Physiotherapy Practice and Pharmacology Exam Review
Course Introduction
This course explores the integration of physiotherapy practice with foundational pharmacological principles. Students will examine how medications influence physical therapy interventions, considering the effects of various drug classes on the musculoskeletal, neurological, and cardiopulmonary systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding drug actions, interactions, side effects, and their implications for patient assessment, treatment planning, and clinical outcomes. Through case studies and applied learning, students will develop the skills necessary to collaborate effectively with other healthcare professionals and to optimize patient safety and therapeutic efficacy in a multidisciplinary environment.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology in Rehabilitation 5th Edition by Charles D. Ciccone
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37 Chapters
343 Verified Questions
343 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1007 Page 2
Chapter 1: Basic Principles of Pharmacology
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19949
Sample Questions
Q1) When evaluating drug safety,the dosage that causes 50 percent of subjects to exhibit a specific adverse effect is known as the
A) median therapeutic dose
B) median toxic dose
C) therapeutic index
D) ceiling effect
E) threshold dose
Answer: B
Q2) The generic form of a drug is considered to be as safe and effective as the original,brand-name product if the generic form _________ as the brand-name drug.
A) has the same type and amount of the active ingredient(s)
B) uses the same administration route
C) has the same pharmacokinetic profile (drug absorption, plasma levels, and so forth)
D) produces the same therapeutic effects
E) all the above are true
Answer: E
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3
Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics IDrug
Administration,Absorption,and
Distribution
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19950
Sample Questions
Q1) The ______ effect occurs when drugs are transported initially to the liver where a significant amount of the drug may be metabolized and destroyed before the drug reaches its primary site of action.
A) malabsorptive
B) first pass
C) Bohr
D) bioequivalence
E) pharmacodynamic
Answer: B
Q2) All of the following are parenteral routes of drug administration EXCEPT the ____ route.
A) oral
B) inhalation
C) injection
D) topical
E) transdermal
Answer: A
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Pharmacokinetics II: Drug Elimination
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19951
Sample Questions
Q1) Variations in drug response may occur because of individual differences in the patient's
A) age
B) genetic background
C) gender
D) diet
E) all the above are true
Answer: E
Q2) Drug metabolism that occurs when a drug is changed chemically following administration is also known as
A) biotransformation
B) excretion
C) retoxification
D) degradation
E) allosterification
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Drug Receptors
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19952
Sample Questions
Q1) A noncompetitive antagonist
A) has a more or less equal opportunity to occupy the receptor as the agonist
B) forms rather weak bonds with the receptor
C) produces inhibition that can be overcome by administering high concentrations of the agonist
D) all of the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) A drug that binds to a receptor and directly initiates a change in the function of the cell is referred to as
A) an agonist
B) an antagonist
C) a synergist
D) a compliment
Q3) The primary location for receptors that recognize drugs and endogenous compounds is
A) on the surface of the cell
B) in the cytoplasm of the cell
C) on the cell's nuclear membrane
D) on the cell's chromosomes
E) on the ribosomes
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Chapter 5: General Principles of Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19953
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs can alter CNS neurotransmission by affecting neurotransmitter
A) synthesis in the presynaptic terminal
B) release from the presynaptic terminal
C) degradation or breakdown at the synapse
D) reuptake into the presynaptic terminal
E) all the above are true
Q2) Certain drugs are not able to pass from the bloodstream into the CNS because of the unique structure and function of the CNS capillaries,known commonly as the A) blood-brain barrier
B) circle of Willis
C) glomerulus
D) septum pellucidum
E) corpus callosum
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Chapter 6: Sedative Hypnotic and Anti-anxiety Agents
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19954
Sample Questions
Q1) When certain sedative-hypnotics are suddenly discontinued,sleep disturbances may actually increase.This situation is known commonly as
A) tardive dyskinesia
B) anterograde amnesia
C) rebound insomnia
D) malignant hyperthermia
E) none of the above are true
Q2) When used to treat anxiety disorders,buspirone (BuSpar)acts by increasing the effects of _________ in certain areas of the brain,whereas more traditional antianxiety drugs such as Valium increase the inhibitory effects of _______ in the CNS.
