Physiotherapy Foundations Textbook Exam Questions - 2056 Verified Questions

Page 1


Physiotherapy Foundations

Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Physiotherapy Foundations introduces students to the core principles and practices underlying physiotherapy as a health profession. The course covers basic human anatomy, physiology, and biomechanics relevant to movement and function, alongside essential concepts regarding the role of physiotherapy in health care. Students explore the foundational approaches for assessment, clinical reasoning, and evidence-based practice, as well as the ethical and professional standards that guide patient care. Emphasis is placed on developing fundamental skills, communication abilities, and a holistic understanding of factors influencing rehabilitation and physical well-being.

Recommended Textbook

Anatomy and Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 8th Edition by Saladin

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Chapter 1: Major Themes of Anatomy and Physiology

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Sample Questions

Q1) During exercise,one generates excess heat and the body temperature rises.As a response,blood vessels dilate in the skin,warm blood flows closer to the body surface,and heat is lost.This is an example of __________.

A) negative feedback

B) positive feedback

C) dynamic equilibrium

D) integration control

E) set point adjustment

Answer: A

Q2) Hypercalcemia means _________.

A) elevated calcium levels in blood

B) lowered calcium levels in bone

C) elevated sodium levels in blood

D) elevated calcium levels in bone

E) lowered calcium levels in the blood

Answer: A

Q3) We can see through bones with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life

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Sample Questions

Q1) Potential energy stored in bonds is released as __________ energy.

A) electromagnetic

B) electrical

C) chemical

D) heat

E) kinetic

Answer: C

Q2) Triglycerides consist of a 3-carbon compound called __________ bound to three

A) pyruvate;fatty acids

B) lactate;glycerols

C) eicosanoid;steroids

D) glycerol;fatty acids

E) sterol;fatty acids

Answer: D

Q3) Ionic bonds break apart in water more easily than covalent bonds do.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Cellular Form and Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cellular membranes are permeable to _________,but impermeable to

A) nutrients;wastes

B) proteins;nutrients

C) phosphates;wastes

D) nutrients;proteins

E) wastes;nutrients

Answer: D

Q2) Both the nucleus and the mitochondrion are surrounded by a two layer membrane.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q3) Which of the following is not considered an inclusion?

A) Lysosome

B) Fat droplet

C) Glycogen granule

D) Bacterium

E) Dust particle

Answer: A

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Genetics of Cellular Function

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following participate in DNA replication except __________.

A) DNA

B) ribosomes

C) DNA ligase

D) DNA helicase

E) DNA polymerase

Q2) Which of the following omits some stage(s)of the cell cycle?

A) G1,S,G2,mitosis

B) Interphase,mitosis

C) G1,DNA replication,G2,mitosis

D) Prophase,metaphase,anaphase,telophase,cytokinesis

E) Interphase,prophase,metaphase,anaphase,telophase,cytokinesis

Q3) A mutation is __________.

A) a change in size or shape of a cell

B) a beneficial change in DNA structure

C) a harmful change in DNA structure

D) a neutral change in DNA structure

E) a change in DNA structure that might be beneficial,harmful,or neutral

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Chapter 5: Histology

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Q1) __________ epithelium provides a moist and slippery surface and is well suited to resist stress,as seen in the __________.

A) Transitional;tongue

B) Keratinized;tongue

C) Nonkeratinized;skin

D) Keratinized;skin

E) Nonkeratinized;vagina

Q2) Which of the following is not a feature that almost all connective tissues have in common?

A) Most cells are not in direct contact with each other.

B) Ground substance is so scarce that it is not visible with a light microscope.

C) Cells usually occupy less space than the extracellular material.

D) Protein fibers are usually present in the ground substance.

E) Most connective tissues are highly vascular.

Q3) Neurons are a major type of cell found in nervous tissue.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Connective tissues contain abundant cells that are on contact with one another.

A)True

B)False

Page 7

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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Skin covering the __________ has sweat glands but no hair follicles or sebaceous glands.

A) forearm

B) buttocks

C) abdomen

D) fingertips

E) back

Q2) Debridement is not necessary to infection control.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In which of the following skin layers would a subcutaneous injection be administered?

A) Stratum basale

B) Stratum spinosum

C) Stratum corneum

D) Dermis

E) Hypodermis

Q4) Living keratinocytes exfoliate from the epidermis as tiny specks called dander.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: Bone Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) Closed reduction is the surgical realignment of the parts of a broken bone.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The cortex of the long bone's diaphysis is made of _________.

A) marrow

B) compact bone

C) spongy bone

D) dense regular connective tissue

E) articular cartilage

Q3) The hemopoietic tissue in a bone is otherwise known as myeloid tissue.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The spaces found within the concentric lamellae are called __________,and they contain __________.

