Planetary Geology
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Planetary Geology explores the geological processes and features of bodies within our solar system and beyond, including planets, moons, asteroids, and comets. This course examines the origin, evolution, and comparative geology of planetary surfaces, emphasizing the role of impact cratering, volcanism, tectonics, erosion, and sedimentation. Through the analysis of remote sensing data and imagery from space missions, students learn to interpret surface processes, internal structures, and the history of planetary bodies. The course also covers planetary materials, the influence of atmospheres and hydrospheres, and current theories regarding planetary formation and habitability.
Recommended Textbook
EARTH 1st Edition by Graham R. Thompson
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Chapter 1: Earth Systems
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Q1) The Earth's population (in mid-2009) was about __________ people.
A) 2.3 billion
B) 4.5 billion
C) 6.7 billion
D) 8.2 billion
Answer: C
Q2) The Earth's core is composed of hot, partially molten granite.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) At its center, Earth's temperature is about __________.
Answer: 6000°C
Q4) All of Earth's spheres continuously exchange matter and energy. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) The Earth is about 460 million years old. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Minerals
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Q1) Feldspar makes up:
A) about 50 percent of the Earth's crust.
B) 10 percent of the Earth's crust.
C) about 35 percent of the Earth's crust.
D) 0.05 percent of the Earth's crust.
Answer: A
Q2) __________ is the color of a fine powder of a mineral. Answer: Streak
Q3) A substance in which atoms are arranged without a regular, orderly, periodically repeated pattern is called a crystal.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A/an __________ __________ is a planar surface that develops if a crystal grows freely without obstructions.
Answer: crystal face
Q5) Ninety-two percent of the Earth's crust is composed of __________ minerals. Answer: silicate
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Chapter 3: Rocks
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hydrothermal solutions scavenge and concentrate metals from crustal rock.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Sandstone, siltstone, and shale are __________ rocks.
A) clastic sedimentary
B) organic sedimentary
C) chemical sedimentary
D) metamorphic
Answer: A
Q3) __________ __________ is the older igneous and metamorphic rock underlying sedimentary rock.
Answer: Basement rock
Q4) Weathering and erosion near the Earth's surface create the materials for __________ rocks.
A) magmatic
B) metamorphic
C) igneous
D) sedimentary
Answer: D
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Geologic Time: a Story in the Rocks
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Q1) Volcanic eruptions can influence the climate both by cooling as well as by warming the atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The fact that sedimentary rocks usually become younger from bottom to top is the principle of __________.
Q3) During a __________ __________, many life-forms on Earth die out suddenly.
Q4) Layers of sedimentary rock are __________ if they were deposited without detectable interruption.
A) conformable
B) disconformable
C) unconformable
D) nonconformable
Q5) The half-life of a radioactive isotope is:
A) the time it takes for half the atoms of the radioactive isotope in one sample to decay. B) half of one radioactive atom.
C) the time it takes for all atoms of the radioactive isotope in one sample to decay.
D) the electron of one radioactive atom.
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Chapter 5: Geologic Resources
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Q1) Oil or natural gas originate from the:
A) source rock.
B) reservoir rock.
C) cap rock.
D) gas rock.
Q2) __________ __________ are the known amount of ore in the ground.
Q3) Bauxite is an example of a residual ore deposit.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A solar cell produces electricity directly from sunlight.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Low-grade hydrothermal deposits throughout a rock body are called __________ __________ deposits.
Q6) A/an __________ __________ deposit forms when dissolved metals precipitate in a fracture in rock.
Q7) Petroleum, coal, and natural gas are called __________ __________because they formed from the remains of plants and animals that lived in the geologic past.
Q8) __________ __________ contain an oil-like substance called bitumen.
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Chapter 6: The Active Earth: Plate Tectonics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mantle makes up about __________ percent of the Earth's volume.
A) 8
B) 80
C) 20
D) 0.8
Q2) According to the supercontinent model:
A) at some future time, all continents will join together in a single supercontinent, and plate tectonics activity will cease.
B) continental fragments have migrated around the globe and then reassembled as a supercontinent at least three times in Earth history.
C) the breakup of a future supercontinent will lead to the destruction of all continental crust in subduction zones.
D) all the geologic provinces in a supercontinent have the same radiometric age.
Q3) Supercontinents may assemble, split apart, and reassemble every 5,000 to 7,000 years.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The __________ is the Earth's thinnest layer.
Q5) Alfred Wegener named his supercontinent __________.