A) GABA; serotonin
B) serotonin; GABA
C) GABA; acetylcholine
D) acetylcholine; serotonin
E) serotonin; dopamine
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Chapter 7: Drugs to Treat Affective Disorders Depression and Bipolar Syndrome
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19955
Sample Questions
Q1) According to the neurogenesis basis for depression,antidepressant drugs may increase the CNS production of ____,thereby leading to increased synaptic connections in the _____.
A) dopamine; basal ganglia
B) dopamine; hippocampus
C) brain-derived neurotrophic factor; basal ganglia
D) brain-derived neurotrophic factor; hippocampus
E) acetylcholine; cerebellum
Q2) Tricyclic antidepressants work by ______ the reuptake of ______ into the presynaptic terminal of certain CNS neurons.
A) increasing; amine neurotransmitters
B) inhibiting; amine neurotransmitters
C) increasing; amino acids
D) inhibiting; amino acids
E) increasing; acetylcholine
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Chapter 8: Antipsychotic Drugs
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19956
Sample Questions
Q1) Schizophrenia appears to be caused primarily by an overactivity of _______ pathways in certain parts of the brain such as the limbic system.
A) dopamine
B) acetylcholine
C) norepinephrine
D) 5-hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)
E) gama-amino butyric acid (GABA)
Q2) Antipsychotic drugs can result in the production of abnormal movement patterns known as
A) intra-articular symptoms
B) extrapyramidal symptoms
C) spinocerebellar symptoms
D) dorsal column symptoms
E) malignant hyperthermia
Q3) Antipsychotics are often used in Alzheimer disease and other cases of dementia
A) to improve cognition and memory
B) to improve balance
C) to help control aggression and agitation
D) to increase vomiting and diarrhea
E) none of the above
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Chapter 9: Antiepileptic Drugs
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19957
Sample Questions
Q1) Barbiturates are considered to be very safe and effective in the treatment of seizures,but their use is often limited because of their strong tendency to produce A) sedation
B) myopathy
C) cardiac dysrhythmias
D) hair loss
E) glaucoma
Q2) Neuropathic pain and certain other chronic pain syndromes may respond to treatment with _____,presumably because these drugs reduce excitation in specific pain pathways in the CNS.
A) amphetamines such as dextroamphetamine
B) antiseizure drugs such as gabapentin (Neurontin) and pregabalin (Lyrica)
C) anticholinergic drugs such as atropine
D) all the above
E) none of the above
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Chapter 10: Pharmacologic Management of Parkinson Disease
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19958
Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent premature conversion of L-dopa to dopamine in the bloodstream,L-dopa is often administered with carbidopa because carbidopa is
A) a dopamine antagonist
B) an anticholinergic drug
C) a cholinesterase inhibitor
D) a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor
E) an antioxidant
Q2) Oral administration of dopamine is NOT effective in the treatment of Parkinson disease because dopamine is
A) degraded into L-DOPA in the blood stream
B) digested in the stomach
C) unable to pass from the blood stream into the brain
D) degraded by dopa decarboxylase in the blood stream
E) none of the above
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12
Chapter 11: General Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19959
Sample Questions
Q1) When general anesthetics are administered by the inhalation route,a major advantage is they
A) take effect slowly
B) take effect rapidly
C) permit better control over the level of anesthesia
D) allow the patient to spend more time in Stage I of anesthesia
E) allow the patient to spend more time in Stage II of anesthesia
Q2) Place the stages listed below in the proper sequence that occurs as the dosage of general anesthesia increases.
