
Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Planet Earth is an interdisciplinary course that explores the dynamic processes shaping our planet, including its origins, structure, and ongoing systems. Students examine the physical and chemical properties of Earth's components such as the atmosphere, hydrosphere, geosphere, and biosphere while investigating phenomena like plate tectonics, weathering, natural hazards, and the rock cycle. Emphasis is placed on understanding how Earth's systems interact and evolve, how human activities impact these systems, and the importance of sustainability in managing Earth's resources for the future.
Recommended Textbook
Earth An Introduction to Physical Geology 4th Canadian Edition by Edward J. Tarbuck
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Q1) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)East Pacific
B)Mid-Atlantic
C)Peru-Chile
D)Mid-Indian
Answer: C
Q2) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)Big Bang
B)solar nebula
C)protosun
D)protoplanets
Answer: A
Q3) Oceans cover slightly less than half of the Earth's surface.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) List the three, basic categories of rocks as defined in the rock cycle.
Answer: igneous, sedimentary, metamorphic
Q5) What is the estimated temperature of Earth's inner core?
Answer: 6700 degrees Celsius
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Q1) The silicon-oxygen tetrahedron has a net charge of ________.
Answer: 4<sup>-</sup>
Q2) Which one of the following describes a mineral's response to mechanical impact?
A)lustre
B)cleavage
C)streak
D)crystal form
Answer: B
Q3) In ionic compounds, ________ have lost one or more electrons to acquire positive charge and a smaller radius than their neutral atom, while ________ have gained one or more electrons to acquire a negative charge and a larger radius than their neutral atom.
A)anions, cations
B)cations, anions
C)daughter isotopes, parent isotopes
D)stable isotopes, unstable isotopes
Answer: B
Q4) ________ is the light coloured member of the mica group of sheet silicate minerals.
Answer: Muscovite

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Q1) Felsic rocks have silica contents of ________ are rich in ________.
A)under 40%, olivine and pyroxene
B)around 50%, pyroxene and plagioclase feldspar
C)about 70%, quartz and feldspar
D)more than 85%, calcium rich feldspars and amphiboles
Answer: C
Q2) The mineral crystals in phaneritic rocks cannot be distinguished without the aid of a microscope.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Explosive volcanic eruptions occur ________.
A)when crystallization forces exceed the strength of the volcano
B)in response to deflation of the volcano
C)when violently escaping gases evolve suddenly to drop the magma density and propel molten magma from the chamber
D)whenever basaltic magma extrudes on the seafloor
Answer: C
Q4) How much silica do felsic igneous rocks commonly contain?
Answer: 70%
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Q1) The ________ ocean basin is rimmed by the most subduction zones.
A)Atlantic
B)Indian
C)Pacific
D)Arctic
Q2) What super-eruption about 73,500 years ago is thought to have affected regional climate?
Q3) Most composite volcanoes have a simple eruptive history dominated by one or two events.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which igneous rock comprises the Hawaiian Islands and most other islands of volcanic origin in the oceanic basins?
Q5) Which magma association with the volcanic landform is false?
A)cinder cones - mafic
B)composite volcanoes - andesitic
C)glassy volcanic domes - felsic
D)volcanic plateaus and shields - felsic
Q6) What are the smaller secondary volcanic vents on a large composite volcano like Mt.Etna called?
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the A soil horizon?
A)regolith zone
B)erosion zone
C)residual zone
D)leaching zone
Q2) In nature, where does the acidity come from to speed up chemical weathering?
A)nuée ardentes from explosive volcanic eruptions
B)Bowen's reaction series
C)plutonism
D)organic acids from decayed plants, acid rain, and sulphuric acid from oxidation of pyrite
Q3) What chemical weathering process associated with surface mining activities is a major environmental hazard?
A)coal oxidation
B)oxidation of pyrite and other sulphides to produce "mine acid" or acid rock drainage
C)recurrent landslides from unstable talings piles
D)release of oxidized mine gases
Q4) What term describes the physical disintegration and chemical alteration of exposed rocks?
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Q1) How do salt flats form?
Q2) What two important pieces of geologic information are principally contained in sedimentary rocks?
Q3) A white and pink hard sedimentary rock has abundant thin layers and is composed of microfossils of radiolaria made of SiO<sub>2</sub>.What would you call it?
Q4) Considering the factors which influence the formation of sedimentary rocks, how might sedimentary rocks be different on another planet such as Mars or Venus?
Q5) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)lithification
B)cementation
C)weathering
D)compaction
Q6) What does the upper bedding plane on a sediment layer indicate?
A)a succession of three or more different facies
B)an end to that cycle of sedimentation or a hiatus in deposition
C)a single episode of sedimentation
D)a geologic catastrophe
Q7) How are sedimentary environments categorized or distinguished from each other?
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Q1) Which one of the following statements is false?
A)Slate forms from shale and mudstones.
B)Slate has abundant, coarse-grained mica.
C)In slate, rock cleavage is common.
D)In slate, sedimentary features may be visible.
Q2) What are tekites?