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Chapter 7: Earthquakes and the Earths Structure
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Q1) P waves and S waves:
A) move along the Earth's surface only.
B) travel through Earth's interior.
C) do not reflect and refract at boundaries.
D) have very high amplitudes compared to surface waves.
Q2) A seismogram records Earth vibrations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Earthquakes occur primarily along plate boundaries because:
A) igneous activity produces all earthquakes.
B) the crust is plastic and flows easily.
C) rock fractures at moving plate boundaries releasing energy.
D) tidal forces are concentrated here.
Q4) Earthquakes occur repeatedly along established faults because:
A) they are over a spreading center.
B) when tectonic stress builds, the rock is more likely to move along the fault than to crack again and create a new fault.
C) they are occurring slowly and continuously at a subduction zone.
D) they occur at plate interiors.
Q5) Surface waves radiate from the __________ along the Earth's surface.
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Chapter 8: Volcanoes and Plutons
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most catastrophic volcanic explosions occur when __________ reaches the Earth's surface.
A) flood basalt magma
B) granitic magma
C) basaltic magma
D) aa magma
Q2) The magma of andesite and diorite contains __________ silica than granite.
Q3) Shield volcanoes are relatively small compared to other volcanoes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following processes causes melting of the asthenosphere and the generation of magma?
A) removal of water
B) increasing pressure
C) decreasing temperature
D) decreasing pressure
Q5) The three environments of magma production are __________ __________, __________ __________, and __________ __________.
Q6) A/an __________ __________ is a small volcano composed of pyroclastic fragments.
Q7) Granitic magma contains __________ water than basaltic magma.
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Chapter 9: Mountains
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Q1) The Himalayas are continuing to rise because of underthrusting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Normal faults, grabens, and horsts are common:
A) at convergent boundaries.
B) where the crust is being pulled apart.
C) at hot spots.
D) along transform plate boundaries.
Q3) During the formation of the __________, the leading edge of India began to slide under Tibet in a process called underthrusting.
Q4) Continental mountain ranges rise because the crust becomes __________ where tectonic plates collide.
Q5) A/an __________ is a fold that arches upward.
A) anticline
B) syncline
C) hanging wall
D) horst
Q6) Island arcs are abundant in the Pacific Ocean.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Weathering, Soil, and Erosion
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Q1) Typically, soil creep occurs at a rate of about:
A) 1 centimeter per day.
B) 1 meter per year.
C) 1 centimeter per year.
D) 1 kilometer per year.
Q2) The soil layer in which you would find the least organic material is the:
A) B horizon.
B) O horizon.
C) C horizon.
D) A horizon.
Q3) Acidic and basic solutions have greater abilities to dissolve rocks and minerals than does pure water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sand can maintain an angle of repose up to 45°.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The combined O and A soil horizons are also called __________.
Q6) The removal of weathered material is __________.
Q7) Frost wedging is an example of __________ weathering.
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Chapter 11: Fresh Water: Streams, Lakes, Ground Water, and Wetlands
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Q1) High-gradient streams are likely to form:
A) V-shaped valleys.
B) U-shaped valleys.
C) numerous oxbow lakes.
D) valleys with meanders in their flood plains.
Q2) Levees can create conditions that cause much larger floods in the long term.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A/an __________ forms when the roof of a limestone cavern collapses.
Q4) A/an __________ is a gently sloping mound of sediment deposited where a stream enters a lake or ocean.
A) delta
B) point bar
C) meander
D) oxbow
Q5) A nutrient-poor lake is called a/an __________ lake.
A) oligotrophic
B) minitrophic
C) catastrophic
D) eutrophic
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Chapter 12: Water Resources
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Q1) Dams and diversions can:
A) cause coastal beaches to erode.
B) cause water loss.
C) cause disaster.
D) all of the above
Q2) Which of the following is not a problem in ground water pollution?
A) Plant nutrients cause algal blooms.
B) Industrial wastes contaminate water in wells.
C) Sewage pollutes water in wells.
D) Gasoline from underground tanks seeps into rock and soil.
Q3) Aquifer depletion is uncommon in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pollution externalities become more expensive as pollution is reduced.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The 1972 Clean Water Act stated that by 1985 the discharge of pollutants into navigable waters should be eliminated.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Glaciers and Ice Ages
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Q1) Sediment particles carried by a glacier are likely to be sharp and jagged.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ice in the upper 40 meters of a glacier fractures to form crevasses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The higher elevation portion of a glacier where more snow accumulates in winter than melts in summer is called:
A) the zone of ablation.
