Physiology for Nursing Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides nursing students with a comprehensive understanding of human physiology, emphasizing the normal functions of cells, tissues, organs, and systems in the human body. Key topics include the cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, digestive, endocrine, nervous, and musculoskeletal systems, with a focus on mechanisms that maintain homeostasis and the physiological basis of common health conditions. Through this foundation, students will develop the ability to relate physiological principles to nursing practice, apply critical thinking in patient care scenarios, and enhance their ability to assess and manage patient health effectively.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology 14th Edition by Stuart Ira Fox Dr
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20 Chapters
2890 Verified Questions
2890 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Study of Body Function
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118 Verified Questions
118 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All glands that secrete into the digestive tract are
A)endocrine.
B)exocrine.
C)sebaceous glands.
D)both endocrine and exocrine.
Answer: B
Q2) Embryonic stem cells can form unrelated cell types,so they are considered
A)pluripotent.
B)multipotent.
C)totipotent.
D)omnipotent.
Answer: A
Q3) The endocrine regulation of blood glucose concentration is an example of a(n) A)antagonistic effector.
B)positive feedback loop.
C)negative feedback loop.
D)Both antagonistic effector and negative feedback loop are correct.
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Chemical Composition of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a monosaccharide is A)maltose.
B)sucrose.
C)glucose.
D)glycogen.
Answer: C
Q2) Sucrose is a disaccharide that is composed of _______________ and ____________.
A)glucose,glucose
B)glucose,galactose
C)glucose,fructose
D)fructose,galactose
Answer: C
Q3) Ionic bonds are very strong and will not easily dissociate in water.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Organic acids contain carbonyl groups.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Genetic Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Damage to cellular DNA that cannot be repaired would induce A)mitosis.
B)meiosis.
C)apoptosis.
D)cell division.
Answer: C
Q2) Cells which will undergo apoptosis would contain large numbers or quantities of A)centrioles.
B)lysosomes.
C)golgi apparatus.
D)rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer: B
Q3) The flexibility of a cell's membrane is determined by the ratio of _____________ to ___________.
A)protein,carbohydrate
B)cholesterol,protein
C)phospholipids,protein
D)cholesterol,phospholipids
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Enzymes and Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most enzymes are lipids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ______________ occurs when the product of a metabolic pathway binds to an enzyme and decreases enzymatic activity.
A)Allosteric inhibition
B)End-product therapy
C)Second messaging
D)Coupling
Q3) ______________ is the universal energy carrier.
A)Glucose
B)ATP
C)ADP
D)GTP
Q4) In general,decreased body temperature causes the rate of enzymatic reactions to decrease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Cell Respiration and Metabolism
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106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A deficiency of ______________ would limit production of coenzyme A.
A)pantothenic acid
B)linoleic acid
C)folic acid
D)thiamine
Q2) Anaerobic respiration metabolism is triggered when the ratio of ______________ falls below a critical level.
A)carbon dioxide supply to oxygen need
B)oxygen supply to glucose need
C)glucose supply to glucose need
D)oxygen supply to oxygen need
Q3) The process of fat formation from acetyl CoA is called A)lipogenesis.
B)lipolysis.
C)beta-oxidation.
D)deamination.
Q4) On average,each FADH<sub>2</sub> generates 1.5 ATP in oxidative phosphorylation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Interactions Between Cells and the Extracellular Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osmoreceptors are involved in the regulation of blood volume.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Na<sup>+</sup>/K<sup>+</sup> pump
A)is an example of primary active transport.
B)generates a positive membrane potential.
C)actively transports 2 potassium ions out of the cell.
D)actively transports 3 sodium ions into the cell.
Q3) Solutes that cannot freely pass through a membrane are said to be A)hypertonic.
B)osmotically inactive.
C)osmotically active.
D)selectively permeable.
Q4) A cell placed in a 9% saline solution (molecular weight = 58.5g)would A)lyse.
B)crenate.
C)not change.
D)swell.
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Chapter 7: The Nervous System: Neurons and Synapses
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190 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Astrocytes can be excited by changes in intracellular Ca<sup>2+</sup> concentration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following are natural analgesics?
