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Plant Biology for Non-Majors offers a comprehensive introduction to the fundamental concepts of plant science tailored for students from a variety of academic backgrounds. The course explores the structure, function, growth, reproduction, and diversity of plants, emphasizing their significance in ecosystems and human life. Through engaging lectures and hands-on activities, students will gain an understanding of how plants interact with their environment, adapt to challenges, and contribute to global processes such as food production, climate regulation, and biodiversity. The course highlights the practical applications of plant biology in everyday life, agriculture, and environmental sustainability, empowering non-majors to appreciate the essential role of plants in shaping the world.
Recommended Textbook
Plants and Society 7th Edition by Estelle Levetin
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Q1) Which of the following is the best definition of a scientific theory?
A)an explanation based on solid scientific evidence
B)an educated guess
C)a tentative explanation for an observed phenomenon
D)an observation observed so many times it is considered a fact
E)an undeniable truth supported by scientific evidence
Answer: A
Q2) The part of the Osage orange that was biologically mimicked to "tame the West" was its
A)"hedge apples"
B)shaggy bark
C)bright orange wood
D)thorny branches
E)repellant chemicals
Answer: D
Q3) An angiosperm fruit develops from the flower part called the carpel.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Most specifically,ribosomes are produced in the A)chloroplasts.
B)nucleus.
C)nucleoli.
D)central vacuole.
E)rough endoplasmic reticula.
Answer: C
Q2) Regulating metabolism and controlling cellular reproduction by destruction of proteins is accomplished by A)peroxisomes
B)proteasomes
C)glyoxysomes
D)chromosomes
Answer: B
Q3) The free movement of water across a membrane is called A)active transport.
B)simple diffusion.
C)plasmolysis.
D)osmosis.
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following tissues results from secondary growth?
A)periderm
B)collenchyma
C)epidermis
D)sclerenchyma
Answer: A
Q2) To what cells are companion cells companions?
A)sieve tube members
B)tracheids
C)vessel elements
D)epidermal cells
E)more than one of these
Answer: A
Q3) Most photosynthesis takes place in the _______ of a typical leaf.
A)spongy mesophyll
B)epidermis
C)palisade mesophyll
D)vascular bundles
E)guard cells
Answer: C
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Q1) During the Calvin cycle,_______ and _______ supply energy for the fixation and reduction of carbon dioxide.
A)ATP - NADPH
B)O<sub>2</sub> - CO<sub>2</sub>
C)ATP - O<sub>2</sub>
D)H<sub>2</sub>O - NADPH
E)H<sub>2</sub>O - O<sub>2</sub>
Q2) The loss of water vapor from a leaf is known as translocation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The evaporation of water at stomatal surfaces creates a(n)________ that pulls the water through the plant.
A)tension
B)osmotic pull
C)vacuum
D)evaporative pull
Q4) NADH oxidized ___________________________________________
Q5) CO<sub>2</sub>given off
Q6) ATP used ________________________________________________
Q7) ATP used _____________
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Q1) Which of the following is not a part of the ovule?
A)polar nuclei
B)synergids
C)extine
D)antipodals
Q2) A unisexual flower lacking carpels would be called _____.
Q3) The nutritive value of rice,wheat,and corn grains is in the A)endosperm.
B)seed coat.
C)embryo.
D)cotyledons.
Q4) The highly resistant outer pollen wall called the _____ allows the pollen grain to be identified in geological sediments.
Q5) The _______ of a flower produce eggs while the _______ of the flower produce sperm.
A)ovary - anther
B)style - filament
C)stigma - anther
D)style - stigma
E)anther - ovary
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Q1) Malus pumila is the scientific name of A)apple
B)chestnut
C)orange
D)tomato
E)grapefruit
Q2) The ____________ is a protective covering around the epicotyl of a monocot seedling.
Q3) The first citrus fruit known to Western civilization was the A)sweet orange
B)grapefruit
C)lime
D)citron
E)lemon
Q4) A strawberry is A)a berry
B)a pome
C)an aggregate fruit
D)an achene
E)more than one of these fruit types

Page 8
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Sample Questions
Q1) Portions of the mRNA molecule that are removed before translation are known as _______.
