to be located in the center of the nucleus F) small chromosomes are more likely to be located in the center of the nucleus
Q2) In what way is gene rearrangement related to gene regulation? Give an example.
Q3) The term spliceopathy would be a reasonable term to signify a genetic condition caused by a defect in the regulation of RNA splicing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe three characteristics of enhancers and silencers.
Q5) In what ways are eukaryotic transcription factors thought to function?
Q6) In what way can 5 -azacytidine influence transcription?
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Chapter 18: Developmental Genetics
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Q1) Drosophila and Arabidopsis use different sets of nonhomologous master regulatory genes to establish the body axis and specify the identity of structures along such an axis. A)True B)False
Q2) Provide a brief description of segment polarity genes,including their regulation and their molecular and developmental effects.
Q3) It is often said that development is a two-step process.What two steps are likely to be referred to here?
Q4) Determination is the process whereby a cell's eventual developmental fate is set. A)True
B)False
Q5) Do Hox gene clusters exist in humans? If so,how many are known to exist?
Q6) The bicoid gene of Drosophila generates embryos with two posterior regions.What is the likely aspect of embryonic development that the bicoid gene probably controls?
Q7) A gene that specifies the fate of a particular anatomical segment in Drosophila is called a(n)________.
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Page 22
Chapter 19: Cancer and Regulation of the Cell Cycle
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Q1) Provide a simple definition of a carcinogen.
Q2) Describe the general relationship that may exist between mutations and cancer.
Q3) What are two properties that various types of cancer cells share?
Q4) Much has been written about p53 in terms of cancer biology.What is p53,and what is its significance?
Q5) A retrovirus uses reverse transcriptase to make a DNA copy of RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Mutant versions of genes that are normally involved in promoting the cell cycle are known as ________.
A) tumor suppressors
B) proto-oncogenes
C) oncogenes
D) malignant genes
E) attenuators
Q7) There are several checkpoints in the mitotic cell cycle.All occur in the S phase.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Describe the molecular nature of mutation,as related to cancer,in a ras gene.
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Chapter 20: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) Following are four processes common to most cloning experiments:
a) transforming bacteria
b) plating bacteria on selective medium
c) cutting DNA with restriction endonucleases
d) ligating DNA fragments
Place components of this list in the order in which they would most likely occur during a cloning experiment.
Q2) In the context of molecular genetics,reverse transcription PCR (RT-PCR)refers to
A) assembling a DNA sequence from an mRNA
B) assembling an RNA sequence from a DNA sequence
C) translating in the 3 to 5 direction
D) transcribing first, then translating
E) making an amino acid sequence from a DNA sequence
Q3) What is the name of the process by which bacterial colonies (cells)are transferred from one agar plate to another,maintaining the same spatial pattern?
Q4) A restriction map provides the location of sites cleaved by restriction enzymes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Genomics, bioinformatics, and Proteomics
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Q1) The term paralog is often used in conjunction with discussions of hemoglobin genes.What does this term mean,and how does it apply to hemoglobin genes?
Q2) The dog (Canis familiaris)genome has recently been sequenced.About how many of the dog's genes are shared with humans?
Q3) A number of generalizations can be made about the organization of protein-coding genes in bacterial chromosomes.First,the gene density is very high,averaging about
Q4) The Human Genome Project,which got under way in 1990,is an international effort to
A) determine the base sequence of the human genome and to identify all the genes within
B) collect samples of cells from all parts of the world in order to preserve human genetic diversity
C) collect plant seeds in order to reduce the impact of human activity on plant extinction
D) clone deleterious genes from humans and study their mode of action
E) clone beneficial genes from humans for eventual use in gene therapy
Q5) What is meant by the term pseudogene?
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Chapter 22: Applications and Ethics of Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology
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Q1) What method have farmers used for millennia to enhance food production in plants and animals?
Q2) Briefly describe what is meant by the term edible vaccine.
Q3) Prenatal detection of human diseases has been greatly enhanced by two procedures.Name and briefly describe each.
Q4) Many instances involving genetically modified organisms,especially food crops,will be entering the human food chain in the years to come.On what basis are genetically modified foods considered safe to eat?
A) They are only slightly toxic.
B) All products to be cleared for human consumption have been personally tested by all members of the regulatory agency.
C) Because of the possible economic impact of rigorous testing, such food products are minimally tested in sheep and cattle.
D) Each genetically modified food product is screened for its resistance to antibiotics.
E) Genetically modified food products are considered safe if they are found not toxic or allergenic or have other negative physiological effects.
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Chapter 23: Quantitative Genetics and Multifactorial Traits
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Q1) Define the term broad-sense heritability (H² .What is implied by a relatively high value of H²? Express aspects of broad-sense heritability in equation form
Q2) Traits such as height,general body structure,skin color,and some behavioral traits are probably caused primarily by genes that behave codominantly or epistatically.
A)True B)False
Q3) In the early part of the twentieth century,Nilsson-Ehle and others described experiments showing that multiple loci may be involved in the inheritance of certain traits.Such patterns are often called ________.
Q4) Interpret the meaning of an H² (broad-sense heritability)value that approaches 0.0.
Q5) Polygenes are involved in determining continuously varying or multiple-factor traits. A)True B)False
Q6) Given the following numbers,calculate the mean: 10,12,14,16,18.
Q7) Interpret the meaning of an H² (broad-sense heritability)value that approaches 1.0.
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Chapter 24: Neurogenetics
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Q1) Drosophila can learn and remember.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a major problem that arises in the study of the genetic basis of human behavior?
A) Memories of individuals are unreliable.
B) People are too short lived.
C) Behaviors are difficult to define objectively.
D) The environment plays no role in behavioral expression.
E) The environment is the only factor that determines human behavior.
Q3) One of the oldest recorded behavior mutants is the waltzer mutation in the mouse.Mutant mice can be observed "dancing" and "head shaking"; some are also deaf.Mice must be homozygous for a mutation to express the trait.Based on this information,the genetic cause of this trait is most likely a(n)________.
A) simple recessive pattern of inheritance
B) multifactor, polygenic pattern of inheritance
C) dominant/recessive pattern typical of other behavioral traits
D) epistatic pattern with incomplete dominance
E) variable gene activity pattern with overdominance causing deafness
Q4) Briefly describe the mutant status of the HD gene.
Page 28
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Chapter 25: Population and Evolutionary Genetics
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Q1) In a population that meets the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium assumptions,81% of the individuals are homozygous for a recessive allele.What percentage of the individuals would be expected to be heterozygous for this locus in the next generation?
Q2) What term is given to the total genetic information carried by all members of a population?
A) gene pool
B) genome
C) chromosome complement
D) breeding unit
E) race
Q3) In the case of complete dominance in a population in equilibrium,we cannot tell which individuals are homozygous dominants and which are heterozygous,but by knowing the frequency of the homozygous recessives,we can estimate the frequency of homozygous dominant and heterozygous genotypes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In directional selection,both phenotypic extremes are equally selected against.
A)True
B)False
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