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This course explores the dynamic processes that have shaped Planet Earth from its formation to the present day. Students will investigate the physical, chemical, and biological systems that interact to produce Earth's landscapes, climate, and environments. Topics include plate tectonics, the rock cycle, earth materials, geologic time, and major events in Earth's history such as mass extinctions and continental drift. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and field studies, students will develop a deeper understanding of Earth's structure, the forces driving change, and the evidence geologists use to reconstruct our planet's past.
Recommended Textbook
EARTH 1st Edition by Graham R. Thompson
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24 Chapters
1436 Verified Questions
1436 Flashcards
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Q1) The Earth's atmosphere is a mixture of gases, mostly nitrogen and hydrogen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The hydrosphere includes water in streams, lakes, and oceans; in the atmosphere; and frozen in glaciers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) More water exists in the Earth's atmosphere than in surface streams and lakes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The Earth's atmosphere acts as a blanket, retaining heat at night and dispersing direct solar heating during the day.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) A __________ is any combination of interrelated, interacting components.
Answer: system
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Q1) Calcite is a/an:
A) silicate mineral.
B) clay mineral.
C) oxide mineral.
D) carbonate mineral.
Answer: D
Q2) A positively charged ion is a __________.
Answer: cation
Q3) __________ is the color of a fine powder of a mineral.
Answer: Streak
Q4) Which of the following does not describe a mineral?
A) a fundamental form of matter that cannot be broken into simpler substances by ordinary chemical processes
B) the building blocks of rocks
C) a naturally occurring inorganic solid with a characteristic chemical composition and a crystalline structure
D) natural gems
Answer: A
Q5) __________ __________is the characteristic shape of an individual crystal.
Answer: Crystal habit
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Q1) Lithified clay is called:
A) conglomerate.
B) granite.
C) sandstone.
D) shale.
Answer: D
Q2) The process by which rocks and minerals change in response to changing temperature, pressure, and/or chemical composition within the crust is __________.
Answer: metamorphism
Q3) Burial metamorphism is occurring today deep within the Mississippi River delta.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The most abundant igneous rock in continental crust is:
A) basalt.
B) granite.
C) rhyolite.
D) gabbro.
Answer: B
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Q1) An unconformity in which tectonic activity tilted older sedimentary rock layers before younger sediment accumulated is:
A) an angular unconformity.
B) a disconformity.
C) conformable.
D) a nonconformity.
Q2) A basalt dike cutting older sedimentary rocks is an example of the principle of __________ __________.
Q3) Younger layers of sediment always accumulate on top of older layers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Matching rocks of similar ages from different localities is __________.
Q5) Geologists establish the age relationship of rocks from different locations through the process of __________.
A) conformation
B) invention
C) information
D) correlation
Q6) __________ __________ refers to time measured in years.
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Q1) Oil or natural gas originate from the:
A) source rock.
B) reservoir rock.
C) cap rock.
D) gas rock.
Q2) When water currents slow down, __________ __________can be formed by high-density minerals.
Q3) A nonmetallic resource is:
A) an ore.
B) a concentration of metals that can be mined profitably.
C) a concentration of fossil fuels.
D) any useful rock or mineral that is not a metal, such as salt, building stone, sand, or gravel.
Q4) __________ energy resources are replenished by natural processes as we use them.
Q5) Bauxite is an example of a residual ore deposit.
A)True B)False
Q6) Mining of sand and gravel has made more money than mining of gold.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The outer 75 to 125 kilometers of the Earth, including both the crust and upper mantle, consists of:
A) molten iron and nickel of the outer core.
B) weak, plastic rock of the asthenosphere.
C) hard, strong rock of the lithosphere.
D) solid iron and nickel of the inner core.
Q2) A mantle plume is a vertical column of plastic rock rising from the mantle. A)True B)False
Q3) A continent can be pulled apart at a divergent boundary in a process called
Q4) Reversed magnetic polarity is the opposite of the Earth's current magnetic field. A)True B)False
Q5) The lithosphere floats on the asthenosphere. A)True B)False
Q6) The layer of the Earth that is as hot as the surface of the Sun is the inner
Page 8
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Q1) During fault creep:
A) rapid and sudden movement along a fault occurs, usually causing large earthquakes.