B) the ablation area.
C) the zone of accumulation.
D) snow line.
Q4) A smaller glacial valley that meets the main valley with a large vertical offset is called a:
A) fjord.
B) hanging valley.
C) flying valley.
D) death valley.
Q5) Glacial streams deposit their sediment downstream from the glacier as
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Chapter 14: Deserts and Wind
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Q1) Desert pavement forms because:
A) playa lake beds bake rock-hard in the hot summer sun.
B) wind selectively removes sand and silt and leaves large particles behind.
C) caliche deposits cement desert soil.
D) clay is easily removed.
Q2) __________ is a continuous cover of stones left behind when wind blows silt and sand away.
A) A wash
B) A desert playa
C) A dune field
D) Desert pavement
Q3) Wind erodes sand:
A) from both sides of a dune.
B) from the leeward side of a dune, and deposits it on the windward side.
C) from the windward side of a dune, and deposits it on the sheltered leeward side.
D) only from the top of a dune.
Q4) Sand grains are transported by wind close to the ground in a bouncing movement called __________.
Q5) The growth of a desert by human mismanagement is called __________.
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Chapter 15: Ocean Basins
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Q1) Studying the sea floor requires direct physical contact with the ocean floor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A circular coral reef that forms a ring of island around a central lagoon is a/an
Q3) A flat-topped seamount is called a __________.
Q4) Moving away from mid-ocean ridges, oceanic crust becomes:
A) older, sinks, and forms the abyssal plains.
B) younger, sinks, and forms the abyssal plains.
C) older, rises, and becomes part of the continental shelf.
D) younger, rises, and becomes part of the continental shelf.
Q5) Some of the world's richest offshore petroleum reserves are found on continental shelves.
A)True B)False
Q6) A continental shelf on a passive margin is usually a wide bathymetric feature.
A)True B)False
Q7) A chain of volcanic islands that form along a subduction zone is called a/an
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Chapter 16: Oceans and Coastlines
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Q1) A wave-cut platform is a common feature of sediment-poor coastlines.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Sea of Cortez lies in a subtropical region between the Baja Peninsula and the west coast of Mexico. Most of the surrounding land is desert, and the one large river, the Colorado, empties only a small amount of water into the sea. In contrast, the Strait of Georgia lies off the temperate coast of British Columbia and is fed by melting glaciers and many streams. Which of the following comparisons of the salinities of these regions is correct?
A) The Sea of Cortez is saltier because freshwater input is low and evaporation is high.
B) The Strait of Georgia is saltier because cool temperatures promote salt crystallization.
C) The Strait of Georgia is saltier because the numerous rivers transport salt water into the sea.
D) Both regions have the same salinity because all of the oceans are interconnected and the salt is evenly dispersed.
Q3) The deflection of currents caused by the Earth's rotation is called the __________
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Chapter 17: The Atmosphere
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Q1) The Earth's modern atmosphere:
A) is composed of 78 percent nitrogen.
B) does not filter high-energy ultraviolet rays.
C) is similar to that found on Venus.
D) is composed of 80 percent oxygen.
Q2) Smog is produced when automobile exhaust is exposed to __________.
Q3) A/an __________ is used to measure air pressure.
A) anemometer
B) thermometer
C) compass
D) barometer
Q4) The pressure exerted by air is the __________ __________.
Q5) __________ were the earliest photosynthetic life-forms on Earth.
Q6) Atmospheric temperature decreases continuously with altitude in all layers.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Acid precipitation forms when sulfur dioxide reacts with ozone in the stratosphere.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Energy Balance in the Atmosphere
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Q1) The __________ traps heat radiating from Earth and acts as an insulating blanket.
Q2) __________ are particles of light.
Q3) All areas of the globe receive the same total number of hours of sunlight every year.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is not an electromagnetic wave?
A) light
B) sound
C) X-rays
D) infrared rays
Q5) On __________, every place on Earth receives 12 hours of sunlight and 12 hours of darkness.
A) the equinox
B) the solstice
C) the 4<sup>th</sup> of July
D) Thanksgiving Day
Q6) __________ is the state of the atmosphere at a given place and time, characterized by temperature and precipitation, for example.
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Chapter 19: Moisture, Clouds, and Weather
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Q1) When air cools as it rises along a land surface, __________ fog forms.
