Physiology Laboratory Study Guide
Questions
Course Introduction
Physiology Laboratory is a hands-on course designed to complement theoretical knowledge from physiology lectures by engaging students in experimental investigations of bodily functions. Students will explore core physiological principles through practical experiments that measure and analyze functions such as muscle contraction, nerve transmission, cardiovascular dynamics, respiratory mechanisms, and renal activity. Emphasis is placed on the scientific method, data collection and analysis, and the use of specialized equipment. The laboratory experience fosters critical thinking, collaborative problem-solving, and a deeper understanding of the mechanisms underlying human body function within clinical and research contexts.
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Visual Anatomy and Physiology Lab Manual Main Version 2nd Edition by Stephen N. Sarikas
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Chapter 1: Body Organization and Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The knee is ________ to the ankle.
A) proximal
B) ipsilateral
C) distal
D) lateral
Answer: A
Q2) The heart is contained within the ________ cavity,whereas the lungs are in the ________ cavities.
A) thoracic; pericardial
B) mediastinum; pleural
C) pericardial; pleural
D) peritoneal; pleural
Answer: C
Q3) ________ serous membranes line the walls of cavities,whereas ________ serous membranes cover the surfaces of internal organs.
A) Parietal; visceral
B) Visceral; parietal
C) Pericardial; peritoneal
D) Pleural; visceral
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Care and Use of the Compound Light
Microscope
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Q1) The distance between the objective lens and the microscope stage is called the
A) mechanical stage
B) working distance
C) resolving power
D) total magnification
Answer: B
Q2) The total magnification of a specimen can be calculated by multiplying the ocular lens magnification by the ________ lens magnification.
A) low power
B) scanning
C) high power
D) objective
Answer: D
Q3) All microscope lenses should be cleaned with ________.
A) lens paper
B) tissue paper
C) paper
D) paper towels
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Cell Division
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Q1) The ________ is usually the largest organelle in a eukaryotic cell.It contains the genetic material of the cell,which directs cellular activity.
A) nucleus
B) mitochondrion
C) lysosome
D) Golgi apparatus
Answer: A
Q2) The ________ synthesize(s)lipids and glycogen.
A) mitochondria
B) Golgi apparatus
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: D
Q3) The plasma membrane contains ________.
A) cholesterol
B) phospholipids
C) phospholipids and cholesterol
D) phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Membrane Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) At which temperature would the rate of diffusion of dye molecules be the lowest?
A) 25 degrees C
B) 10 degrees C
C) 95 degrees C
D) 5 degrees C
Q2) Which of the following conditions must be met if diffusion across a membrane is to occur?
A) A concentration gradient must be present, and the membrane can't be permeable to the substance being transported.
B) A concentration gradient must be present, and the membrane must be permeable to the substance that is to be transported.
C) The membrane must be permeable to the substance that is to be transported.
D) A concentration gradient must be present.
Q3) A membrane that allows some substances to travel across it while restricting the passage of others is ________.
A) selectively permeable
B) impermeable
C) hypotonic
D) freely permeable
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Tissues
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Q1) Bone heals well after injury while cartilage does not.This can be attributed to the fact that ________.
A) the cells of cartilage and bone are enclosed in small cavities called lacunae
B) bone is avascular and cartilage is highly vascular
C) the matrix of bone is solid while the matrix on cartilage is semisolid
D) bone is highly vascular and cartilage is avascular
Q2) ________ is the discipline dedicated to the study of tissues.
A) Physiology
B) Biology
C) Anatomy
D) Histology
Q3) The epidermis of the skin is formed by multiple layers of flattened,irregularly shaped cells.The most superficial of these layers is filled with keratin.This type of epithelial tissue is classified as ________.
A) stratified cuboidal epithelium
B) keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
C) simple squamous epithelium
D) nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Q1) Sebaceous glands produce ________,also known as skin oil.
A) melanin
B) sebum
C) mucus
D) sweat
Q2) Albinism is a condition characterized by the absence of skin pigment.Which of the following would be absent in this condition?
A) collagen
B) melanin
C) keratin
D) elastin
Q3) When compared to thin skin,thick skin contains ________.