1) medullary paralysis
2) surgical anesthesia
3) excitement (delirium)
4) analgesia without amnesia
A) 3, 4, 1, 2
B) 4, 3, 2, 1
C) 1, 3, 2, 4
D) 4, 3, 1, 2
E) 3, 4, 2, 1
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Chapter 12: Local Anesthetics
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19960
Sample Questions
Q1) Absorption of local anesthetics into the system circulation is dangerous because these drugs can
A) decrease the force of cardiac contraction
B) cause bradycardia
C) inhibit respiratory control centers in the CNS
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST)is typically treated by administering A) general anesthetics
B) an emulsion of lipid compounds that soak up the lipophilic local anesthetic molecules
C) an amphetamine or other CNS stimulant to reduce CNS excitation caused by the local anesthetic
D) a beta blocker to reverse myocardial depression caused by the local anesthetic
E) other drugs that block sodium channels throughout the body
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14
Chapter 13: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19961
Sample Questions
Q1) The muscle relaxant that directly inhibits acetylcholine release from presynaptic terminals at the skeletal neuromuscular junction is
A) baclofen
B) botulinum toxin
C) dantrolene sodium
D) tizanidine
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Muscle relaxant effects of botulinum toxin appear to diminish or wear off after several months because
A) the immune system destroys the toxin
B) the muscle hypertrophies and generates more muscle fibers
C) a new presynaptic terminal "sprouts" from the axon was originally affected by the toxin
D) the liver metabolizes the toxin
E) the toxin is excreted intact in the urine
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15
Chapter 14: Opioid Analgesics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19962
Sample Questions
Q1) Opioid analgesics are also known commonly as _______ because they tend to have sedative or sleep-inducing side effects and high doses can produce a state of unresponsiveness and stupor.
A) narcotics
B) narcoleptics
C) neuroleptics
D) naturopathics
E) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
Q2) The onset of withdrawal symptoms (body aches,shivering,sweating,and so forth)after sudden discontinuation of opioid analgesics is an example of A) drug tolerance
B) physical dependence
C) psychological dependence
D) anaphylaxis
E) drug intolerance
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Chapter 15: Non-steroidal Anti Inflammatory Drugs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19963
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common problem associated with NSAIDs such as aspirin is
A) fever
B) dizziness
C) gastrointestinal damage
D) sedation
E) suppression of adrenal cortex activity
Q2) Several COX-2 selective inhibitors such as rofecoxib (Vioxx)and valdecoxib (Bextra)have been taken off the market because these drugs can cause serious side effects such as
A) liver failure
B) brain tumors
C) heart attack and stroke
D) kidney failure
E) skeletal muscle inflammation and myopathy
Q3) Prostaglandins are
A) small proteins that inhibit cellular inflammation
B) a specific type of lymphocyte involved in the inflammatory process
C) carbohydrates that regulate cell division
D) steroids that increase cellular metabolism
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 16: Pharmacologic Management of Rheumatoid
Arthritis and Osteoarthritis
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19964
Sample Questions
Q1) In certain patients with osteoarthritis,viscosupplementation is preformed to restore the lubricating properties of synovial fluid by
A) administering oral anti-inflammatory steroids
B) administering oral NSAIDs
C) injecting anti-inflammatory steroids directly into the affected joint
D) injecting hyaluronan directly into the affected joint
E) injecting NSAIDs directly into the affected joint
Q2) When treating an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis in a specific joint,anti-inflammatory steroids (glucocorticoids)can be injected directly into the joint,but the number of injections should be limited to _____ per year.
A) 2-3
B) 5-6
C) 8-10
D) 12-15
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18
Chapter 17: Patient Controlled Analgesia
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19965
Sample Questions
Q1) The technique where the patient self-administers small doses of a pain medication (usually an opioid)at relatively frequent intervals to provide optimal pain relief is known commonly as
A) traditional oral pain medication
B) intracranial drug delivery
C) patient-controlled analgesia
D) continuous transdermal drug administration
E) none of the above are true
Q2) The use of a single large dose of pain medication to establish analgesia prior to patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)is known as
A) the loading dose
B) the demand dose
C) the background infusion rate
D) the postoperative sedative
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Autonomic Pharmacology
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19966
Sample Questions
Q1) In most peripheral tissues,sympathetic postganglionic neurons release ____ that binds directly to ____ receptors.
A) epinephrine; adrenergic
B) epinephrine; cholinergic
C) norepinephrine; adrenergic
D) norepinephrine; cholinergic
E) acetylcholine; adrenergic
Q2) A drug that affects nicotinic cholinergic receptors will affect activity in both divisions of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)because
A) nicotinic cholinergic receptors are found on all organs and tissues innervated by the ANS
B) nicotinic cholinergic receptors are located at the junction between preganglionic and postganglionic neurons in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways
C) both divisions of the ANS affect peripheral tissues by releasing epinephrine onto those tissues
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 19: Cholinergic Drugs
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3 Verified Questions
3 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19967
Sample Questions
Q1) Indirect-acting cholinergic stimulants increase activity at cholinergic synapses by inhibiting the _______ enzyme
A) monoamine oxidase type A
B) monoamine oxidase type B
C) acetylcholinesterase
D) choline acetyltransferase
E) dopa decarboxylase
Q2) Cholinergic antagonists can be useful in the treatment of the following conditions EXCEPT
A) motion sickness
B) irritable bowel syndrome
C) overactive urinary bladder
D) tachycardia
E) Parkinson disease
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Chapter 20: Adrenergic Drugs
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5 Verified Questions
5 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19968
Sample Questions
Q1) To increase cardiac output,a drug should selectively _____ receptors on the heart.