A) canaliculi;osteoblasts

B) osteons;stem cells

C) lacunae;osteocytes

D) lacunae;osteoclasts

E) central canals;osteocytes

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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Healthy paranasal sinuses are filled with mucus.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The __________ is a U-shaped bone that sits above the larynx yet does not articulate with any other bone.

A) hyoid bone

B) mandible

C) maxilla

D) zygomatic bone

Q3) The antebrachium contains the __________.

A) radius and ulna

B) humerus

C) carpals and metacarpals

D) scapula and clavicle

E) phalanges

Q4) Trochanters are unique to the femur.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 9: Joints

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Sample Questions

Q1) Radial (lateral)and ulnar (medial)collateral ligaments restrict side-to-side movements of the __________ joint.

A) shoulder

B) elbow

C) wrist

D) hip

E) knee

Q2) The joint between the first costal cartilage and the sternum,is a __________,whereas the other costal cartilages are joined to the sternum by __________ joints.

A) syndesmosis;synovial

B) synchondrosis;synovial

C) synostosis;cartilaginous

D) synarthrosis;cartilaginous

E) symphysis;cartilaginous

Q3) A synostosis is the most moveable type of joint.

A)True

B)False

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11

Chapter 10: The Muscular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following best describes the insertion of the extensor digitorum?

A) It indirectly inserts on all digits of the hand.

B) It indirectly inserts on all digits of the hand except the thumb.

C) It directly inserts on all digits of the hand.

D) It directly inserts on all digits of the hand except the thumb.

E) It directly inserts on the index finger only.

Q2) Some people suffer involuntary urination due to incompetence of what muscle?

A) External urethral sphincter

B) Bulbospongiosus

C) Compressor urethrae

D) Ischiocavernosus

E) Levator ani

Q3) Tendinous intersections divide the __________ into segments that are externally visible on the abdomen of a well-muscled person.

A) vastus lateralis

B) serratus anterior

C) rectus abdominis

D) quadriceps femoris

E) transverse abdominal

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Muscular Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) Drugs called calcium channel blockers may be used to lower blood pressure by causing arteries to vasodilate.How do you suppose these drugs work?

A) They prevent calcium from entering the sarcoplasmic reticulum of smooth muscle.

B) They stimulate the calcium pump in smooth muscle,thus removing calcium from the calmodulin.

C) They prevent calcium from exiting the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle.

D) They prevent calcium from entering cardiac muscle,thus slowing down the heart rate.

E) They prevent calcium from entering smooth muscle,thus allowing the muscle to relax.

Q2) Shortening a muscle while it maintains constant tension is called __________.

A) complete tetanus

B) incomplete tetanus

C) an isokinetic contraction

D) an isometric contraction

E) an isotonic contraction

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13

Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) Memories are formed by neural pathways of modified synapses.

A)True

B)False

Q2) While a neuron membrane is depolarizing its __________.

A) chloride gates are partially open

B) chloride gates are fully open

C) potassium gates are fully open

D) sodium gates are partially open

E) sodium gates are fully open

Q3) Which of the following are effectors?

A) Receptors

B) Stimuli

C) Reflexes

D) Glands

E) Sense organs

Q4) When a neuron is stimulated,Na<sup>+</sup> gates open and allow Na<sup>+</sup> to exit the cell.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord,spinal Nerves,and Somatic

Reflexes

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Sample Questions

Q1) The spinal cord is vitally important in processing complex information.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following is not a distal branch of the spinal nerve?

A) Anterior ramus

B) Posterior ramus

C) Posterior root

D) Meningeal branch

E) Communicating rami

Q3) Voluntary motor signals typically begin in an upper motor neuron in the thalamus.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Nerve fibers are insulated from one another by __________.

A) perineurium

B) endoneurium

C) fascicles

D) epineurium

E) blood vessels

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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves

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Sample Questions

Q1) The medulla oblongata is the most rostral part of the brain.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The __________ function(s)in visual attention,such as to look and follow the flight of a butterfly.

A) inferior colliculi

B) superior colliculi

C) tegmentum

D) red nucleus

E) substantia nigra

Q3) The epidural space is filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

A)True

B)False

Q4) If the cerebrum was no longer able to communicate with the midbrain,what type of tract would you suspect has been damaged?

A) Projection

B) Association

C) Commisural

D) Ascending

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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral

Reflexes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the parasympathetic division of the ANS?

A) Its effects are local.

B) The terminal ganglia are very close to or within their target organs.

C) It originates in the craniosacral regions of the CNS.

D) It has short preganglionic fibers.

E) It has short postganglionic fibers.

Q2) __________ is an example of the cooperative effect between the two autonomic nervous system divisions.

A) Orgasm

B) Bronchodilation

C) Gastrointestinal secretion

D) Heart rate

E) Vasomotor tone

Q3) The autonomic nervous system is composed of ganglia in the central nervous system and ganglia in the periphery.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 16: Sense Organs

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which cells are responsible for photopic (day)vision as well as trichromatic (color)vision?