Q2) Transcription leads to the production of _______ whereas translation leads to
A)tRNA - polypeptides
B)polypeptides - mRNA
C)mRNA - polypeptides
D)mRNA - tRNA
E)rRNA - polypeptides
Q3) A cross between two F1 pink dahlia yields plants with 9 varieties of flower color.This is an example of
A)complete dominance.
B)incomplete dominance.
C)co-dominance.
D)polygenic inheritance.
E)linkagE.
Q4) SNPs are locations in human DNA in which a single nucleotide base differs among individuals.
A)True
B)False

Page 9
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Q1) __________ published On the Origin of Species in 1859 in which he presented his theory of evolution by means of natural selection.
Q2) What was Darwin's "job" aboard the HMS Beagle?
A)naturalist
B)surveyor
C)cook
D)companion to the captain
Q3) The goal of PhyloCode is to offer an alternative to A)the Linnaean nomenclature system
B)Darwin's theory of natural selection
C)genetic engineering
D)artificial selection
Q4) The difference in a barcode gene's nucleotide sequence in greater ______ species than _______ a species.
Q5) The naturalist who discovered a theory of evolution very similar to Darwin's was A)Alfred Russel Wallace
B)John Henslow
C)Carolus Linnaeus
D)George Clifford
Q6) __________ is the evolutionary relationships among organisms.
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Q1) Plants evolved from freshwater
A)green algae
B)brown algae
C)red algae
D)liverworts
Q2) A plant in its life cycle has the following structures: microsporangia and megasporangia,pollen cones,archegonia,and seeds.This plant is a A)fern
B)moss
C)pine
D)dicot
E)monocot
Q3) A plant in its life cycle has the following structures: separate male and female gametophytes,archegonia and antheridia,protenema,and sporangia.This plant is a A)fern
B)moss
C)pine
D)dicot
E)monocot
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Q1) Which of the following is associated with obesity?
A)type 2 diabetes
B)hypertension
C)asthma
D)osteoarthritis
E)all of these are associated with obesity
Q2) The most common disaccharide is
A)lactose
B)maltose
C)glucose
D)sucrose
Q3) Marasmus is a nutritional disease that results when the caloric but not the protein needs are met.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fats that have only single bonds between the carbon atoms are called _______ fats.
Q5) _____ _____ on a food label indicate the percentage of a nutrient which is provided by a single serving of a food based on a 2000 Calorie diet.
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Q1) The ____________ is a site that has yielded the oldest agricultural evidence to date.
Q2) Archaeological evidence indicates that in Jarmo in northeastern Iraq,domestication of wheat and barley took place before ______ thousand years ago.
A)9
B)12
C)15
D)18
E)21
Q3) The Tehuacan Valley is an early site of agriculture in:
A)Iran
B)Iraq
C)Mexico
D)Peru
Q4) In the Near East our first cultivated plants were:
A)corn and beans
B)corn and wheat
C)wheat and barley
D)potatoes and wheat
Q5) _______ is believed to be the first major food crop to have been domesticated.
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Q1) Grasses are
A)eudicots
B)monocots
C)paleodicots
D)lycopods
E)gymnosperms
Q2) Most corn grown in the United States is used for
A)flour and cooking oil.
B)biofuel.
C)making liquor and beer.
D)popcorn and directly eating as corn-on-the-cob.
E)animal food.
Q3) Polyploidy has had a significant impact on the evolution of modern:
A)corn
B)rice
C)wheat
D)potato
E)soybeans
Q4) _______ is a tetraploid wheat species that produces a hard starch ideal for making pasta and semolina flour.
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Q1) Which of the following types of oil can form a thin waterproof,elastic film?
A)drying
B)semidrying
C)nondrying
D)all of these types of oil can form a thin waterproof,elastic film
Q2) This legume is native to India,can tolerate drought conditions and has been cultivated for over 3000 years.This legume is
A)Vicia fabA.
B)Pisum sativum.
C)Phaseolus vulgaris.
D)Cajanus cajan.
E)Arachis hypogea.
Q3) The most unsaturated oils have the slowest drying time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _______ _______ is a popular American food made from grinding up the seeds of a legume,and was originally invented as a health food.
Q5) _______ are legumes which have a higher protein content than lean beef.
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Q1) _______ is a a tuberous root native to South America.
Q2) Which of the following is not one of the major potato producing states in the United States?
A)Maine
B)California
C)Washington
D)Idaho
Q3) _______ is the major component of starch comprising about ______ percent of this molecule.