A) stimulate; alpha-1
B) inhibit; alpha-1
C) stimulate; alpha-2
D) inhibit; alpha-2
E) stimulate; beta-1
Q2) A drug that selectively stimulates alpha-1 adrenergic receptors will cause
A) vasoconstriction of peripheral arterioles
B) increased heart rate
C) decreased blood pressure
D) bronchodilation
Q3) Adrenergic antagonists that are selective for the beta-1 subtype (i.e.,beta-1 blockers)can be useful in the treatment of
A) high blood pressure
B) heart failure
C) certain cardiac arrhythmias
D) recovery from myocardial infarction
E) all the above are true
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22
Chapter 21: Antihypertensive Drugs
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19969
Sample Questions
Q1) Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitors can help _____ blood pressure by _____ the formation of angiotensin II.
A) increase; increasing
B) increasing; decreasing
C) decreasing; increasing
D) decrease; decreasing
E) none of the above are true
Q2) A sudden severe,life-threatening increase in blood pressure (autonomic crisis)should be treated with
A) diuretics
B) alpha-1 agonists
C) alpha-2 antagonists
D) beta-agonists
E) ganglionic blockers
Q3) Diuretics ______ the excretion of water by _______ sodium reabsorption at the kidneys.
A) increase; inhibiting
B) decrease; inhibiting
C) increase; stimulating
D) decrease; stimulating
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Chapter 22: Treatment of Angina Pectoris
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19970
Sample Questions
Q1) Variant angina that is caused by coronary artery vasospasm (known also Prinzmetal's ischemia)is best treated with
A) nitrates such as nitroglycerin
B) beta blockers
C) calcium channel blockers
D) alpha-1 agonists
E) alpha-2 antagonists
Q2) Beta blockers help prevent angina pectoris in certain patients because these drugs
A) decrease myocardial oxygen demand
B) increase myocardial oxygen supply
C) decrease oxygen demand in peripheral tissues (skeletal muscle)
D) increase cardiac output
E) decrease blood flow to the heart
Q3) To avoid the first pass effect,nitroglycerin can be administered
A) sublingually
B) buccally
C) via transdermal patches
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Treatment of Cardiac Arrhythmias
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19971
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drug categories is NOT used to treat cardiac arrhythmias?
A) sodium channel blockers
B) chloride channel blockers
C) beta blockers
D) calcium channel blockers
E) drugs that prolong cardiac repolarization
Q2) Depending on the dose and route of administration,lidocaine and similar drugs can be used as local anesthetics or cardiac antiarrhythmic drugs because these drugs affect the excitability of _____ ion channels.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) chloride
D) calcium
E) magnesium
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25
Chapter 24: Treatment of Congestive Heart Failure
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19972
Sample Questions
Q1) In people with heart failure,the best drugs for reducing excessive sympathetic stimulation of the failing heart are
A) alpha blockers
B) beta blockers
C) angiotensin II receptor blockers
D) calcium channel blockers
E) diuretics
Q2) Angiotensin enzyme (ACE)inhibitors are often essential in treating heart failure because ACE inhibitors
A) stimulate renin production from the kidneys
B) increase heart rate
C) prevent the detrimental effects of epinephrine on the failing heart
D) may increase life expectancy in people with heart failure
E) all the above are true
Q3) The primary cardiac problem in digitalis toxicity is
A) decreased coronary blood flow
B) increased coronary oxygen demand
C) decreased cardiac intracellular sodium concentration.