A) Bipolar cells

B) Rods

C) Cones

D) Ganglion cells

E) Pigment cells

Q2) Which of the following structures is visible to the naked eye?

A) Lingual papilla

B) Taste (gustatory)cell

C) Taste hair

D) Taste bud

E) Taste pore

Q3) Gustatory signals travel from the tongue through the facial and glossopharyngeal nerves.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Transduction begins with an action potential in a sensory receptor.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The resistance stage in the general adaptation syndrome (stress response)is dominated by __________.

A) cortisol

B) epinephrine

C) norepinephrine

D) angiotensin

E) aldosterone

Q2) Which of the following is an increase in the number of receptors making a target cell more sensitive to a hormone?

A) Negative feedback inhibition

B) The antagonistic effect

C) Up-regulation

D) Enzyme amplification

E) Down-regulation

Q3) Addison disease is a consequence of a tumor of the adrenal medulla.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Thyroid hormone has a calorigenic effect.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 18: The Circulatory System: Blood

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Sample Questions

Q1) Platelets release __________,a chemical vasoconstrictor that contributes to the vascular spasm.

A) heparin

B) thrombin

C) thromboplastin

D) prostacyclin

E) serotonin

Q2) Blood groups are used for legal purposes and in anthropology.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Incompatibility of one person's blood with another results from the action of plasma antibodies against the RBCs' antigens.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following is not normally found in plasma?

A) Glycogen

B) Fibrinogen

C) Glucose

D) Urea

E) Albumin

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Chapter 19: The Circulatory System: Heart

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Sample Questions

Q1) The right atrioventricular valve (tricuspid)regulates the opening between the _________ and the _________.

A) right atrium;left atrium

B) right atrium;right ventricle

C) right atrium;left ventricle

D) left atrium;left ventricle

E) left ventricle;right ventricle

Q2) If the SA node is damaged,nodal rhythm is sufficient to sustain life.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Mitral valve prolapse causes blood to leak back into the __________ when the ventricles contract.

A) left atrium

B) right atrium

C) aorta

D) pulmonary trunk

E) pulmonary arteries

Q4) Parasympathetic stimulation reduces heart rate.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 20: The Circulatory System: Blood Vessels and Circulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements about TIAs and CVAs is true?

A) TIAs are often early warning signs of an impending stroke.

B) TIAs are the result of brain tissue death caused by ischemia.

C) A CVA usually results from spasms of diseased cerebral arteries.

D) TIAs often result in blindness and paralysis.

Q2) Which of the following would decrease capillary filtration?

A) Increased permeability of lymphatic capillaries

B) Dehydration

C) Increased capillary permeability

D) Dietary protein deficiency

E) Obstructed venous return

Q3) The pulmonary circuit is the only route in which arteries carry less oxygen than veins.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What are the afferent vessels that carry blood back to the heart?

A) Arteries

B) Arterioles

C) Veins

D) Capillaries

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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems

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Q1) Which of the following is something antibodies do not do?

A) Link antigen molecules together

B) Neutralize antigens by binding to regions of an antigen that can be pathogenic

C) Bind to enemy cells,thus changing their shape so their complement-binding sites are exposed

D) Differentiate into memory antibodies,which upon reexposure to the same pathogen would mount a quicker attack

E) Bind antigen molecules of two or more enemy cells and stick them together

Q2) When an enemy cell is present,a(n)__________ secretes perforins,which bore a hole in the enemy cell membrane.

A) interferon

B) interleukin

C) natural killer cell

D) antibody

E) opsonization

Q3) Red bone marrow is the point of origin of all immune cells of the lymphatic system.

A)True

B)False

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23

Chapter 22: The Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Air consists of about 78.6% nitrogen,20.9% oxygen,0.04% carbon dioxide,and 0.5% water.At sea level, (760 mmHg)what is the PCO<sub>2</sub>?

A) 597 mm Hg

B) 159 mm Hg

C) 0.3 mm Hg

D) 3.7 mm Hg

Q2) In a healthy person,which of the following will have the greatest influence on resistance to pulmonary airflow?

A) Atmospheric pressure

B) Respiratory rate

C) Bronchiole diameter

D) Quantity of surfactant

E) Contraction of the diaphragm

Q3) The expansion of the lungs during inspiration generates a pressure gradient causing air to flow into the lungs.This is an example of Boyle's law.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 23: The Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Loop diuretics reduce body water content by acting on the __________.

A) feedback loop between the kidney and posterior pituitary gland

B) countercurrent multiplier system

C) countercurrent exchanger system

D) aquaporins of the collecting duct

E) thirst mechanism and water intake

Q2) The countercurrent multiplier recaptures __________ and is based on fluid flowing in the __________ direction in two adjacent tubules.