A)hard, foliated, hornfels chips in a shale heated by an intrusive granite
B)unusually coarse-grained migmatites that crystallized in a caldera
C)globular to teardrop-shaped, dark, glassy, silica-rich impact melts
D)granular breccias produced by fault zone shattering
Q3) ________ is a nonfoliated rock formed by the contact metamorphism of fine grained rocks like shales, mudstones, or volcanics.
A)Schist
B)Marble
C)Gneiss
D)Hornfels
Q4) Why so some marbles appear banded?
Q5) What are the aluminosilicate minerals (Al<sub>2</sub>SiO<sub>5 </sub>)and how are they formed and distinguished?
Q6) Which metamorphic rock is formed by cooking sandstone and lacks foliation?
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Q1) Which English engineer and amateur geologist (his first name was William)is generally credited with first demonstrating the principle of faunal succession from his observations in building canals?
A)Tell
B)Smith
C)Wordsworth
D)Blake
Q2) The Phanerozoic Eon comprises approximately the ________ of geologic time.
A)last 15%
B)first 85%
C)last 85%
D)first 15%
Q3) The half-life of carbon-14 is about 5730 years.Assume that a sample of charcoal formed by burning wood that lived 25,000 years ago.How much of the original carbon-14 would remain today?
A)1/16 to 1/32
B)1/2 to 1/4
C)1/4 to 1/8
D)1/8 to 1/16
Q4) What are the massive particle types in the nuclei of atoms?
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Q1) Most crustal deformation occurs in active tectonic zones ________.
A)at the base of sedimentary basins
B)along plate margins
C)deep within old plate interiors
D)in thick piles of unconsolidated sedimentary strata
Q2) A thrust fault is best described as ________.
A)a steeply inclined, oblique-slip fault
B)a low-angle, reverse fault
C)a vertical, normal fault
D)a near vertical, strike-slip fault
Q3) Igneous and metamorphic rocks exposed in the "stable" interiors of continents have necessarily been uplifted from much deeper levels in the Earth's crust.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How do geologists recognize and map the large scale, dominant bedrock structures?
Q5) Does the hanging wall block move up or down along a reverse fault?
Q6) The two sides of a fold are called its lobes.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) What is the main reason that ray paths of seismic waves are curved like dipping arcs, rather than proceeding along the straightest, shortest path as they pass through the whole earth?
A)The earth gets too hot and the seismic waves steer away into the shallower, colder regions.
B)The rock layers themselves are bent and sagged and the waves actually travel parallel to the distorted rock layers or beds.
C)The stiffest, most brittle rocks near the surface transmit sound waves better.
D)Velocity increases with depth.
Q2) The ________ is used to record ground shaking and the earthquake-magnitude scale based on the largest seismic wave motion was invented by ________.
A)Chinese ball juggler, Lao Tzu
B)vibrator; Dr.Ruth
C)polygraph; Freud
D)seismograph; Richter
Q3) As P waves pass from the mantle into the outer core, velocities drop abruptly.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ________ discontinuity marks the boundary between the crust and mantle.
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Q1) The geologic process responsible for the most rugged relief to be found on a passive margin's continental shelf is ________.
A)eustatic sea level changes
B)glacial erosion and deposition
C)earthquake induced submarine landslides
D)turbidity currents
Q2) If you are sailing across the continental shelf in Queen Charlotte Sound and your echo sounder reported the bottom at 200 milliseconds (0.200 sec)at the maximum depth crossing the axis of Mitchell Trough, how deep is the seabed in the middle of this drowned submarine valley? Use the equation: depth (m)= 0.5 * (1500 m/s * total 2-way travel time in sec)
A)150 metres
B)15 metres
C)1500 metres
D)500 metres
Q3) Which one of the following would typically have the widest continental shelf?
A)a tectonically passive, trailing continental margin
B)a tectonically passive, mid-ocean ridge and trench system
C)a tectonically active continental margin next to a deep ocean trench
D)an atoll
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Q1) ________ plates are moving apart from one another
A)convergent
B)transform
C)divergen
Q2) This plate boundary has the least amount of volcanism.
A)transform
B)convergent
C)divergent
D)subduction
Q3) The magnetic inclination of a lava flow that originally cooled near the equator is shallow.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)oceanic ridge
B)seafloor spreading
C)arc volcanoes
D)divergent

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Q5) What is the ultimate source for the plate tectonic motions?
Q6) Name two contributions that J.Tuzo Wilson made to plate tectonic theory.
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Q1) Active volcanic arcs above a young oceanic plate are associated with a(n)________ margin.
A)ocean-ocean
B)continent-continent
C)continent-ocean
D)divergent
Q2) An Andean or Aleutian margin has the biggest accretionary wedge?
Q3) How were the Ural Mountains (Russia)formed?
A)A large dome of Archean igneous and metamorphic rocks rose up as the Eurasian plate became situated over a mantle plume.
B)Kilometres of marine strata, originally deposited in a basin between the former Asian and European plates, were squeezed, folded, and uplifted as the two collided and joined to form the Eurasian plate.
