Physiology for Nursing Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of human physiology with a focus on concepts essential for nursing practice. Students will study the normal functioning of major body systems, including the nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, endocrine, urinary, and musculoskeletal systems. Emphasis is placed on the mechanisms of homeostasis, cellular communication, and the physiological basis for common health conditions. By integrating theoretical knowledge with clinical scenarios, the course prepares nursing students to understand how physiological changes can impact patient assessment and care.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 9th Edition by Patton
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Chapter 1: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Movement of digested nutrients through the wall of the digestive tract into body fluids for transport to the cell
A)Conductivity
B)Excretion
C)Growth
D)Circulation
E)Respiration
F)Responsiveness
G)Digestion
H)Absorption
I)Secretion
J)Reproduction
Answer: H
Q2) Which of the following describes anatomy?
A) Using devices to investigate parameters such as heart rate and blood pressure
B) Investigating human structure via dissections and other methods
C) Studying the unusual manner in which an organism responds to painful stimuli
D) Examining the physiology of life
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the feed-forward control system, and give an example of one in the body.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Q2) The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback.
A) negative
B) positive
C) inhibitory
D) deviating
Answer: B
Q3) Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex?
A) Viruses
B) Tapeworms
C) Bacteria
D) Protozoa
Answer: B
Q4) Give an example of a system, either living or nonliving, that is designed to maintain a relatively constant condition by using a negative-feedback mechanism. Explain briefly how the system works to accomplish this.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Chapter 3: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A magnesium atom has an atomic number of 12, an atomic mass of 25, and a <sup>+2</sup> charge. This atom would contain _____ protons, _____ neutrons, and _____ electrons.
A) 12; 25; 2
B) 12; 13; 14
C) 12; 13; 10
D) Not enough information is given to answer the question.
Answer: C
Q2) All of the following substances are organic except:
A) lipids.
B) electrolytes.
C) carbohydrates.
D) proteins.
Answer: B
Q3) Gastric fluid, approximately a 1.5 on the pH scale
A) Acid
B) Base
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Biomolecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) When ATP is in short supply, muscles can use creatine phosphate for extra energy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both triglycerides and prostaglandins can contain unsaturated fat.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When two molecules of glucose are joined, they form which disaccharide?
A) Sucrose
B) Maltose
C) Lactose
D) Fructose
Q4) Humans can synthesize 13 of 21 basic amino acids; the remaining 8, which must be included in the diet, are called:
A) enzymes.
B) essential amino acids.
C) structural proteins.
D) peptide bonds.
Q5) List the types of lipids, and give a function for each type.
Q6) Name and describe the structural levels of protein.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tiny cylinders that can be found near the boundaries of the centrosomes
A)Microtubules
B)Intermediate filaments
C)Microfilaments
D)Centrosomes
E)Cilia
F)Flagella
G)Microvilli
H)Desmosomes
I)Tight junctions
J)Gap junctions
K)Primary cilium
L)Centrioles
Q2) Cell connections called desmosomes are like Velcro holding cells together.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Name and give the functions of the membranous organelles of the cell.
Q4) Describe the structure and function of the nucleus. Include the structure and function of the nucleolus.
Q5) Name and give the functions of the nonmembranous organelles of the cell.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cell Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The size of the molecule is an important factor in both dialysis and filtration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Phagocytosis can be translated to "cell eating."
A)True
B)False
Q3) The physical movement of water and solutes through a membrane when a hydrostatic pressure gradient exists is called filtration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A semipermeable membrane is needed for diffusion to occur.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Activation energy is the amount of energy gained by the cell as a result of a catabolic pathway.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly explain the process of glycolysis. What energy molecules are produced, and how many of each are produced?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Cell Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA synthesis occurs during prophase in mitosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A human gene is a segment of the DNA molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A DNA molecule is characterized by all of the following except:
A) double helix shape.
B) obligatory base pairing.
C) ribose sugar.
D) phosphate groups.
Q4) The terms cytokinesis and mitosis mean the same thing.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Interphase does not include which of the following?
A) M phase
B) G phase
C) G phase
D) S phase
Q6) Explain the process of mitosis. Explain what occurs in each step.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Introduction to Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many of the sugars attached to the protein backbone of a proteoglycan molecule are fibronectin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most complex tissue in the body is:
A) connective.