A)endorphins
B)enkephalins
C)dynorphins
D)All apply.
Q3) Excitable cells are incapable of maintaining a constant resting membrane potential.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What action produces an IPSP on the postsynaptic membrane?
A)influx of Na+ ions
B)opening of Ca<sup>2+</sup> channels into the neuron
C)outflow of K+ ions
D)opening of Cl<sup>-</sup> channels into the neuron
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Chapter 8: The Central Nervous System
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160 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drug acts to inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and amphetamines into the nucleus accumbens in the forebrain?
A)alcohol
B)amphetamines
C)cocaine
D)opiates
Q2) Damage to the right motor cortex will generally mean motor problems on the right side of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Damage to the _____ prefrontal area will cause a lack of motivation and sexual desire and deficient cognitive functions.
A)lateral
B)orbitofacial
C)posterior
D)palatine
Q4) Visual inputs are interpreted on the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where do autonomic preganglionic neurons originate?
A)midbrain
B)hindbrain
C)thoracic and sacral regions of the spinal cord
D)All apply.
Q2) Pre- and postganglionic sympathetic nerves release norepinephrine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Damage to the gray rami communicantes would inhibit the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The collateral ganglia contain
A)F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10-adrenergic receptors.
B)F1F1F1S1 F1F1F10-adrenergic receptors.
C)muscarinic receptors.
D)nicotinic receptors.
Q5) Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers are relatively long.
A)True
B)False
11
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Chapter 10: Sensory Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) M cones are medium length green cones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is found in the posterior cavity of the eyeball?
A)aqueous humor
B)blood
C)vitreous humor
D)pigment
Q3) The bending of light as it passes through different media is called A)accommodation.
B)visual acuity.
C)refraction.
D)astigmatism.
Q4) The tip region of the photoreceptor cells are removed by cells of the retinal pigment epithelium by A)apoptosis.
B)phagocytosis.
C)opsin.
D)the bleaching reaction.
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Chapter 11: Endocrine Glands: Secretion and Action of Hormones
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cortisol secretion would cease if the _________ no longer secreted ACTH.
A)posterior pituitary gland
B)hypothalamus
C)anterior pituitary gland
D)adrenal cortex
Q2) Inhibition of G-proteins would cause an increase in hormone-induced intracellular Ca<sup>2+</sup> concentrations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An individual with bulging eyes may
A)be secreting inadequate thyroid hormone.
B)be secreting excessive thyroid hormone.
C)be secreting inadequate cortisol.
D)be secreting excessive cortisol.
Q4) __________ is a potent mineralocorticoid that helps increase blood volume and pressure.
A)Antidiuretic hormone
B)Aldosterone
C)Hydrocortisone
D)Norepinephrine
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Chapter 12: Muscle: Mechanisms of Contraction and Neural Control
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149 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does NOT increase the strength of the muscle contraction?
A)a high number of fibers stimulated
B)increased frequency of stimulation
C)thicker muscle fiber
D)resting sarcomere length of 3.6µm
Q2) Lower motor neurons are found in the lower part of the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What structure runs the length of the sarcomere and contributes to the elastic recoil in muscle?
A)Z disk
B)titin
C)M line
D)actin
Q4) A force-velocity curve shows the _______ relationship between the force opposing muscle contraction and the velocity of muscle shortening.
A)direct
B)inverse
C)increased
D)no
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Chapter 13: Blood,Heart and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inhibiting gastric function would stimulate
A)iron-deficiency anemiA.
B)pernicious anemia.
C)aplastic anemia.
D)leukemia.
Q2) The __________ drains lymph into the left subclavian vein.
A)left lymphatic duct
B)common lymphatic duct
C)thoracic duct
D)subclavian duct
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a cause of circus rhythm?
A)damage to the myocardium
B)certain cells coming out of the refractory period too quickly
C)shortened myocardial cells
D)an electrical shock in the middle of a T wave
Q4) How does the circulatory system provide protection for the body?
A)prevents blood loss through clotting
B)leukocytes fight infection
C)provides the body's immunity
D)All apply
15
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Chapter 14: Cardiac Output,Blood Flow,and Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Moderate exercise causes increased visceral organ blood flow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cardiogenic shock can result from A)myocardial infarction.
