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Planet Earth is an interdisciplinary course that explores the dynamic systems and processes shaping our planet. Students will examine Earth's structure, composition, and the interactions between its atmosphere, hydrosphere, biosphere, and geosphere. Emphasis is placed on understanding natural phenomena such as plate tectonics, earthquakes, volcanoes, weather patterns, and climate change. Through lectures, case studies, and hands-on activities, the course highlights the interconnectedness of Earth's systems and the impact of human activities on the environment, fostering an appreciation for the planet's complexity and the importance of sustainable resource management.
Recommended Textbook
EARTH 1st Edition by Graham R. Thompson
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Q1) The earliest known life forms existed on Earth:
A) 38 million years ago.
B) 544 million years ago.
C) 1 billion years ago.
D) 3.8 billion years ago.
Answer: D
Q2) All of Earth's spheres continuously exchange matter and energy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A __________ is any combination of interrelated, interacting components. Answer: system
Q4) Oceans cover about 71 percent of the Earth.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q5) The __________ contains all of Earth's water. Answer: hydrosphere
Q6) The __________ is a mixture of gases, mostly nitrogen and oxygen. Answer: atmosphere
Page 3
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Q1) Rocks and minerals in their natural state are never harmful to humans and other organisms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Which physical properties distinguish a particular mineral from all others?
A) fracture and faceting
B) specific gravity
C) chemical composition and crystalline structure
D) streak and luster
Answer: C
Q3) An element cannot be broken into smaller substances by ordinary chemical processes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) A scale that compares the resistance of the surfaces of minerals to scratching is
Answer: Mohs hardness scale
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Q1) Volcanic rock forms when magma solidifies within the Earth's crust.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Intrusive igneous rocks form when magma solidifies:
A) on the Earth's surface.
B) within the Earth.
C) on the sea floor.
D) on mountain tops.
Answer: B
Q3) About 5 percent of the Earth's crust is made of:
A) igneous rock.
B) metamorphic rock.
C) sedimentary rock.
D) ultramafic rock.
Answer: C
Q4) __________ __________ is the older igneous and metamorphic rock underlying sedimentary rock.
Answer: Basement rock
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Q1) During a __________ __________, many life-forms on Earth die out suddenly.
Q2) The principle of original horizontality is based on the fact that:
A) sediment usually accumulates in horizontal layers.
B) sedimentary rocks generally become younger from bottom to top.
C) sedimentary rocks must be older than an intruding dike.
D) rocks can be dated by studying radioactive decay of the elements.
Q3) The half-life of potassium-40 is 1.3 billion years. If a rock that formed 2.6 billion years ago originally contained 5 grams of potassium-40, about __________ grams of potassium-40 would be left in that rock today.
A) 0.0125
B) 0.125
C) 1.25
D) 0.25
Q4) In a disconformity:
A) the sedimentary layers above and below the unconformity are parallel.
B) the sedimentary layers below the unconformity are tilted.
C) sedimentary rocks lie on older metamorphic rocks.
D) sedimentary rocks lie on older igneous rocks.
Q5) Dinosaurs evolved during the __________ Era.
Q6) Matching rocks of similar ages from different localities is __________.
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Q1) Bauxite is an example of a:
A) disseminated ore deposit.
B) residual ore deposit.
C) placer deposit.
D) submarine hydrothermal ore deposit.
Q2) Hydrothermal vein deposits:
A) form when dissolved metals precipitate in a fracture in rock.
B) can yield several million dollars worth of gold and silver.
C) form placer deposits.
D) a and b
Q3) Crystal settling from magma occurs:
A) whenever metal-bearing solutions encounter changing conditions that cause precipitation.
B) when surface streams slow down and deposit sediment.
C) when the lightest crystals rise to the top of a magma chamber.
D) when early formed crystals sink to the bottom of a magma chamber.
Q4) A/an __________ __________may consist of tens of kilometers of interconnected subterranean passages that follow ore veins or coal seams.
Q5) When water currents slow down, __________ __________can be formed by high-density minerals.
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Q1) A mantle plume is a __________.
A) convergent boundary between two plates
B) divergent boundary between two plates
C) transform boundary between two plates
D) rising column of hot, plastic mantle rock
Q2) Vertical movement in the lithosphere occurs due to:
A) mantle plumes.