D) arrhythmia
E) isolated systolic hypotension
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Chapter 25: Treatment of Coagulation Disorders and Hyperlipidemia
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19973
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following drugs will inhibit platelet-induced clots EXCEPT
A) adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor blockers such as clopidogrel (Plavix) and ticlopidine (Ticlid)
B) glycoprotein (GP) IIb-IIIa receptor blockers such as abciximab (ReoPro) and eptifibatide (Integrilin)
C) anti-gout drugs such as sulfinpyrazone (Anturane)
D) acetaminophen products such as Tylenol
E) aspirin
Q2) In a patient with acute deep vein thrombosis (DVT),anticoagulant therapy is typically initiated with _____ to achieve rapid control of clotting,and then switched over to _____ for long-term management or prevention of DVT.
A) heparin; oral anticoagulants
B) oral anticoagulants; thrombin
C) thrombin; tissue plasminogen activator
D) tissue plasminogen activator; fibrinolysis inhibitors
E) oral anticoagulants; heparin
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19974
Sample Questions
Q1) To selectively produce bronchodilation,a drug should _____ receptors in airway smooth muscle
A) stimulate beta-1
B) inhibit beta-1
C) stimulate beta-2
D) inhibit beta-2
E) stimulate alpha-1
Q2) Which of the following drugs will promote bronchodilation?
A) drugs that stimulate acetylcholine receptors on airway smooth muscle
B) drugs that block (antagonize) beta-2 receptors on airway smooth muscle
C) xanthine derivatives such as theophylline
D) all of these drugs cause bronchodilation
E) none of these drugs cause bronchodilation
Q3) Drugs that antagonize (block)the H1 subtype of histamine receptors
A) are effective in treating gastric ulcers
B) are effective in treating sedation
C) are known as antihistamines
D) all the above are true
E) A and B only are true
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Gastrointestinal Drugs
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To improve the health and well-being of people with cystic fibrosis (CF),____ can be given to ____.
A) digestant preparations that contain pancreatic enzymes and bile salts; improve digestion and absorption of nutrients
B) products that contain deoxyribonuclease enzymes; decrease the viscosity of mucous in the respiratory tract
C) glucocorticoids; decrease inflammation in the airway
D) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs; decrease inflammation in the airway E) all the above
Q2) Natural and synthetic opioid drugs _____ gastrointestinal motility,and are therefore useful in treating _____.
A) increase; diarrhea
B) decrease; diarrhea
C) increase; constipation
D) decrease; constipation
E) none of the above are true; opioids do not affect gastrointestinal motility
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Chapter 28: Introduction to Endocrine Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hormones released from the posterior pituitary are synthesized by neurons originating in the
A) anterior pituitary
B) intermediate lobe of the pituitary
C) hypothalamus
D) thalamus
E) cerebellum
Q2) Steroid hormones share a common chemical framework that is derived from
A) proteins such as insulin
B) insulin-like growth factor
C) carbohydrates such as glucose
D) glycogen
E) lipids such as cholesterol
Q3) A toxin that selectively destroys the alpha cells of the pancreas would impair the production of
A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) somatostatin
D) digestive proteases
E) digestive lipases
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Chapter 29: Adrenocorticosteroids
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19977
Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged,systemic administration of glucocorticoids can produce A) osteoporosis
B) muscle wasting
C) hypertension
D) suppression of the adrenal gland
E) all the above are true
Q2) Replacement doses of glucocorticoids (e.g.cortisol)and mineralocortoids (e.g.aldosterone)are typically administered to maintain optimal health in patients with A) Addison disease
B) Cushing syndrome
C) hypertension
D) severe muscle wasting (hypercatabolic state)
E) all the above
Q3) Mineralocorticoids such as aldosterone act on the kidneys to _____
A) increase sodium excretion
B) increase water excretion
C) increase potassium reabsorption
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 30: Male and Female Hormones
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11 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19978
Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that block progesterone receptors (i.e.,antiprogestins)such as mifepristone can be used clinically to
A) terminate pregnancy during the early stages of gestation
B) decrease pain and bleeding caused by benign uterine fibroid growths (leiomyomas, endometriois)
C) prevent hyperglycemia caused by excess cortisol production in Cushing syndrome
D) all the above
E) A and B only
Q2) At the onset of puberty,increased testosterone production from the testes typically produces all of the following effects EXCEPT
A) increased body mass
B) increased body hair
C) deeper voice
D) maturation of the external genitalia
E) inhibition of spermatogenesis
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32
Chapter 31: Thyroid and Parathyroid Drugs: Agents
Affecting Bone Mineralization
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9 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged,large doses of parathyroid hormone ______ bone breakdown,and small,intermittent amounts of parathyroid hormone ______ bone synthesis and remodeling.