B) epithelial.
C) nervous.
D) muscle.
Q3) Connective tissue tends to have large quantities of extracellular matrix.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A malignant tumor that arises from epithelial tissue is generally called a sarcoma.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Matrix may be defined as the living intracellular material surrounding the cells of a tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Tissue Types
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because stratified squamous epithelium is found in the urinary system, it is sometimes called urothelium.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The most widespread and abundant tissue in the body is:
A) epithelial.
B) connective.
C) muscle.
D) nervous.
Q3) Both collagenous fibers and reticular fibers are made of collagen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Adipose tissue contains predominantly fat cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the process of endochondral ossification, the bone that is formed replaces cartilage.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Why is blood considered to be the most unusual type of connective tissue?
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Chapter 10: Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Matt is admitted to the hospital with burns to the deep epidermal layers and injury to the upper layers of the dermis. The physician treats Matt's condition as a _____ burn.
A) first-degree
B) hypothermia
C) minor
D) second-degree
Q2) Most of the body is covered by protective thick skin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The fibers in which layer make it possible for skin to stretch and be elastic?
A) Connective tissue
B) Epidermal
C) Muscle
D) Reticular
Q4) Which cells of the skin act as a type of antigen-presenting cell in the skin?
A) Dermatocytes
B) Dendritic cells
C) Keratinocytes
D) Melanocytes
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Chapter 11: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because each bone has a specific function, it is made of either all compact or all spongy bone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following substances is not part of the inorganic matrix of bone?
A) Magnesium
B) Collagen
C) Sodium
D) Fluoride
Q3) All the lamellae in compact bone are found to be part of the osteon.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood?
A) Blood clotting
B) Transmission of nerve impulses
C) Contraction of cardiac muscle
D) All of the above are dependent on the proper amount of calcium ions in the blood.
Q5) Explain the steps in the healing of a bone fracture.
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Chapter 12: Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bones make up the lower side of the cranium, part of its floor?
A) Occipital
B) Frontal
C) Parietal
D) Temporal
Q2) Middle part of the sternum
A)Body
B)False ribs
C)Floating ribs
D)Manubrium
E)True rib
F)Xiphoid process
G)Costal cartilage
Q3) The shoulder girdle consists of the sternum, the clavicle, and the scapula.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the clinical significance of the cribriform plate.
Q5) The skull contains more than 25 bones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pisiform bone can be found in the: A) wrist.
B) ankle.
C) neck.
D) skull.
Q2) The human hand has greater dexterity than the forepaw of any animal because of the freely movable joint of the:
A) elbow.
B) shoulder.
C) wrist.
D) thumb.
Q3) Medial malleolus
A)Femur
B)Fibula
C)Humerus
D)Coxal
E)Radius
F)Scapula
G)Tibia
H)Ulna
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Chapter 14: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The intercarpal joints occur at the points of articulation between the bones of the ankle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which structure of a synovial joint is defined as a closed, pillowlike structure that consists of a synovial membrane filled with synovial fluid?
A) Bursae
B) Ligament
C) Menisci
D) Joint capsule
Q3) List the structures that characterize synovial joints.
Q4) Because hinge joints can be involved in both flexion and extension, they are considered biaxial joints.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define flexion and extension, and give an example of each.
Q6) What are joint mice?
Q7) Differentiate among uniaxial, biaxial, and multiaxial joints.
Q8) Why is slight movement of the symphysis pubis necessary?
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Chapter 15: Axial Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscle that draws the eyebrows together, producing vertical wrinkles above the nose (frowning), is called the:
A) epicranius.
B) corrugator supercilii.
C) orbicularis oculi.
D) orbicularis oris.
Q2) Adductors
A)Location
B)Function
C)Shape
D)Direction of fibers
E)Number of heads or divisions
F)Points of attachment
Q3) The epimysium is deep to the perimysium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) There are more than twice as many muscles as there are bones in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define the terms insertion and origin, in relation to muscle movement.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Appendicular Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscle that flexes the semipronated or semisupinated forearm is the:
A) biceps brachii.
B) brachialis.
C) brachioradialis.
D) triceps brachii.
Q2) Which of the following is not a muscle of the quadriceps femoris group?
