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This course provides nursing students with a comprehensive understanding of human physiology, focusing on the normal functioning of cells, tissues, organs, and body systems. Emphasis is placed on the mechanisms that maintain homeostasis and how physiological principles relate to nursing practice. Students will explore the integration of body systems and the physiological basis of health and illness, providing a foundation for clinical assessment, decision-making, and delivery of holistic patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology From Cells to Systems 9th Edition by Lauralee Sherwood
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2000 Verified Questions
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Q1) What are the two classes of homeostatic control systems?
A)conscious and unconscious
B)intrinsic and extrinsic
C)intrinsic and internal
D)extrinsic and external
E)automated and reflex
Answer: B
Q2) Glands are formed during ____________________ development by pockets of epithelial tissue.
Answer: embryonic
Q3) Glands are epithelial tissue derivatives specialized for secreting.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The respiratory system removes excess water,salt,acid,and other electrolytes from the plasma.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) How many primary types of RNA play roles in protein synthesis within cells?
A)two
B)three
C)four
D)five
E)six
Answer: B
Q2) Cells use the energy stored in ATP primarily for ____.
A)detoxification,division,and genetic improvement
B)synthesis,transport,and mechanical work
C)synthesis,detoxification,and waste removal
D)transport,phagocytosis,and exocytosis
E)mechanical work,genetic improvement,and phagocytosis
Answer: B
Q3) A cell has three major parts: the plasma membrane,the nucleus,and the cytoplasm.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) DNA and associated nuclear proteins are organized into
Answer: chromosomes

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Q1) Which labeled diagram depicts phosphorylation?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
F)6
Answer: B
Q2) What is the equilibrium potential for sodium ions?
A)-60 mV
B)-30 mV
C)zero
D)+30 mV
E)+60 mV
Answer: E
Q3) The net effect of simultaneous electrical and concentration gradients on an ion is called a(n)____________________ gradient.
Answer: electrochemical
Q4) If a substance can cross a membrane,the membrane is _____to that substance.
Answer: permeable
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Q1) The total grand postsynaptic potential (GPSP)is a composite of all ____________________ and IPSPs occurring around the same time.
Q2) Electrical synapses are more common than chemical synapses in the human nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) As the triggering event gets stronger,what type of gated channels open up more frequently or for longer duration?
A)calcium channels
B)sodium channels
C)potassium channels
D)oxygen channels
E)water channels
Q4) Due to its recorded appearance,an action potential often referred to a ____.
A)plateau
B)hockey stick
C)spike
D)table
E)bell
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Q1) ____________________ is the awareness of body position.
Q2) The amygdala is especially important in processing inputs that give rise to the sensations of happiness and pleasure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which number in the accompanying figure shows where CSF circulates throughout the ventricles?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q4) What lobe of the brain is situated most posteriorly (back of the head)?
A)parietal
B)occipital
C)temporal
D)posterior
E)cerebral
Q5) The motor cortex is activated by a widespread pattern of neuronal discharge,called the ____________________.
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Q1) Stimulation of a receptor alters its membrane permeability,usually by opening channels that permit an influx of what ions?
A)calcium
B)chloride
C)potassium
D)sodium
E)iron
Q2) Convex surfaces converge light rays,bringing them closer together.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What two sensory systems are in the inner ear?
A)eardrum and pinna
B)auditory ossicles and eustachian tube
C)cochlea and auditory ossicles
D)cochlea and vestibular apparatus
E)vestibular apparatus and semicircular canals
Q4) The overlapping area seen by both eyes at the same time is known as the ____________________ field of vision.
Q5) Describe the role of the otolith organs.
Q6) Discuss how the gut and airways "taste" also. Page 8
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Q1) What are the two main classes of adrenergic receptors for norepinephrine and epinephrine?
A)nicotinic and muscarinic
B)ACh and ATP
C)alpha and beta
D)epinephrine and norepinephrine
E)sodium and potassium
Q2) Which number in the figure shows ACh diffusing across the space separating the nerve and muscle cells and binding with receptor-channels specific for it on the motor end plate of the muscle cell membrane?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
F)6
Q3) Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers are longer than sympathetic ____________________ fibers.
Q4) Discuss how botulinum toxin can be used beneficially.
Q5) Discuss the most common motor-neuron disease.
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Q1) What are the two membranous structures within the muscle fiber that play important roles in linking excitation to contraction?