A) four cell layers: the stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, and stratum corneum
B) five cell layers: the stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum
C) three cell layers: the stratum basale, stratum spinosum, and dermis
D) three cell layers: the stratum basale, stratum spinosum, and stratum corneum
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8
Chapter 7: Introduction to the Skeletal System and the Axial
Skeleton
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Q1) Tarsal bones belong in which classification?
A) short
B) flat
C) sesamoid
D) sutural
Q2) Which of the following changes in the vertebral column is most likely to occur during pregnancy?
A) osteoporosis
B) kyphosis
C) lordosis
D) scoliosis
Q3) What histological structure immediately surrounds a central canal in compact bone?
A) osteon
B) lacunae
C) Haversian system
D) bone lamellae
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Page 9
Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Q1) Which of the following is a ridge of bone along the posterior surface of the femur where many thigh muscles attach?
A) gluteal tuberosity
B) lateral epicondyle
C) intercondylar fossa
D) linea aspera
Q2) What part of the pelvic girdle articulates with the head of the femur?
A) ilium
B) ischium
C) obturator foramen
D) acetabulum
Q3) Which of the following is a sesamoid bone in the lower limb?
A) fibula
B) tibia
C) femur
D) patella
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Chapter 9: Articulations
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Q1) Which of the following joints is representative of a gomphosis?
A) distal tibiofibular
B) joint between maxillae and upper teeth
C) squamous suture
D) coracoclavicular
Q2) Which pair of sutures meet at the sphenoidal fontanel?
A) coronal and squamous
B) coronal and sagittal
C) lambdoid and sagittal
D) lambdoid and squamous
Q3) What is the name of the joint formed by the articulation between the trapezium and the metacarpal bone of the thumb?
A) intercarpal
B) carpometacarpal
C) metacarpophalangeal
D) intertarsal
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11
Chapter 10: Introduction to Skeletal Muscle
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Q1) What would most likely happen if there were a decrease in the number of acetylcholine receptors in an NMJ?
A) decreased neurotransmitter release into the synaptic cleft
B) increased sodium ion influx at the motor endplate
C) decreased action potential generation at the motor endplate
D) increased action potential generation at the motor endplate
Q2) What is it called when the myosin heads pivot and pull on the actin filaments?
A) power stroke
B) tropomyosin displacement
C) action potential
D) troponin
Q3) What is the "group name" for a motor nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers it stimulates?
A) motor end plate
B) myasthenia gravis
C) synaptic terminal
D) motor unit
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Chapter 11: Muscles of the Head, Neck, and Trunk
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Q1) Identify the prime mover that facilitates the action of your nostrils in the following situation: After a particularly vigorous exercise class,your strong breathing is accompanied by flaring of the nostrils.
A) nasalis
B) frontalis
C) mentalis
D) procerus
Q2) During a focused breathing exercise,you feel your ribs elevate as you inhale.Which muscle or muscle group is responsible for this action?
A) internal intercostal muscles
B) external intercostal muscles
C) the transversus thoracis muscle
D) the diaphragm
Q3) Inability to control (stop/start)the flow of urine may suggest ________.
A) a weak external oblique muscle
B) a weak spinalis muscle
C) a weak pubococcygeus muscle
D) weak intercostal muscles
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Chapter 12: Muscles of the Upper and Lower Limbs
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Q1) The pectoralis major ________.
A) acts as an agonist in flexion, adduction, and medial rotation at the shoulder
B) is the prime mover in abduction, flexion, extension, and medial and lateral rotation at the shoulder
C) rotates the scapula
D) acts as an agonist in depression and protraction of the shoulder
Q2) The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles act as an agonist for ________.
A) dorsiflexion at the ankle
B) flexion of the toe joints
C) eversion of the foot
D) plantar flexion at the ankle
Q3) The muscles of the posterior thigh (hamstrings)share a common ________.
A) insertion (on the ischial tuberosity)
B) origin (on the ischial tuberosity)
C) insertion (on the lateral side of the fibular head)
D) origin (lateral side of the fibular head)
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Chapter 13: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Q1) An individual's measured range of motion upon abduction of the right shoulder is 90 degrees and upon adduction is 120 degrees.Which of the following statements about range of motion is true?
A) The range of motion at the shoulder joint is above average for adduction and above average for adduction.
B) The range of motion at the shoulder joint is above average for each movement.