B) hot spots.
C) isostatic adjustment.
D) mantle convection.
Q3) Alfred Wegener realized that:
A) the African and South American coastlines fit together like pieces of a jigsaw puzzle.
B) Africa and South America must have once been one continent.
C) there must have been one big supercontinent that he named Pangea.
D) all of the above
Q4) The Mid-Oceanic Ridge forms along transform plate boundaries.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The San Andreas Fault is an example of a/an __________ plate boundary.
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Q1) The initial rupture point of an earthquake is the __________.
Q2) The likely source of the Earth's magnetism is:
A) the flow of liquid metals in the outer core.
B) a permanent magnet within the Earth's core.
C) the Sun.
D) convection currents in the mantle.
Q3) A/an __________ is a sudden motion or trembling of the Earth.
Q4) A/an __________ is a sea wave generated by an underwater earthquake.
Q5) P waves in the Earth travel more than ten times slower than the speed of sound in air.
A)True
B)False
Q6) P and S waves travel through all types of material.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Earthquakes occur primarily along plate boundaries because:
A) igneous activity produces all earthquakes.
B) the crust is plastic and flows easily.
C) rock fractures at moving plate boundaries releasing energy.
D) tidal forces are concentrated here.
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Q1) Volcanic eruptions have no effect on global climate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A composite cone:
A) forms by repeated lava flows and pyroclastic eruptions over a long time.
B) is usually active for only a short time.
C) forms by pyroclastic eruptions only.
D) forms in a single, cataclysmic event.
Q3) __________ are pyroclastic volcanic fragments that vary in size from 4 to 32 millimeters.
Q4) A dike is a sheet-like, intrusive rock that forms when magma oozes into a fracture.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Magma with a high water content has a greater tendency to __________ in the crust, compared with magma with a lower water content.
A) solidify
B) remain liquid
C) metamorphose
D) spread out
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Q1) The Himalayas were formed by convergence of the __________ plate and the __________ plate.
A) Antarctic, Indian
B) Pacific, Eurasian
C) Indian, Eurasian
D) Antarctic, Pacific
Q2) Continents move about as fast as your fingernail grows.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where two continental plates converge, compressional stress squeezes rocks, forming folds and reverse and thrust faults.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When a rock is stressed, it may deform plastically, or break by brittle fracture.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Where two continents collide, one continent is forced under the other in a process called __________.
Q6) A circular or elliptical synclinal structure is called a/an __________.
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Q1) The soil layer in which you would find the least organic material is the:
A) B horizon.
B) O horizon.
C) C horizon.
D) A horizon.
Q2) __________ is the only rock-forming silicate mineral that does not weather to clay.
A) Feldspar
B) Quartz
C) Biotite
D) Muscovite
Q3) Weathering is the decomposition and disintegration of rocks and minerals at the Earth's surface by:
A) both mechanical and chemical processes.
B) chemical processes only.
C) mechanical processes only.
D) internal processes.
Q4) __________ is a hard crust on the soil that forms when calcium carbonate precipitates in soil.
Q5) The combined O and A soil horizons are also called __________.
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Q1) A/an __________ forms when the roof of a limestone cavern collapses.
Q2) Wetlands mitigate floods by absorbing excess water that might otherwise overrun towns and farms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Niagara Falls is an example for temporary base level.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Deltas are permanent unchanging geologic features.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A/an __________ is a gently sloping mound of sediment deposited where a stream enters a lake or ocean.
A) delta
B) point bar
C) meander
D) oxbow
Q6) Steep V-shaped streams are common in both deserts and glacial environments.
A)True
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Q1) __________ is a technique that uses microorganisms to decompose a contaminant in ground water.
Q2) If oxygen is injected into a contaminated area for treatment, __________ remediation is applied.
A) chemical B) biological C) atmospheric D) hydrologic
Q3) A __________ __________ is a canal or pipe constructed to use water.
Q4) Congress passed the __________ __________ __________ in 1972, mandating the cleaning of the nation's rivers, lakes, and wetlands.
Q5) During the first thirty years of the Clean Water Act, the total discharge of pollutants into the nations waters has __________.
A) increased B) decreased, but water pollution is still a serious problem C) remained unchanged D) ended completely
Q6) Excessive water removal in coastal areas can cause __________ intrusion into wells.