A)horizontal tubules and sarcoplasmic reticulum
B)transverse tubules and sarcoplasmic reticulum
C)transverse tubules and endoplasmic reticulum
D)horizontal tubules and endoplasmic reticulum
E)sarcolemma and plasma end plates
Q2) Ca +binding to tropomyosin causes myosin to change shape,physically moving it away from its blocking position.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many "heads" does each myosin molecule have?

D)2
E)1
Q4) What is rigor mortis?
Q5) The patellar tendon,or knee-jerk,reflex is a type of ____________________ reflex.
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Q1) What percentage of cardiac muscle cells are contractile?
A)33%
B)50%
C)75%
D)85%
E)99%
Q2) The typical resting heart rate beats at __________ beats per minute.
Q3) Atherosclerosis is characterized by __________ forming beneath the vessel lining within arterial walls.
Q4) What circulatory system loops between the heart and lungs?
A)pulmonary
B)systemic
C)arterial
D)venous
Q5) Cardiac cells form and release more __________ when cardiac activity increases,which leads to vasodilation of the coronary vessels.
Q6) An ECG represents comparisons in __________ detected by electrodes at __________ points on the body surface,not the actual potential.
Q7) Discuss the nutrient supply to the heart.
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Q1) What does a closed venous valve prevent?
A)escape of blood from the vessel
B)muscle contraction
C)hypertension
D)backflow of lymph
E)backflow of blood
Q2) With the exception of the brain,how are materials exchanged across capillary walls elsewhere in the body?
A)by carrier-mediated transport systems
B)by active protein carriers
C)by capillary shuttles
D)mainly by diffusion
E)mainly by membrane binding
Q3) Reflex venous vasoconstriction can completely compensate for gravitational effects without skeletal muscle activity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss viscosity and how it relates to blood.
Q5) When blood pressure is 120/80,pulse pressure is __________ mm Hg.
Q6) Capillaries consist of only a(n)__________ layer of flat __________ cells.
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Q1) What type of anemia is caused by an inability to absorb enough ingested vitamin B from the digestive tract?
A)pernicious anemia
B)nutritional anemia
C)aplastic anemia
D)hemolytic anemia
E)renal anemia
Q2) Widespread clotting can occur in septicemic shock,in which bacteria or their toxins initiate the clotting cascade.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the ultimate step in clot formation?
A)conversion of fibrin into fibrinogen
B)conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin
C)transfer of plasmin from the liver
D)transfer of thrombin from the bone marrow
E)manufacture of cholesterol for fatty plugs
Q4) The bone __________ normally generates new red blood cells,a process known as __________.
Q5) Discuss the conditions that require blood transfusions.
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Q1) What effect does histamine have?
A)reduced local edema
B)increased erythrocyte proliferation
C)reduced capillary permeability
D)vasoconstriction
E)vasodilation
Q2) About 5 million Americans suffer from some type of autoimmune disease,with the incidence being about three times higher in males than in females.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which number in the figure represents activated mast cells releasing histamine?
A)1
B)2
C)3 D)4
E)5
Q4) The HIV virus invades and incapacitates the critical __________ cells.
Q5) __________ are not self-sustaining cellular entities -- they consist only of nucleic acids enclosed by a protein __________.
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Q1) What are the two tubes that lead from the pharynx?
A)larynx and bronchus
B)trachea and larynx
C)trachea and esophagus
D)nasal tube and esophagus
E)bronchus and bronchiole
Q2) What is the medical term for difficult or labored breathing?
A)asthma
B)hyperpnea
C)dyspnea
D)cyanosis
E)hypoxia
Q3) What percentage of the O in the blood is dissolved?
A)0%
B)0.5%
C)1.5%
D)5%
E)15%
Q4) Emphysema is characterized by __________ of the smaller airways and breakdown of __________ walls.
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Q1) The renal medulla is made up of striated structures called the renal __________.
Q2) What is the tubular maximum reabsorption rate for glucose?
A)375 mg of glucose per minute
B)300 mg of glucose per minute
C)275 mg of glucose per minute
D)200 mg of glucose per minute
E)100 mg of glucose per minute
Q3) What are the two types of nephrons called?
A)cortex and medulla
B)proximal and distal
C)looped and straight
D)cortical and juxtamedullary
E)collecting and tubule
Q4) A rise in plasma potassium concentration __________ stimulates aldosterone secretion by the __________ cortex.