A) decrease; decrease
B) decrease; increase
C) increase; decrease
D) increase; increase
E) none of the above are true
Q2) All of the following symptoms are associated with hyperthyroidism EXCEPT A) weight loss
B) bradycardia
C) insomnia
D) heat intolerance
E) muscle wasting
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33
Chapter 32: Pancreatic Hormones and the Treatment of
Diabetes Mellitus
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8 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) People who are on insulin therapy for diabetes mellitus are more at risk for hypoglycemia if
A) they administer too much insulin
B) they skip a meal
C) they exercise too strenuously
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Certain forms of biosynthetic insulin are absorbed more rapidly than regular human insulin because
A) other substances such as acetate or protamine have been added to the insulin molecule in increase absorption
B) zinc has been added to the insulin molecule to increase absorption
C) newer forms of biosynthetic insulin can be administered orally via slow-release or sustained-release preparations
D) the amino acid sequence of the insulin molecule has been altered to allow more rapid absorption
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 33: Treatment of Infections I: Antibacterial Drugs
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/19981
Sample Questions
Q1) Aminoglycosides,erythromycin,the tetracyclines,and several other antibacterial drugs affect the function of the bacterial _______,thereby impairing______ in the bacterial cell.
A) nucleus; messenger RNA transcription
B) ribosome; messenger RNA translation
C) membrane; active transport
D) ribosome; passive diffusion
E) nucleus; messenger RNA translation
Q2) Beta-lactamase inhibitors such as clavulanate,sulbactam,and tazobactam are typically combined with a specific type of penicillin
A) to increase the absorption of penicillin from the GI tract
B) to enhance the penetration of penicillin into the bacterial cell
C) to prevent the beta-lactamase enzyme from destroying the penicillin
D) to prevent excessive excretion of the penicillin from the kidneys (i.e., more penicillin is retained in the body)
E) none of the above are true
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Chapter 34: Treatment of Infections II: Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viral infections are often more difficult to treat than other types of infections because
A) viruses contain organelles (ribosomes, mitochondria, etc.) that are naturally resistant to antiviral drugs
B) virus particles are much larger in size than other infectious microorganisms such as bacteria
C) viruses penetrate into human cells, and cannot be easily killed without harming the human cell
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Interferons are small proteins that
A) exert nonspecific antiviral activity
B) control cell differentiation
C) limit excessive cell proliferation
D) modify certain immune processes
E) all the above are true
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Chapter 35: Treatment of Infections III: Antifungal and Antiparasitic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cutaneous and mucocutaneous infections such as tinea (ringworm)infections and candidiasis are typically treated with
A) local or topical antibacterial drugs
B) local or topical antifungal drugs
C) systemic doses of antibacterial drugs
D) systemic doses of antifungal drugs
E) antiviral drugs
Q2) Many antifungal drugs selectively affect fungal cells rather than human cells by impairing the synthesis or function of specific sterols and polysaccharides that are located in the fungal cell
A) membrane
B) mitochondria
C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) rough endoplasmic reticulum
E) DNA
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Chapter 36: Cancer Chemotherapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aspirin and similar NSAIDs may help prevent colorectal cancer and other malignancies by inhibiting the production of ______.
A) new blood vessels
B) tumor necrosis factor alpha
C) interferons
D) interleukins
E) prostaglandins
Q2) Which of the following drug categories is not used to treat cancer?
A) alkylating agents
B) antimetabolites
C) interferons
D) drugs that increase mitosis
E) endocrines
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Chapter 37: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cyclosporine,an immunosuppressant that is commonly used to prevent organ rejection,is often modified into microemulsion capsules so that
A) the drugs disperses more easily within the GI tract
B) absorption of the drug from the GI tract is more predictable
C) it is not as toxic to the kidneys and other tissues
D) all the above are true
E) none of the above are true
Q2) Glucocorticoids such as prednisone are often used to suppress immune function following organ transplant,but long-term use of these drugs can also cause
A) hypertension
B) increased chance of infection
C) adrenocortical suppression
D) breakdown of muscle, bone, skin, and various other tissues
E) all the above are true
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