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Q1) Glacial streams deposit their sediment downstream from the glacier as __________.
Q2) A/an __________ is a long, snake-like ridge formed as the channel deposit of a stream that flowed within or beneath a melting glacier.
Q3) The most recent ice age occurred during the __________ Epoch.
Q4) The higher-elevation part of a glacier is called the zone of ablation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Ice in the upper 40 meters of a glacier fractures to form crevasses.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ice sheets of Greenland and Antarctica contain __________ percent of the world's ice.
A) 25
B) 75
C) 50
D) 99
Q7) __________ is a lithified glacial deposit.
Page 16
Q8) __________ __________ is glacier movement as a viscous fluid.
Q9) __________ is sediment that was deposited directly by a glacier.
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Q1) The sand on the slip face of a dune is loose compared to the windward face.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Deserts never occur along coastlines.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a barchan dune migrates, the edges move more slowly because there is more sand to transport.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A dune that accumulates as long ridges that align perpendicularly to the prevailing wind is a __________ dune.
A) parabolic
B) transverse
C) barchan
D) longitudinal
Q5) Windblown sand is an effective agent of erosion.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The growth of a desert by human mismanagement is called __________.
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Q1) A circular coral reef that forms a ring of island around a central lagoon is a/an
Q2) The west coast of South America is a passive continental margin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) At sea-floor vents, bacteria produce energy from hydrogen sulfide in a process called:
A) sea-floor spreading.
B) photosynthesis.
C) subduction.
D) chemosynthesis.
Q4) An oceanic island:
A) rises isostatically as it becomes older.
B) is a seamount that rises above sea level.
C) is a guyot that forms adjacent to a hot spot.
D) is composed entirely of terrigenous sediment.
Q5) Pillow basalt comprises most of layer 2 of oceanic crust. A)True B)False
Q6) Oceanic crust is mostly composed of __________.
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Q1) High and low tides occur at the same time every day.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The wave height is the:
A) highest part of a wave.
B) distance between successive crests.
C) fetch of a wave.
D) vertical distance between the crest and the trough of a wave.
Q3) Sea level has risen and fallen repeatedly in the geologic past, and coastlines have emerged and submerged throughout the history of the planet.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A long ridge of sand or gravel extending out from a beach is called a/an
Q5) Longshore currents cannot carry sand and sediment for long distances. A)True
B)False
Q6) When deep ocean water rises to the surface, the upward flow is called a/an
Q7) A/an __________ is any strip of shoreline washed by waves and tides.
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Q1) __________ __________ reacts in moist air to produce sulfuric acid.
Q2) The largest source of air pollutants in the United States is/are __________.
A) power plants
B) transportation
C) factories
D) wood-burning stoves
Q3) Smog is produced:
A) when sulfur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen dissolve in water droplets in the atmosphere.
B) by nuclear fission reactors.
C) by atmospheric inversion.
D) when sunlight reacts with automobile exhaust.
Q4) At the time of the First Great Oxidation Event, the oxygen concentration in Earth's atmosphere increased:
A) from 15 to 21 percent.
B) due to oxygen production by zooplankton.
C) from trace amounts to appreciable quantities.
D) due to accelerated weathering caused by lichens.
Q5) __________ are particles that are suspended in air.
Q6) The ozone hole occurs in the layer of the atmosphere known as the __________.
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Q1) The region of the globe directly beneath the Sun is warmer because it receives:
A) the least concentrated radiation.
B) the most concentrated radiation.
C) light of a different frequency.
D) light of a different wavelength.
Q2) If you place a pan of water and a rock outside on a hot summer day, the:
A) rock and the water heat to equal temperatures.
B) water becomes hotter than the rock.
C) rock becomes hotter than the water.
D) rock receives a larger quantity of solar radiation.
Q3) __________ is the transport of heat by currents in liquids or gases.
Q4) Continental interiors are commonly cooler in summer and warmer in winter than coastal areas.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When the energy in a photon is transferred to an electron in a molecule, the electron jumps to a/an __________ __________.
Q6) The __________ traps heat radiating from Earth and acts as an insulating blanket.
Q7) __________ are particles of light.
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Q1) When a moving mass of cool, dense air slides under a warm air mass forcing the warm air upward, this process is called __________ __________.