C) The range of motion at the shoulder joint is below average for both abduction and adduction.
D) The range of motion at the shoulder joint is below average for adduction and normal for adduction.
Q2) Lifting a 25-lb barbell by flexing your forearm requires ________.
A) the biceps brachii to contract concentrically and the triceps brachii to contract eccentrically
B) eccentric contraction of both the biceps brachii and triceps brachii
C) the biceps brachii to contract eccentrically and the triceps brachii to contract concentrically
D) Isometric contraction of the biceps brachii and concentric contraction of the triceps brachii
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Chapter 14: Nervous Tissue
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Q1) Which of the following statements is correct?
A) The gray matter of the cerebellum is referred to as the arbor vitae or the "tree of life."
B) The white matter of the cerebrum consists of neuron cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons and neuroglia. Myelinated axons and neuroglia can be found in the gray matter.
C) The white matter of the spinal cord has a characteristic butterfly shape.
D) The gray matter of the cerebrum consists of neuron cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons and neuroglia. Myelinated axons and neuroglia appear white and are insulated.
Q2) Where are bipolar neurons located?
A) sensory ganglia for spinal nerves and most cranial nerve ganglia
B) retina of the eye, inner ear, and the olfactory epithelium in the nasal cavity
C) various brain regions
D) cerebral cortex, cerebellar cortex, and gray matter in the spinal cord
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16
Chapter 15: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following activities would be altered by damage to the olfactory nerve?
A) using your eyes to follow the movements of a dancer
B) smiling at your lab partner
C) tasting a salty dill pickle
D) smelling roses
Q2) Which of the following cranial nerves is associated with the sense of smell?
A) olfactory nerve (CN I)
B) oculomotor nerve (CN III)
C) vagus nerve (CN X)
D) optic nerve (CN II)
Q3) The ________ are a series of interconnected cavities that are filled with cerebrospinal fluid.
A) hemispheres
B) ventricles
C) meninges
D) lobes
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Chapter 16: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) The bony structure that encloses and protects the spinal cord is called the
A) cauda equina
B) conus medullaris
C) dura mater
D) vertebral canal
Q2) The ________ connect(s)the pia mater to the dura mater of the spinal cord.
A) denticulate ligaments
B) conus medullaris
C) spinal nerves
D) filum terminale
Q3) The area between the dura mater and the vertebrae is known as the ________.
A) subarachnoid space
B) epidural space
C) filum terminale
D) conus medullaris
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Chapter 17: Human Reflex Physiology
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Q1) Which of the elements of a reflex arc is responsible for delivering motor impulses from the central nervous system to effector organs?
A) motor neuron
B) sensory neuron
C) integration center
D) sensory receptor
Q2) What would be the clinical significance of a positive Babinski sign in an adult?
A) damage to the descending (motor) tracts in the spinal cord, indicating possible spinal cord damage
B) muscle spindle damage
C) incomplete myelination
D) sensory neuron damage in the spinal cord
Q3) The biceps reflex tests the function of levels ________ of the spinal cord.
A) C5 and C6
B) S1 and S2
C) L2, L3, and L4
D) C7 and C8
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Chapter 18: Special Senses
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Q1) During your most recent Weber test,you were able to hear the tone of the tuning fork in both ears; however,the sound was louder in the right ear.Interpret the results.
A) The test results indicate sensorineural deafness.
B) The test results indicate conduction deafness affecting the right ear.
C) The test results indicate conduction deafness affecting the left ear.
D) The test results are consistent with normal hearing.
Q2) The sense of smell is also known as ________.
A) vision
B) olfaction
C) gustation
D) equilibrium
Q3) ________ deafness results from damage along the neural pathway for hearing,whereas ________ deafness involves altered transmission of sound waves.
A) Conductive; sensorineural
B) Rinne; conductive
C) Weber; sensorineural
D) Sensorineural; conductive
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Chapter 19: The Endocrine System
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Q1) A 45-year-old man has experienced a thickening of the bones of his wrist and face.Laboratory testing has revealed an increased production of one hormone that could be caused by a tumor.Where is the most likely location of the tumor?
A) posterior pituitary
B) pancreas
C) anterior pituitary
D) thyroid
Q2) A patient is shown to have very low levels of thyroid hormones.The body will respond by elevating which hormone?