B) rapid and sudden movement along a fault occurs, usually not causing large earthquakes.
C) a continuous, slow movement along a fault occurs, usually causing large earthquakes.
D) a continuous, slow movement along a fault occurs, usually not causing large earthquakes.
Q2) A type of continuous, snail-like rock movement that occurs along parts of the San Andreas Fault is called __________ __________.
Q3) The Mercalli scale expresses the amount of energy released by an earthquake.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Earthquakes occur along the upper portion of a sinking plate in the __________ zone.
Q5) Only deep earthquakes occur along the Mid-Oceanic Ridge.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The higher silica content of granitic magma causes it to:
A) erupt at the surface.
B) solidify within the crust.
C) become highly viscous.
D) b and c
Q2) Melting caused by decreased pressure is called __________ melting.
A) pressure-release
B) pressure-decrease
C) pressure-cease
D) pressure-diminish
Q3) Granitic magma contains __________ water than basaltic magma.
Q4) Which magma type erupts most violently?
A) basaltic
B) Hawaiian
C) Icelandic
D) granitic
Q5) A granitic pluton that is exposed for less than 100 square kilometers is called a/an
Q6) Explosively erupted rock particles or magma form __________ rock.
10
Q7) A/an __________ __________ is a small volcano composed of pyroclastic fragments.
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Q1) A/an __________ is a fracture in rock where rocks on either side of the fracture have not moved.
Q2) In a normal fault, the hanging wall has moved __________ relative to the footwall.
Q3) Compression is common at:
A) divergent plate boundaries.
B) convergent plate boundaries.
C) transform plate boundaries.
D) none of these
Q4) The sides of a fold in rock are called __________.
Q5) A fold:
A) usually results from compressive stress.
B) always shortens the horizontal distances in rock.
C) usually occurs as part of a group of many similar folds.
D) all of the above
Q6) A/an __________ is any feature produced by rock deformation.
A) anticline
B) geologic structure
C) syncline
D) limb
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Q1) A flowing mixture of clay, silt, sand, and rock in which more than half of the particles are larger than sand is called a/an __________ __________.
Q2) The soil layer in which you would find the most organic material is the __________ horizon.
A) B
B) O
C) C
D) A
Q3) A mixture of sand, clay, silt, and generous amounts of organic matter is called __________.
A) soil
B) bedrock
C) humus
D) litter
Q4) In the process of hydrolysis:
A) salts crystallize in cracks, enlarging fractures.
B) minerals weather by incorporating water.
C) bedrock expands and fractures when the overlying rock erodes away.
D) bedrock dissolves and ground water carries the dissolved ions away.
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Q1) A/an __________ forms when the roof of a limestone cavern collapses.
Q2) Wetlands mitigate floods by absorbing excess water that might otherwise overrun towns and farms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The region ultimately drained by a single river is a __________.
A) flood plain
B) channel
C) drainage basin
D) drainage divide
Q4) A/an __________ __________ is a mound of sediment that accumulates on the inside of a meander.
Q5) A stream's capacity is:
A) greatest during a time of low water.
B) constant regardless of water level.
C) minimal during a flood.
D) greatest during a flood.
Q6) Friction between flowing water and the stream channel slows current velocity.
A)True
B)False Page 13
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Q1) A leaking septic tank is an example of __________ __________ pollution.
Q2) Water used to flush a toilet in a city is pumped to a sewage treatment plant, purified, and discharged into a nearby stream.
A) The water has been withdrawn.
B) The water has been polluted.
C) The water has been consumed.
D) The water has been contaminated.
Q3) If the present pattern of water use continues, one-quarter of the original water in the wells in the Ogallala aquifer beneath the high plains will:
A) never dry up.
B) dry up in the next century.
C) be consumed by about 2020.
D) increase in water content.
Q4) During the first thirty years of the Clean Water Act, the total discharge of pollutants into the nations waters has __________.
A) increased
B) decreased, but water pollution is still a serious problem
C) remained unchanged
D) ended completely
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Q1) The ice sheets of Greenland and Antarctica contain __________ percent of the world's ice.
A) 25
B) 75
C) 50
D) 99
Q2) A/an __________ is an elongate hill, usually occurring in clusters, that was deposited and eroded by a glacier.