Q2) When condensation occurs above the elevation at which air stops rising, __________ clouds form.
A) cumulus
B) stratus
C) cirrus
D) no
Q3) El NiƱo is a weather pattern caused by:
A) increased upwelling at the west coast of South America.
B) the slackening of the trade winds in the Pacific Ocean.
C) orographic lifting.
D) frontal wedging.
Q4) Which of the following statements about atmospheric humidity is correct?
A) Dew forms when warm, moist air comes in contact with cool surfaces.
B) Rain or fog is likely to occur when cool, moist air is heated.
C) Cold air can hold more moisture than warm air.
D) Fog occurs when warm, moist air from the ocean blows over warmer land surfaces.
Q5) __________ clouds are fluffy clouds with flat bottoms and billowy tops.
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Q1) When geologists study the climate of a region over time, they must separate the effects of tectonic movement from global climate change.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An urban heat island effect arises from:
A) factors in the urban environment.
B) factors in the rural environment.
C) differences in geothermal energy between city and rural areas.
D) differences in natural radioactivity between city and rural areas.
Q3) The __________ biome consists of conifers that can survive extremely cold winters.
Q4) Continental interiors where the temperature can fluctuate greatly between hot summers and cold winters are in the __________ climate zone.
A) Mediterranean
B) marine west coast
C) humid continental
D) tropical savanna
Q5) The __________ __________ __________ is used by climatologists throughout the world to define principle climate groups.
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Q1) Which of the following is not true for carbon dioxide? It:
A) dissolves in seawater.
B) is destroyed when organic matter is burned.
C) reacts with other chemicals to form solid rocks.
D) absorbs infrared radiation.
Q2) As temperature increases, the ratio of <sup>18</sup>O to <sup>16</sup>O in hard tissues, such as bone and shell, of many organisms __________.
Q3) Temperature records for the past 125 years show a steady temperature increase at a constant rate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When fossil fuels burn, carbon is released into the atmosphere as __________ __________.
Q5) Snow and ice have __________ albedos and __________ Earth by reflecting sunlight.
A) low, warm
B) low, cool
C) high, warm
D) high, cool
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Q1) Ptolemy modified the celestial sphere model to incorporate __________
Q2) The __________ is the narrow band on Earth where the Sun is completely blocked out during a solar eclipse.
A) corona
B) umbra
C) penumbra
D) resolution
Q3) Normally, the Moon lies out of the plane of the Earth's orbit around the Sun.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A full moon occurs when the Moon is on the opposite side of the Earth from the Sun and its entire sunlit area is visible.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In Aristotle's model, celestial __________ surround Earth.
A) prisms
B) cubes
C) spheres
D) ellipsoids
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Q1) Which of the following orders of sizes is correct?
A) Uranus > Earth > Mercury
B) Jupiter > the Moon > Earth
C) Pluto > Saturn > the Moon
D) Saturn > Mars > Earth
Q2) Titan's large size and low temperature allow it to have an atmosphere.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The surface of Jupiter consists mainly of:
A) cold liquid metallic hydrogen and atomic helium.
B) hot liquid hydrogen.
C) oxygen, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, argon, and water.
D) hydrogen, helium, ammonia, methane, water, and hydrogen sulfide.
Q4) The Solar System formed from a:
A) hot, dense cloud of fusing hydrogen and helium.
B) cold, diffuse cloud of fusing hydrogen and helium.
C) hot, dense cloud of dust and gas.
D) cold, diffuse cloud of dust and gas.
Q5) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune have retained large amounts of hydrogen and helium and are called the __________ __________.
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Q1) The __________ __________ of a star is its brightness as seen 10 parsec away from Earth.
Q2) The galactic halo and globular clusters are probably remnants of the original protogalaxy that condensed to form the Milky Way.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A red giant:
A) has an extremely hot surface.
B) has an inner core of fusing hydrogen.
C) has a surface of fusing helium.
D) is hundreds of times larger than an ordinary star.
Q4) Up to 96 percent of our Universe is invisible dark matter.
A)True B)False
Q5) A/an __________ is smaller than a galaxy, emits more energy, and usually exhibits a large red shift.
Q6) The Sun is composed primarily of hydrogen and __________.
Q7) Neutron stars are extremely diffuse.
A)True B)False
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