A) growth hormone
B) adrenocorticotropic hormone
C) prolactin
D) thyroid-stimulating hormone
Q3) What hormone is produced by the chief cells?
A) calcitonin
B) calcitriol
C) parathyroid hormone
D) growth hormone
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21
Chapter 20: Blood Cells
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Q1) An experiment shows that your plasma contains anti-B antibodies and anti-D antibodies.What type of blood do you have?
A) B positive
B) B negative
C) A negative
D) A positive
Q2) A fellow student has just returned from a trip to the jungle and is feeling ill.He is diagnosed with Chagas disease,which is caused by a parasite.Which leukocyte is most likely to be elevated,as shown by a white blood cell count?
A) basophil
B) lymphocytes
C) eosinophil
D) neutrophil
Q3) Which of the following leukocytes is most likely to be found destroying viruses by phagocytosis?
A) lymphocytes
B) monocytes
C) basophils
D) eosinophils
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Gross Anatomy of the Heart
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Q1) Which valve regulates flow between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk?
A) pulmonary semilunar
B) aortic semilunar valve
C) tricuspid valve
D) mitral valve
Q2) A failure of which of the following heart valves would most likely lead to right atrial hypertrophy?
A) pulmonary semilunar valve
B) tricuspid valve
C) aortic semilunar valve
D) bicuspid valve
Q3) Which two arteries merge on the posterior surface in the coronary sulcus?
A) circumflex and left marginal artery
B) circumflex and right coronary artery
C) right coronary artery and anterior interventricular artery
D) right coronary artery and posterior interventricular artery
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Chapter 22: Anatomy of Blood Vessels
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Q1) Which veins drain blood from the face,scalp,and neck?
A) external jugular
B) vertebral
C) brachiocephalic
D) internal jugular
Q2) Which vein drains blood from the distal half of the large intestine?
A) superior mesenteric
B) splenic
C) inferior mesenteric
D) gastric
Q3) Which type of blood vessel possesses valves?
A) elastic arteries
B) arterioles
C) muscular arteries
D) veins
Q4) Which layer of a blood vessel contains smooth muscle and elastic fibers?
A) tunica intima
B) tunica externa
C) endothelium
D) tunica media
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Q1) Which of the following accurately describes the relationship between recovery time and physical fitness?
A) Shorter recovery time equates to better physical fitness.
B) Shorter recovery time equates to poor physical fitness.
C) Longer recovery time equates to better physical fitness.
D) There is no relationship between recovery time and physical fitness.
Q2) Which of the following properly describes "mean arterial pressure"?
A) Mean arterial pressure is generated by the closure of the aortic semilunar valve.
B) Mean arterial pressure is generated as a result of the force exerted by the stretch and recoil of the arteries.
C) Mean arterial pressure is generated as blood is ejected from the left ventricle.
D) Mean arterial pressure ensures that blood is pushed from the heart and through the systemic circulation.
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Chapter 24: The Lymphatic System
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Q1) Which tonsils are most commonly removed during a "tonsillectomy" due to childhood tonsillitis?
A) palatine tonsils
B) submandibular tonsils
C) pharyngeal tonsils
D) lingual tonsils
Q2) Which of the following is true of the appendix?
A) The appendix is vestigial and serves no use whatsoever.
B) The appendix is an extension of the last segment of the small intestine.
C) The appendix's main role is absorbing fats.
D) The appendix contains lymphoid nodules similar to tonsils.
Q3) White and red pulp are functional components of the ________.
A) thymus
B) lymphatic nodules
C) spleen
D) lymph nodes
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Chapter 25: Anatomy of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Identify the airway type based on this description:The airway type is lined with pseudostratified columnar epithelium,cartilage is present,goblet cells are present,and ciliated cells are present.
A) bronchiole
B) primary bronchus
C) terminal bronchiole
D) alveolar duct
Q2) What criteria might an observer use to distinguish between a bronchiole and a bronchus?
A) A bronchiole is lined by columnar epithelium.
B) Cartilage is present in bronchioles but not in bronchi.
C) Cartilage is present in bronchi but not in bronchioles.
D) A bronchus is lined by cuboidal epithelium.
Q3) The arrangement of airways in the lungs most closely resembles ________.