Q5) In response to the resultant rise in salt delivery to the distal tubule,the macula densa cells release __________ and adenosine.
Q6) Two mechanisms contribute to autoregulation of the GFR: a(n)__________mechanism and a tubuloglomerular __________ mechanism.
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Q1) What controls ammonia secretion?
A)The skin
B)The kidneys
C)The liver
D)The colon
E)The spleen
Q2) Which figure represents metabolic alkalosis?
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)5
Q3) What exists when the gains via input for a substance exceed its losses via output?
A)equilibrium
B)a negative balance
C)a positive balance
D)a net pool loss
E)homeostasis
Q4) The barrier between the ECF and the ICF is the __________.
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Q1) Gastric mixing takes place in the __________ of the stomach.
Q2) Stimuli acting on the stomach- namely protein,distension,caffeine,and alcohol-increase gastric secretion by overlapping efferent pathways.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain malabsorption and give an example.
Q4) The large intestine consists of three separate,conspicuous,longitudinal bands of muscle called the __________,which run the length of the large intestine.
Q5) The disaccharidases located in the brush border membrane of the small intestine cells further reduce disaccharides and polysaccharides into the absorbable monosaccharide units of glucose,galactose,and fructose. A)True B)False
Q6) Two basic types of phasic digestive motility exist in the digestive tract: __________ movements and mixing movements.
Q7) Special hair-like projections on the luminal surface of the small intestine epithelial cells,the microvilli,form the __________.
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Q1) Heat stroke is more likely to occur on overexertion during a prolonged exposure to a:
A)hot,humid environment
B)hot,dry environment
C)cold,humid environment
D)cold,dry environment
E)wet,rainy environment
Q2) What is a positive energy balance primarily stored as within the body?
A)glycogen
B)glucose
C)adipose tissue
D)muscle tissue
E)ATP
Q3) Multiple,highly integrated,redundant pathways crisscross into and out of the arcuate nucleus,indicative of the complex systems involved in feeding and satiety.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe a thermoneutral zone.
Q5) Discuss the causes,symptoms,and effects of hypothermia.
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Q1) Melatonin is an effective antioxidant,a defense tool against biologically damaging free radicals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a growing bone,the diaphysis is separated at each end from the epiphysis by a layer of cartilage known as the __________.
Q3) __________ feedback exists when the output of a system counteracts a change in input.
Q4) Indoleamines are produced by the pineal gland and are derived from the amino acid tryptophan.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Primary __________ occurs when an endocrine gland is secreting too little of its hormone because of an abnormality within that gland.
Q6) The most abundant form of thyroid hormone secreted by the thyroid gland is __________,but the most powerful form of thyroid hormone in the blood is
Q7) Discuss estrogen in terms of target cells and major functions.
Q8) Discuss the effects of growth hormone (GH)deficiency with examples. Page 21
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Q1) What is the only adrenal sex hormone that has any biological importance?
A)cortisol
B)dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
C)estrogen
D)androgen
E)testosterone
Q2) What diabetes sub-type is characterized by a lack of insulin secretion?
A)prediabetes
B)type 1
C)type 2
D)type 3
E)insipidus
Q3) Osteoporosis occurs with greatest frequency in postmenopausal women because of the associated withdrawal of bone-preserving estrogen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Insulin excess can occur in a diabetic patient when too much insulin has been injected for the person's caloric intake and exercise level,resulting in __________.
Q5) Discuss the causes and symptoms of aldosterone hypersecretion.
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Q1) What are the female gametes?
A)uterus
B)ova
C)fallopian tubes
D)semen
E)ovaries
Q2) What are the three stages of labor?
A)rupturing of the amniotic sac,delivery of the baby,and delivery of the placenta
B)rupturing of the amniotic sac,labor pains,and delivery of the baby
C)rupturing of the amniotic sac,cervical dilation,and delivery of the baby
D)cervical dilation,delivery of the baby,and delivery of the placenta
E)cervical dilation,labor pains,and delivery of the baby
Q3) The epithelial layer that encloses the amniotic cavity is called the amniotic sac,or
Q4) A blastocyst is a single-layer hollow ball of about 5 million cells encircling a fluid-filled cavity,with a dense mass of cells known as the central cell mass grouped together at one side.
A)True
B)False
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