A) Rectus femoris
B) Biceps femoris
C) Vastus medialis
D) Vastus intermedius
Q3) The teres major and teres minor muscles move the:
A) forearm.
B) arm.
C) shoulder.
D) wrist.
Q4) The respiratory, digestive, circulatory, excretory, and endocrine systems all contribute to the ability of muscles to maintain posture.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is tenosynovitis, and how is it caused?
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Chapter 17: Muscle Contraction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the similarities and differences between skeletal and cardiac muscle cells. How do these differences reflect the functioning of the heart?
Q2) Define rigor mortis. Why does it occur?
Q3) Protein that looks like "bundled golf clubs"; makes up the thick myofilament
A)Actin
B)Sarcolemma
C)Contractility
D)Tropomyosin
E)Extensibility
F)Myosin
G)T-tubule
H)Irritability
I)Sarcomere
J)Troponin
K)Motor unit
Q4) Painful muscle contractions or involuntary twitches are called:
A) tetanic contractions.
B) cramps.
C) convulsions.
D) fibrillations.
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Chapter 18: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gray fibers probably do not have nodes of Ranvier.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Has the capability of phagocytosis
A)Astrocyte
B)Oligodendrocyte
C)Microglia
D)Schwann cell
E)Ependymal cell
Q3) The myelin sheath is formed by:
A) Nissl bodies.
B) nodes of Ranvier.
C) Schwann cells.
D) neuron cell bodies.
Q4) Astrocytes, the star-shaped glia cells, may be able to transmit information along "astrocyte pathways."
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the types of reflex arc. Differentiate between a contralateral reflex arc and an ipsilateral reflex arc.
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Chapter 19: Nerve Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) The neurotransmitter acetylcholine always has an excitatory effect.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the process of impulse conduction across a synapse.
Q3) Spatial summation is the effect produced by a rapid succession of stimuli on a single postsynaptic neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct impulses up to approximately _____ meters per second.
A) 60
B) 85
C) 130
D) 190
Q5) Glutamate is the most common excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The magnitude of the action potential peaks when the sodium channels close. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The meninges are protective coverings, continuous around the brain and spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The dorsal nerve root carries motor impulses from the spinal cord to the skeletal muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Disruption of cerebrospinal fluid circulation that causes the fluid to accumulate in the epidural space is known as hydrocephalus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The infundibulum connects the hypothalamus and the pineal body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is not an inward extension of the dura mater?
A) Falx callosum
B) Falx cerebri
C) Falx cerebelli
D) Tentorium cerebelli
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a reflex causes cardiac muscle to contract, it can be either a somatic or an autonomic reflex.
A)True B)False
Q2) The glossopharyngeal nerve supplies fibers to the carotid sinus, which has a role in the control of blood pressure.
A)True B)False
Q3) Plexus from which femoral nerve emerges
A)Cauda equina
B)Ventral nerve root
C)Dorsal nerve root
D)Cervical plexus
E)Brachial plexus
F)Lumbar plexus
G)Dermatome
H)Myotome
I)Somatic reflexes
J)Autonomic reflexes
Q4) What is a dermatome? What is a myotome?
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are characteristics of sympathetic preganglionic neurons except: A) they secrete acetylcholine.
B) they have long fibers from CNS to ganglion.
C) dendrites and cell bodies are found in the lateral gray columns of thoracic and the first four lumbar segments of the spinal cord.
D) All of the above are correct.
Q2) The parasympathetic division is also called the thoracolumbar division.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The somatic and autonomic nervous systems are similar in that they both have two efferent neurons between the CNS and the effector organ.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the ways in which sympathetic postganglionic neurons travel to their effector organs. Compare the relative length between sympathetic pre- and postganglionic neurons.
Q5) List four ways the body adapts itself for maximum energy expenditure during stress conditions.
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Chapter 23: General Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osmoreceptors detect changes in the concentration of electrolytes in body fluids and can stimulate the hypothalamic thirst center.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Taste buds are both exteroceptors and chemoreceptors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Another term for a visceroceptor is an interoceptor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The word "deform" describes the stimulus detected by:
A) chemoreceptors.
B) mechanoreceptors.
C) photoreceptors.
D) thermoreceptors.
Q5) Which of the following receptors are found in most body tissues?