A) a circle
B) a tree
C) a light pole
D) the letter "Y"
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Physiology
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Q1) A ________ is used to measure pulmonary volumes.
A) thermometer
B) sphygmomanometer
C) spirometer
D) stopwatch
Q2) The amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during one cycle of normal inhalation and exhalation is called the ________.
A) inspiratory capacity
B) expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
C) vital capacity (VC)
D) tidal volume (VT)
Q3) If the volume of an enclosed space increases,how does the pressure of the gas in the space change?
A) The pressure of the gas will decrease.
B) The pressure of the gas will remain constant.
C) The pressure of the gas will increase.
D) Boyle's law can't be used to explain the behavior of the gas.
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Chapter 27: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following structures cause a slow spiraling movement of chyme?
A) plicae circulares
B) teniae coli
C) rugae
D) haustra
Q2) Which is the most superior region of the stomach?
A) fundic region (or fundus)
B) cardiac region
C) body
D) pyloric region
Q3) Which of the following is the largest salivary gland?
A) sublingual
B) parotid
C) gastric glands
D) submandibular
Q4) Which of the following cells produce proteolytic enzymes?
A) hepatocytes
B) pancreatic islets
C) Kupffer cells
D) pancreatic acinar cells
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Chapter 28: Actions of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) Breaking down maltose by maltase will produce which of the following sugars?
A) sucrose
B) glucose
C) lactose
D) amylose
Q2) Which compound will change the color of the IKI solution when present?
A) fat
B) glucose
C) starch
D) protein
Q3) Which of the following sugars is a disaccharide?
A) maltose
B) galactose
C) fructose
D) glucose
Q4) When starch is digested by amylase what is the first breakdown product?
A) dextrin
B) glucose
C) amylose
D) sucrose
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Anatomy of the Urinary System
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Q1) What muscular tube passes through the male urogenital diaphragm?
A) membranous urethra
B) spongy urethra
C) ureter
D) prostatic urethra
Q2) Which artery or arteriole exits the glomerulus?
A) vasa recta
B) efferent arteriole
C) cortical radiate artery
D) afferent arteriole
Q3) Which of the following structures marks the beginning of a nephron?
A) nephron loop
B) distal convoluted tubule
C) proximal convoluted tubule
D) glomerular capsule (also known as Bowman's capsule)
Q4) What structure is a component of the renal corpuscle?
A) collecting duct
B) papillary duct
C) nephron loop
D) glomerulus
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Chapter 30: Urinary Physiology
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Q1) A patient's urine sample has tested positive for nitrites.What is the most likely reason for the presence of nitrites in the urine?
A) bacterial infection of the urinary tract
B) porphyria
C) diabetes mellitus
D) glomerulonephritis
Q2) Inflammation due to a urinary tract infection will cause which of the following abnormalities in the urine?
A) pyuria
B) urobilinogenuria
C) ketonuria
D) renal tubular acidosis
Q3) Which of the following compounds can give urine a reddish color?
A) hydrogen ions
B) nitrite
C) glucose
D) porphyrin
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Chapter 31: The Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ both transports urine outside the body during urination and transports semen to the female reproductive tract during intercourse.
A) penis
B) ureter
C) ductus deferens
D) epididymis
Q2) The columns of erectile tissue in the penis include ________.
A) one corpus cavernosum and one corpus spongiosum
B) two corpora cavernosa and one corpus spongiosum
C) one corpus cavernosum and two corpora spongiosa
D) three corpora cavernosa
Q3) What are the three regions of the urethra?
A) the penile urethra, the membranous urethra, and the prostatic urethra
B) the penile urethra, the epididymal urethra, and the deferens urethra
C) the ejaculatory urethra, the epididymal urethra, and the deferens urethra
D) the penile urethra, the epididymal urethra, and the prostatic urethra
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Page 33
Chapter 32: The Female Reproductive System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/44912
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents the most mature stage of follicular development?
A) primordial follicle
B) tertiary follicle
C) secondary follicle
D) primary follicle
Q2) ________ produce breast milk.
A) Uterine glands
B) Sweat glands
C) Mammary glands
D) Greater vestibular glands
Q3) Ovulation is stimulated by ________,which is released from the anterior pituitary gland.
A) progesterone
B) estrogen
C) testosterone
D) luteinizing hormone
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