Q4) Cassava comes in two forms: bitter and sweet.The sweet form contains high concentrations of hydrocyanide acid
A)True
B)False
Q5) The potato was initially rejected as food in Europe because it was thought to be A)poisonous.
B)hallucinogenic.
C)a cause of leprosy.
D)a cause of rickets.
E)all of thesE.
Q6) The starchy staple which grows as a corm is _______.
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Q1) Seeds of domesticated plants and their wild relatives are deposited as a resource for plant breeders in germplasm.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What process results in soils becoming saline?
A)the use of salt producing plants
B)the underuse of fertilizers
C)global warming
D)the evaporation of water
E)monocropping
Q3) Which of the following would be a strategy to stop genetic erosion?
A)collect seeds of traditional varieties for storage in a seed bank
B)introduce monoculture to maximize agricultural efficiency
C)introduction of industrialized agricultural techniques
D)limit agriculture to the cultivation of major domesticated crops
Q4) The introduction of Bacillus thuringiensis genes into crop plants transfers the trait of ________ resistance.
Q5) Genetically engineered rapeseed plants have been developed that can produce lauric acid,a fatty acid used in the manufacturing of _________.
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Q1) The relaxing effects of tea are due to the compound,
A)theophylline.
B)theol.
C)theanine.
D)tannin.
E)theobrominE.
Q2) For what purpose do plants produce alkaloids?
A)to discourage animals from eating their unripened fruit
B)to prevent frost damage by hardening their cells
C)to prevent insect damage
D)to attract pollinators
E)to stimulate root growth
Q3) Environmentally and ecologically,sun grown coffee trees are preferred over shade grown coffee trees.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A cherry is another name for a cacao pod.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The pungent odor of garlic is due to the release of the compound,allicin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most essential oils are classified chemically as
A)polyphenols.
B)terpenes.
C)flavonoids.
D)alkaloids.
E)tannins.
Q3) ______________ are volatile substances that contribute to the scent and flavor of aromatic plants.
Q4) Isothiocyanates found in _______ may help prevent tooth decay and alleviate the symptoms of asthma.
A)garlic
B)peppermint
C)lavender
D)oregano
E)wasabi
Q5) __________ are actually the dried unopened flower buds of a myrtle tree.
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Q6) _______ is a compound extracted from an orchid fruit.
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Q1) The tree with the densest wood is
A)Ochroma pyramidale
B)Swietenia mahagoni
C)Guaiacum officinale
D)Pseudotsuga menziesii
E)Quercus alba
Q2) Modern paper is mostly a mat of:
A)phloem cells
B)xylem cells
C)pith cells
D)bark cells
E)parenchyma cells
Q3) Which of the following is often used for furniture veneers?
A)yellow pine
B)Douglas fir
C)red oak
D)mahogany
E)all of these
Q4) Arundo donax is best known as the source of ______ used in woodwind instruments.
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Q5) _______ and Douglas-fir are generally used for plywood.
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Q1) All alkaloids contain nitrogen,have a basic pH and a ______ taste.
Q2) Which of the following compounds suppresses the activity of prostaglandins?
A)quinine
B)reserpine
C)acetylsalicylic acid
D)saponins
E)vincristine
Q3) Which of the following is an example of the Doctrine of Signatures?
A)a cure for watery,runny eyes is an eyewash made from onion
B)a hyper-diluted solution of snake venom can treat the effects of a snake bite
C)liverworts,which look like human livers,can treat psoriasis of the liver
D)to diagnose an illness,examine the liver of a sacrificed sheep
E)to heal a wound from a sword,apply a poultice to the sword that made the wound
Q4) Digitoxin has uses both as a treatment for glaucoma and as an antidote to the side effects of chemotherapy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A text of plant descriptions,medical uses,and collection methods is known as a(n)____.
Page 21
Q6) Alkaloids generally affect physiology by acting on the _____ system.
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Q1) Which part of Cannabis has the highest concentration of the hallucinogen THC?
A)lower leaves
B)female flowers
C)resin
D)seeds
Q2) Which of the following is an adverse effect of cocaine use?
A)addiction
B)psychosis
C)damage to nasal cartilage
D)sudden death
E)all of these are adverse effects of cocaine use
Q3) Which of the following hallucinogenic plants is a cactus?