B)increased cardiac output.
C)increased sympathetic outflow to the heart.
D)parasympathetic antagonists.
Q3) Dangerously low blood pressure that results from infection is A)septic shock.
B)anaphylactic shock.
C)neurogenic shock.
D)cardiogenic shock.
Q4) Pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressures.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Congestive heart failure occurs when the pumping efficiency of the heart increases. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Immune System
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137 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inhibiting proteins C2-C4 would block the activation of A)interferon.
B)complement.
C)specific immunity.
D)antibodies.
Q2) Mutation in the variable regions of the heavy and light chains would directly change the antigen binding site.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Antigens are used to induce a passive immune response. A)True
B)False
Q4) Immunological competence develops A)during gestation.
B)at the onset of puberty.
C)at birth.
D)shortly after birth.
Q5) Lymphocytes are involved in specific immune reactions. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Respiratory Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metabolic alkalosis
A)may be caused by excessive vomiting.
B)occurs when the partial pressure of oxygen is decreased.
C)occurs when arterial pH is less than 7.4.
D)is induced by hypoventilation.
Q2) Respiratory acidosis would be compensated by increased retention of bicarbonate ions in the kidneys.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What can be used to treat carbon monoxide poisoning and gangrene?
A)hypoventilation
B)blood letting
C)hyperbaric oxygen therapy
D)carbon dioxide therapy
Q4) The exchange of chloride ions for bicarbonate through tissue capillaries is called the A)chloride shift.
B)Bohr effect.
C)oxygen toxicity.
D)acidosis.
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Chapter 17: Physiology of the Kidneys
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epithelial cells of the proximal tubule have a lower concentration of Na+ than the filtrate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The proximal tubule and loop of Henle are subject to hormonal regulation of sodium and water.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Na<sup>+</sup> is actively transported into the tubule cells of the ascending limb of the Loop of Henle from the tubular lumen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _________ is a nonsalt molecule that contributes to the hypertonicity of the interstitial fluid of the renal tubules.
A)Urea
B)Protein
C)Creatinine
D)Xenobiotic molecule
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Chapter 18: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What role do bile salts play in digestion?
A)emulsify lipids for digestion by enzymes
B)gives color to the feces
C)needed for water reabsorption
D)They play no role in digestion.
Q2) __________ is secreted by the ileum and colon and stimulates intestinal secretion of Cl- thereby causing elimination of NaCl and water in the feces.
A)Guanylin
B)Motilin
C)Serotonin
D)Nitric oxide
Q3) Bicarbonate that protects the duodenum from peptic ulcers comes from all of the following EXCEPT:
A)adherent layer of mucus
B)Brunner's cells
C)stomach
D)pancreatic juice
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Chapter 19: Regulation and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tumor suppressing the activity of which brain area could induce obesity?
A)ventromedial hypothalamus
B)lateral hypothalamus
C)dorsomedial hypothalamus
D)anterior hypothalamus
Q2) A female with a BMI of 25.5 would be considered
A)obese.
B)overweight.
C)healthy.
D)too thin.
Q3) Which hunger hormone is released in between meals?
A)CCK
B)polypeptide YY
C)MSH
D)ghrelin
Q4) Fat cells are less sensitive to insulin in A)obese individuals.
B)anorexic individuals.
C)individuals who do not exercise.
D)individuals at their optimal weight.
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Chapter 20: Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ovulation occurs around day 14 of the ovarian cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Longitudinal growth during development is dependent on estrogen stimulation of the epiphyseal growth plates in both males and females.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The calcium wave that prevents polyspermy also causes
A)the sperm to lose its tail.
B)the secondary oocyte to finish meiosis II.
C)mitosis to occur.
D)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) Initiation of labor involves all of the following EXCEPT
A)corticotropin-releasing hormone from the placentA.
B)DHEAS from the fetal adrenal gland.
C)cortisol from the mother and fetus.
D)human chorionic gonadotropin from the placenta.
Q5) Meiosis II is not completed in the secondary oocyte until after fertilization.
A)True
B)False
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