A) ground moraine
B) drumlin
C) gremlin
D) erratic
Q3) __________ occurs when the Earth's axis circles like a wobbling top.
Q4) Glaciers form U-shaped valleys.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________ is sediment that was deposited directly by a glacier.
Q6) A small glacial valley lying high above the floor of the main valley is called a/an
Q7) __________ __________ is glacier movement as a viscous fluid.
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Q1) Salt deposits are found on playas because:
A) of extreme erosion.
B) they are transported there by the wind.
C) salt diapirs are preferentially exposed in playa lakes.
D) dissolved ions precipitate during evaporation of the playa lake water.
Q2) Buttes and mesas are common in the Colorado Plateau because:
A) these landforms are composed of evaporite deposits.
B) these landforms commonly form at the base of bajadas.
C) chemical weathering rounds the edges of rock outcrops.
D) through-flowing rivers carve out these features.
Q3) Desertification in the Sahel in the late 1960s and early 1970s probably happened because of:
A) movement of the African continent.
B) tectonic uplift.
C) volcanic activity.
D) human mismanagement.
Q4) Any region that receives less than 25 centimeters of rain per year is considered to be a __________.
Q5) Sand grains are transported by wind close to the ground in a bouncing movement called __________.
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Q1) Atolls are volcanic peaks on the ocean floor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The depth of the central parts of the ocean basins is about __________ kilometers.
A) 6
B) 5 C) 4
D) 3
Q3) Beyond the Mid-Oceanic Ridge system are flat, level, featureless submarine surfaces called __________ __________.
Q4) Active continental margins do not have continental rises.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A/an __________ __________ is an open-mouthed steel net dragged along the sea floor behind a research ship.
Q6) Studying the sea floor requires direct physical contact with the ocean floor. A)True
B)False
Q7) A flat-topped seamount is called a __________.
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Q1) Eustatic sea-level change occurs because of:
A) the growth or melting of glaciers.
B) changes in the volume of the Mid-Oceanic Ridge.
C) changes in water temperature.
D) all of the above
Q2) Most of the photosynthesis and nutrient consumption in the ocean is carried out by:
A) large marine mammals.
B) deep dwelling organisms.
C) bacteria.
D) plankton.
Q3) A neap tide is a:
A) small tide formed when the Sun and Moon are 90° out of alignment.
B) large tide formed when the Sun and Moon are 90° out of alignment.
C) small tide formed when the Sun and Moon are aligned.
D) large tide formed when the Sun and Moon are aligned.
Q4) A/an __________ is any strip of shoreline washed by waves and tides.
Q5) The highest part of a wave is called the trough.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The Earth's primordial atmosphere:
A) contained no oxygen.
B) was an effective filter that absorbed high-energy ultraviolet rays.
C) was mainly oxygen.
D) was formed by biological processes.
Q2) Chlorofluorocarbons and halons destroy ozone in the stratosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As early organisms evolved and multiplied, they depleted oxygen from the atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Smog is produced:
A) when sulfur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen dissolve in water droplets in the atmosphere.
B) by nuclear fission reactors.
C) by atmospheric inversion.
D) when sunlight reacts with automobile exhaust.
Q5) Little radiation is absorbed in the __________ (between about 55 and 80 kilometers above Earth's surface), and the thin air is extremely cold.
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Q1) Clouds warm the Earth's surface at night.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ __________ is the energy released or absorbed when a substance changes from one state to another.
Q3) Photons appear when they are emitted and disappear when they are absorbed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Evaporation from a body of water:
A) cools the water and air around it.
B) cools the water, but warms the air around it.
C) warms the water and air around it.
D) has not effect on the temperature of the water and air around it.
Q5) If the air is filled with dust or water droplets, all of the wavelengths scatter, and the sky becomes red.
A)True
B)False
Q6) When the energy in a photon is transferred to an electron in a molecule, the electron jumps to a/an __________ __________.
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Q1) El Niño is a weather pattern caused by:
A) increased upwelling at the west coast of South America.
B) the slackening of the trade winds in the Pacific Ocean.
C) orographic lifting.
D) frontal wedging.
Q2) Which of the following conditions is likely to lead to rain?
A) Warm air makes contact with cool surfaces.
B) Cool, moist air falls.
C) Warm, moist air rises.