A)morning glory
B)peyote
C)nutmeg
D)marijuana
Q4) Tolerance means requiring ever-increasing amounts of a drug to obtain stronger affects.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following antibodies is involved in the allergic reaction?
A)IgA
B)IgD
C)IgE
D)IgG
E)IgM
Q2) Which of the following compounds is responsible for the symptoms of an allergic response?
A)histamine
B)usnic acid
C)cytisine
D)glutamine
E)more than one of these compounds is responsible for the symptoms of an allergic response
Q3) Medications that can control the symptoms of respiratory allergies are called antihistamines.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ is an arrow poison that has found to have medical value as a muscle relaxant during surgery.
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Q1) All of the following are genera being studied for the purpose of biofuel production except one.Choose the exception.
A)Ulva
B)Chlamydomonas
C)Chlorella
D)Anabaena
E)Dunaliella
Q2) From which of the following did land plants evolve?
A)Rhodophytes
B)Dinophytes
C)Chlorophytes
D)Phaeophytes
E)Euglenophytes
Q3) The unicellular algae that cause "red tides" belong to the Division:
A)Rhodophyta
B)Bacillariophyta
C)Chlorophyta
D)Dinophyta
E)Phaeophyta
Q4) Diatoms with bilateral symmetry are known as _______ diatoms.
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Q1) What are facultative parasites?
A)saprobes that can become parasitic
B)two or more parasites that work together
C)parasites that can't exist without their host
D)parasites that are exclusively intracellular
Q2) What is the primary characteristic of yeast?
A)They reproduce by budding.
B)They have nonseptate hyphae.
C)Their cells are dikaryotiC.
D)All of these are primary characteristics of yeast.
Q3) Asexual reproduction in yeast is generally carried out through ________.
Q4) Specialized asexual lichen propagules that consist of small groups of algal cells with interwoven hyphae are called _____.
Q5) Brown rot fungi decompose _______ but leave the ________ unchanged.
Q6) What characteristic do chytridiomycetes share with land plants?
A)cellulose cell walls
B)flagellated sperm
C)an alternation of generations
D)true roots
E)chytridiomycetes share all of these characteristics with land plants
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Q1) The resulting mix of skins,seeds,and juice when grapes are crushed is called the
Q2) What is the purpose of adding sulfur dioxide during wine grape fermentation?
A)removal of oxygen
B)inhibition of unwanted microorganisms
C)prevention of wine turning into vinegar
D)all of these are correct
Q3) Louis Pasteur,a noted French microbiologist of the 19<sup>th</sup> century,is credited with developing several standard steps in the champagne making process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An unaged distilled spirit which is flavored by steeping for several weeks in juniper "berries" for flavor is:
A)vodka
B)brandy
C)rye
D)gin
Q5) The enzyme in the liver that degrades alcohol to carbon dioxide and water is known as ________ _______.
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Q1) Tinea pedis is better known as ________.
Q2) How does penicillin affect bacteria?
A)it binds to and immobilizes bacterial tRNA
B)it blocks the formation of bacterial cell walls
C)it interferes with the storage of glucose
D)it pokes holes in the bacterial plasma membrane
Q3) LSD is associated with ergot of rye.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The following pairs are matched correctly except one.Choose the exception.
A)tetracycline - bactericidal and fungicidal
B)penicillin - bactericidal
C)griseofulvum - fungicidal
D)cephalosporin - fungicidal
E)echinocandin - fungicidal
Q5) Griseofulvin is an antibiotic that is used to treat _______ diseases.
Q6) The partial veil is a membrane that covers the ______ during mushroom development.
Q7) ______ was first isolated from contaminated animal feed that caused Turkey X Disease.
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Q1) The growth of vegetation after a forest fire is an example of:
A)competitive exclusion
B)secondary succession
C)biological magnification
D)primary succession
Q2) A biome characterized by permafrost is the A)tundrA.
B)chaparral.
C)boreal forest.
D)desert.
E)tropical rain forest.
Q3) Which of the following is true about the United States and the reduction of greenhouse gas emissions?
A)The US was one of the first signers of the Kyoto Protocol.
B)The US met its target to reduce greenhouse gas emissions by 7% in 2012.
C)The US Senate in 2003 approved a bill to curb emissions of CO2 and other greenhouse gases.
D)The US leads the world in its commitment to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to slow global warming.
E)None of these statements is truE.
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