C)Normal faulting from a modern continental rift is elevating large mountain blocks above the level of the vast plains on both sides of the range and giving rise to a volcanic mountain chain.
D)An active fold and thrust belt is forming as Asia and Europe continue to converge and buckle the crust along an old tectonic suture zone.
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Q1) What mass wasting process involves the downslope movement of a block or blocks of unconsolidated soil and regolith along a curved, slip surface?
Q2) What term denotes the exposed slip (fracture)surface beneath a slump block?
A)scoop
B)sole
C)toe
D)scarp
Q3) What two properties of rain water and snow melt have the greatest effect on soil strength and slope stability?
A)acidity and strong dipole forces
B)electric conductivity and viscosity
C)increased lubrication and added weight
D)solvation properties and surface tension
Q4) Which rockslide dammed the Madison River and buried a campground?
A)Montana 1959
B)Alberta 1903
C)Missouri 1811
D)Quebec 2010
Q5) Why are oil pipelines difficult to engineer north of 60° latitude?
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Q1) Which component of the hydrologic cycle describes the recharge of water to the soil and groundwater systems?
Q2) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)artificial levees
B)dams
C)floodplains
D)channelization
Q3) The bottom of a stream's channel is called its ________.
Q4) Which of the following are not methods of flood control?
A)artificial levees
B)flood-control dams
C)channelization
D)demolishing dams
Q5) All major rivers in Canada drain into only 5-6 basins.Name three of these.
Q6) ________ flow is how runoff moves initially across the ground.
Q7) Point bars are depositional features located along the outer portions of meander bends at the foot of the steep cutbank.
A)True
B)False
Q8) ________ is the amount of precipitation that soil can absorb.
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Q1) An artesian well is one in which ________.
A)the water is warm, fairly saline, and recharged by an affluent stream
B)pressurized groundwater rises from a deep, unsaturated aquifer
C)water rises above the top of the aquifer without any pumping
D)the well is horizontal and the water table is perched
Q2) A ________ is a circular to elliptical, closed depressions in karst areas.
Q3) The porosity of typical unconsolidated sediments and sedimentary rocks is ________.
A)10-50%
B)<0.1%
C)1-5%
D)6-9%
Q4) Cave formations like dripstone and travertine are composed of ________.
Q5) A terrain exhibiting many distinctive features related to subsurface solution of limestone is known as ________.
Q6) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)non-flowing
B)flowing
C)artesian well
D)aquitard

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Q1) During the retreat of the last ice sheets, how long ago did modern sea level become established?
A)6000 years
B)11,000 years
C)17,000 years
D)20,000 years
Q2) The Pleistocene Epoch began about 6 million years ago.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sketch the velocity profiles showing the direction and relative speed of ice movement, across and beneath a valley glacier.
Q4) What was the maximum lowering of sea level during the last Ice Age?
A)-100 metres
B)-20 metres
C)-38 metres
D)-85 metres
Q5) The abrupt break in stream gradients in glaciated terrains often leads to spectacular mountain waterfalls such as at Trout Pond Newfoundland and Helmcken Falls in Wells Gray Park, B.C.These are all examples of what kind of glacial valley intersection?
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Q1) Compare and contrast sediment transportation by wind and by water.
Q2) How far does the Nile River flow across the Sahara desert without any tributaries?
Q3) The tips of ________ dunes point upwind and commonly result from persistent, onshore winds in certain coastal areas.
A)parabolic
B)barchan
C)longitudinal
D)transverse
Q4) Blowouts are broad, shallow depressions excavated by deflation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)slip face
B)angle of repose
C)windward slope
D)leeward slope
Q6) Like barchans, the tips of a parabolic dune point downwind.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What is beach drift?
Q2) Name two intentional interventions that can reduce beach erosion.
Q3) In large bodies of water like the oceans or very large lakes, where is abrasion most intense and why?
Q4) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)wave height
B)wave period
C)wave refraction
D)fetch
Q5) The net longshore movement of water, and transport of sand parallel to the beach, are fundamentally caused by ________.
A)a long fetch parallel to the beach
B)deep-water waves breaking in the nearby offshore region creating rips
C)waves refracting and breaking obliquely onto a beach
D)offshore winds creating a pileup of water and a stronger backwash than swash
Q6) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)berm
B)shoreline
C)beach face
D)beach
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Q1) Choose the option that does not fit the pattern.
A)SEDEX
B)placer
C)stratiform
D)MVT
Q2) Sedimentary and residual deposits of the mineral ________ supply phosphorous for phosphate fertilizers and feed additives.
A)apatite
B)fluorite
C)kaolinite
D)sylvite
Q3) Use an X to locate two deposits involving hydrothermal fluids and replacement of limestone by base metal sulphide ores.
Q4) Considering the various types of traps for oil and natural gas, which one(s)do you think are easiest to locate, assuming you have a good working knowledge of the geology of an area? Which one(s)would be most difficult? Finally, would any of the traps have the potential of other natural resources other than oil and natural gas?
Q5) Why is liquid petroleum formed only over a limited depth range?
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