D) Moist air sinks as it passes over the leeward side of a mountain.
Q3) When condensation occurs above the elevation at which air stops rising, __________ clouds form.
A) cumulus
B) stratus
C) cirrus
D) no
Q4) Pressure gradients can change hourly.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When relative humidity exceeds 100 percent, the air becomes __________.
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Q1) A/an __________ is a community of plants growing in a large geographic region characterized by a particular climate.
Q2) The __________ biome is characteristic of Arctic and high alpine regions.
Q3) Temperate rainforests are common along the northwest coast of America, from Oregon to Alaska.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The __________ __________ is characterized by dry summers, rainy winters, and moderate temperature. This climate zone occurs along the coast in southern California.
Q5) A/an __________ __________ climate occurs near the equator, with large seasonal variations in rainfall, and relatively high amounts of annual precipitation.
Q6) A/an __________ __________ is a tropical region with large seasonal variations in rainfall with a moderate amount of rain that supports grassland with scattered small trees and shrubs.
Q7) Surface winds moving toward the equator that have been deflected by the Coriolis effect to blow reliably are called the __________ __________.
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Q1) Carbon exists in the atmosphere mostly as methane and __________
Q2) The Mesozoic was a relatively warm era.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The four industrial greenhouse gases are:
A) carbon dioxide, methane, chlorofluorocarbons, and oxygen.
B) carbon dioxide, methane, nitrogen, and oxygen.
C) methane, chlorofluorocarbons, oxygen, and nitrogen oxides.
D) carbon dioxide, methane, chlorofluorocarbons, and nitrogen oxides.
Q4) Continental interiors generally experience __________ winters and __________ summers than coastal areas.
A) colder, cooler
B) colder, hotter
C) warmer, cooler
D) warmer, hotter
Q5) Greenhouse gases:
A) block infrared radiation and prevent heat from entering our atmosphere.
B) prevent infrared radiation.
C) reflect infrared radiation back into space.
D) absorb infrared radiation and trap heat in our atmosphere.
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Q1) In the Northern Hemisphere, the Pole Star:
A) appears in the summer and is invisible during the winter months.
B) circles the sky relative to the other stars.
C) disappears completely every 29.5 days.
D) remains motionless in the sky and all other stars appear to revolve around it.
Q2) The waxing gibbous moon:
A) occurs just after the full moon and shows just a small sliver of brightness.
B) is a thin crescent that forms after the new moon.
C) occurs 10 days after a new moon and shows a small sliver of darkness.
D) is a thin crescent that forms after the full moon.
Q3) __________ modified Aristotle's model in about 150 CE by incorporating retrograde motion.
A) Ptolemy
B) Newton
C) Brahe
D) Copernicus
Q4) A/an __________ __________ uses a curved mirror to collect light and focus an image.
Q5) Groups of stars that seem to form a pattern are called __________.
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Q1) Asteroids may change their orbits frequently and erratically.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Venusian surface:
A) is separated into upland plateaus and deep basalt basins like the Earth's ocean basins.
B) is entirely covered with meteorite craters.
C) contains numerous volcanoes and basalt flows.
D) is divided into plates by massive features like the Earth's mid-ocean ridge.
Q3) Geologists think that the eroded surfaces, alluvial fans, and Valles Marineris indicate that the Martian climate was once __________ and that __________ flowed across the surface.
A) colder, liquid metallic hydrogen
B) colder, water
C) warmer, liquid metallic hydrogen
D) warmer, water
Q4) Organic molecules have been detected in some meteorites.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Moon's __________ are flat expanses of volcanic rock.
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Q1) The mass of the Sun is one __________ __________.
Q2) A black hole:
A) is an infinitesimally small point of infinitely high density.
B) is an infinitesimally small point of infinitely low density.
C) emits or reflects very weak light.
D) is larger than a neutron star.
Q3) A __________ is a concentration of billions of stars held together by their mutual gravitation.
A) galaxy
B) pulsar
C) quasar
D) black hole
Q4) When hydrogen fusion ends within the core of a star, the core becomes __________ and __________.
A) hotter, expands
B) hotter, contracts
C) cooler, expands
D) cooler, contracts
Q5) Spherical clouds of dust and gas, called a __________ __________, surround the Milky Way's galactic disk.
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