A) advection
B) radiation
C) evaporation
D) upslope
Q2) Sea and land breezes are caused by uneven heating and cooling of land and water.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Windward valleys receive much less moisture than leeward valleys.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following conditions is likely to lead to rain?
A) Warm air makes contact with cool surfaces.
B) Cool, moist air falls.
C) Warm, moist air rises.
D) Moist air sinks as it passes over the leeward side of a mountain.
Q5) El Niño occurs every year.
A)True
B)False
Q6) When relative humidity exceeds 100 percent, the air becomes __________.
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Chapter 20: Climate
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Q1) High-altitude winds from the equator continue to flow all the way to the poles because they are deflected by the Coriolis effect.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Air rises at the convergence of the prevailing westerlies and the polar easterlies, forming a low-pressure boundary zone called the __________ __________.
Q3) The __________ Climate Classification is used by climatologists throughout the world.
A) Milankovich
B) Wegener
C) Koeppen
D) Hutton
Q4) An urban heat island effect arises from:
A) factors in the urban environment.
B) factors in the rural environment.
C) differences in geothermal energy between city and rural areas.
D) differences in natural radioactivity between city and rural areas.
Q5) Warm air rises near the equator, forming a low-pressure region called the __________.
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Chapter 21: Climate Change
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Q1) The four industrial greenhouse gases are:
A) carbon dioxide, methane, chlorofluorocarbons, and oxygen.
B) carbon dioxide, methane, nitrogen, and oxygen.
C) methane, chlorofluorocarbons, oxygen, and nitrogen oxides.
D) carbon dioxide, methane, chlorofluorocarbons, and nitrogen oxides.
Q2) When carbon dioxide gas dissolves in seawater, it forms calcium carbonate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Water in the atmosphere can cause both warming and cooling.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Mount Pinatubo eruption in 1991:
A) warmed the atmosphere by releasing carbon dioxide.
B) cooled the atmosphere by releasing ash and sulfur compounds.
C) warmed the atmosphere by releasing ash and sulfur compounds.
D) cooled the atmosphere by releasing carbon dioxide.
Q5) Methane gas is stored in sea-floor sediments under certain temperature and pressure conditions as frozen __________ __________.
Q6) The Sun produces energy by __________ __________.
Q7) __________ impacts can cause rapid and catastrophic climate changes.
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Chapter 22: Motions in the Heavens
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Q1) The frequency of light waves:
A) does not change with relative motion.
B) can be used to determine the chemical composition of stars.
C) changes with relative motion.
D) is called constellation.
Q2) If a star is moving away from Earth, the Doppler effect will cause the frequency of the star's light to shift to a __________ frequency, causing a __________ shift.
A) higher, red
B) higher, blue
C) lower, blue
D) lower, red
Q3) Absorption spectra can be used to detect:
A) the chemical composition of a star.
B) temperature and pressures in the core of a star.
C) the mass of a star.
D) the age of a star.
Q4) Groups of stars that seem to form a pattern are called __________.
Q5) When the Moon passes directly between the Earth and the Sun, a/an __________ __________ occurs.
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Chapter 23: Planets and Their Moons
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Q1) Uranus and Neptune are __________ than Jupiter and Saturn because they contain relatively larger, solid cores.
Q2) The Moon formed __________.
A) shortly before the Earth.
B) about 4.5 billion years ago.
C) about 4.5 million years ago.
D) about 40 billion years ago.
Q3) The Earth's atmosphere is thinner than that on Mars.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The Jovian planets-Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune-have retained most of their hydrogen, helium, and other light elements.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ is the outermost of the four moons of Jupiter detected by Galileo.
A) Io
B) Europa
C) Ganymede
D) Callisto
Q6) The Moon's __________ are flat expanses of volcanic rock.
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Chapter 24: Stars, Space, and Galaxies
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Q1) A small residual star that emits regular, closely spaced electromagnetic signals is a/an __________.
Q2) The major reason for differences in temperature and luminosities among main-sequence stars is that some:
A) have a higher ratio of hydrogen to helium.
B) are younger than others.
C) are more massive than others.
D) are older than others.
Q3) Population II stars are originally composed of:
A) mostly heavy elements inherited from population I stars.
B) only hydrogen and helium.
C) mostly hydrogen and heavy elements.
D) mostly helium with small amounts of hydrogen and smaller amounts of heavy elements.
Q4) About 90 percent of all stars lie in the main sequence.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When a star larger than 1.44 solar masses dies, a/an __________ explosion occurs after helium fusion has ended and after iron fusion has occurred.
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