A) potassium;same

B) calcium;opposite

C) calcium;same

D) sodium;opposite

E) sodium;same

Q3) Normal urine from a healthy person should not contain __________.

A) creatinine

B) urobilin

C) glucose

D) ammonia

E) magnesium

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Chapter 24: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fluid intake is governed mainly by hypothalamic neurons called .

A) baroreceptors

B) proprioceptors

C) nociceptors

D) osmoreceptors

E) mechanoreceptors

Q2) Hypovolemia refers to a reduction in total body water while maintaining normal osmolarity.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Blood plasma osmolarity is higher than intracellular fluid osmolarity.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What determines osmosis from one fluid compartment to another?

A) The temperature difference between compartments

B) The relative concentration of solutes in each compartment

C) The relative volume in each compartment

D) The relative size of each compartment

E) The blood pressure

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Chapter 25: The Digestive System

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Q1) The small intestine begins with the duodenum,which is its longest segment.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A sodium bicarbonate solution is secreted in response to a hormone called

A) insulin

B) cholecystokinin (CCK)

C) secretin

D) glucagon

E) gastrin

Q3) The stomach contains enteric pacemaker cells responsible for its regular churning motion and thus mechanical digestion.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Which of the following occurs in response to chemical irritants or sensory stimuli?

A) vomiting

B) mechanical digestion

C) segmentation

D) mass movement

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Chapter 26: Nutrition and Metabolism

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Q1) Which of the following occurs during the absorptive state?

A) Glucagon levels increase

B) Blood glucose falls

C) Fatty acids are oxidized for fuel

D) Lipolysis is occurring

E) Gluconeogenesis is suppressed

Q2) How is the basal metabolic rate (BMR)different from the total metabolic rate (TMR)?

A) The BMR includes the TMR.

B) The TMR includes the BMR.

C) The BMR is calculated when one is asleep.

D) The BMR includes energy expenditures for muscular contractions.

Q3) Fatty acids are catabolized through which process?

A) Beta oxidation

B) Ketogenesis

C) Lipogenesis

D) Lipolysis

E) The fat-sparing effect

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28

Chapter 27: The Male Reproductive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The __________ is an example of the female external genitalia.

A) scrotum

B) clitoris

C) uterine tube

D) seminal vesicle

E) vagina

Q2) Which of the following explains the neural mechanism of an erection?

A) It is an autonomic reflex mediated predominantly by parasympathetic nerve fibers.

B) It is an autonomic reflex mediated predominantly by sympathetic nerve fibers.

C) It is a somatic reflex mediated predominantly by parasympathetic nerve fibers.

D) It is a somatic reflex mediated predominantly by sympathetic nerve fibers.

E) It is an exclusively voluntary action mediated by the cerebral cortex.

Q3) Erectile dysfunction prevents ejaculation in most cases.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Sexual reproduction entails the union of two gonads to form a zygote.

A)True

B)False

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29

Chapter 28: The Female Reproductive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) After puberty,which epithelium lines the vagina?

A) Simple squamous epithelium

B) Stratified squamous epithelium

C) Transitional epithelium

D) Simple columnar epithelium

E) Simple cuboidal epithelium

Q2) What is a follicle composed of?

A) An organ in the ovary

B) An oocyte

C) An oocyte enclosed in follicular or granulosa cells

D) A group of granulosa cells

E) A group of follicular cells

Q3) The __________ sometimes expels copious fluid similar to prostatic fluid,which constitutes the female ejaculate.

A) prostate

B) paraurethral glands

C) bulbourethral glands

D) vestibular bulb

E) vaginal epithelium

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Page 30

Chapter 29: Human Development and Aging

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Sample Questions

Q1) Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS)is caused by __________.

A) production of very thick respiratory mucus

B) deficiency of pulmonary surfactant

C) underdeveloped respiratory epithelium

D) pulmonary edema

E) overinflated alveoli

Q2) A person in his or her 90's can increase muscle strength by two or three times with 40 minutes of isometric exercise per week.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Down syndrome (trisomy-21)results from _________.

A) a mutagen

B) nondisjunction

C) a teratogen

D) a sex-linked mutation

E) an autosomal recessive allele

Q4) The fetus deposits fat in its subcutaneous tissue in the 7th month of gestation.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 30: Atlas a General Orientation to Human

Anatomy

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Q1) The fatty membrane that hangs like an apron from the inferolateral margin of the stomach and overlies the small intestine is called the __________.

A) greater omentum

B) mesentery

C) mesocolon

D) lesser omentum

E) mediastinum

Q2) The __________ system stores 99% of your calcium and is critical for blood cell formation.

A) circulatory

B) skeletal

C) excretory

D) muscular

E) endocrine

Q3) When the abdomen is divided into nine regions,the most superior horizontal line is called the midclavicular line.

A)True

B)False

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