A) Free nerve endings
B) Meissner corpuscles
C) Krause end bulbs
D) Ruffini corpuscles
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Chapter 24: Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Presbyopia is a condition resulting from:
A) excessive aqueous humor.
B) opacity of the lens.
C) loss of lens elasticity.
D) irregular curvature of the cornea.
Q2) Layer that includes the iris
A)Aqueous humor
B)Choroid
C)Cones
D)Cornea
E)Fovea centralis
F)Iris
G)Optic disk
H)Retina
I)Rods
J)Vitreous humor
Q3) Farsightedness, which is often the inability to focus the lens properly as we age, is also called presbyopia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prostaglandins are lipid substances derived from cholesterol.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The "lock-and-key" mechanism allows hormones to bind only with target cells that have receptors that "fit" them exactly.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Both steroid and nonsteroid hormones produce their effects by increasing the number of enzymes that catalyze cellular reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain how a hormone can act specifically on one type of cell and not on others.
Q5) Because most cells secrete prostaglandins, there is usually a fairly high concentration of prostaglandins in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain how cAMP acts as a second messenger for certain nonsteroid hormones.
Q7) How do the actions of prostaglandins differ from the actions of hormones?
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Chapter 26: Endocrine Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tropic hormones are secreted by the acidophils of the pars anterior.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The hormone that causes ejection of milk into the mammary ducts is:
A) prolactin.
B) estrogen.
C) oxytocin.
D) progesterone.
Q3) Thyroid hormone stimulates growth and tissue differentiation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The thyroid gland is the only endocrine organ that stores its hormones in another form for later release.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Growth hormone has a hyperglycemic effect.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What role does the hypophyseal portal system play in the control of secretions in the adenohypophysis?
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person with a parasitic worm infection might have an increase in the number of eosinophils in the blood.
A)True B)False
Q2) In order to maintain a constant level of red blood cells, about 2 billion red blood cells must be made per day.
A)True B)False
Q3) The protein spectrin helps keep the red blood cells rigid so they are not deformed when passing through a capillary.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person without A or B antigens on the red blood cells must have blood type O. A)True B)False
Q5) People with type O blood are considered universal donors because their blood has Rh antigen on the red blood cells.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 28: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Depolarization of the ventricles is:
A) clearly depicted by the QRS complex.
B) masked by the massive ventricular depolarization.
C) masked by the massive ventricular repolarization.
D) none of the above.
Q2) In electrocardiography, only the contraction of the cardiac muscle causes a deflection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The internal layer of tissue in the heart is the:
A) epicardium.
B) pericardium.
C) myocardium.
D) endocardium.
Q4) A drop in blood oxygen levels will stimulate an increase in the heart rate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The skeleton of the heart is made of cartilage rather than bone.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the external iliac artery enters the thigh, its name changes to the femoral artery.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a superficial vein in the lower arm?
A) Great saphenous
B) Cephalic
C) Brachial
D) Axillary
Q3) Brain
A)Axillary
B)Carotid
C)Coronary
D)Femoral
E)Gastric
F)Hepatic
G)Radial
H)Renal
I)Suprarenal
J)Tibial
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Circulation of the Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the elasticity of the artery wall decreases, the magnitude of the pulse wave increases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the baroreceptors?
A) They are stretch receptors.
B) They are sensitive to changes in the oxygen content of the blood.
C) They send afferent nerve impulses to the cardiac control centers.
D) They are located in the carotid sinus and the aorta.
Q3) An increase in ADH in the blood would have a tendency to increase total blood volume.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The popliteal pulse point is found on the anterior surface of the elbow.
A)True B)False
Q5) At rest most of the body's blood supply resides in the pulmonary loop.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name and give the location of five places in the body where a pulse can be felt.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Palatine tonsils are called adenoids when they become swollen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The thymus gland is a primary organ of the lymphatic system with an epithelial framework structure similar to that of the spleen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most of the protein in lymph comes from the small intestine and the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The terms lacteal and Peyer patches refer to the same structures in the intestines.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The "beaded" appearance of lymph vessels is caused by bands of smooth muscle tissue surrounding the vessel.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name and give the location of the major clusters of lymph nodes in the body.
Q7) Compare and contrast the structures of veins and lymphatics.
Page 33
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Chapter 32: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heat, redness, swelling, and pain are characteristic signs of inflammation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Interferon inhibits the spread of:
A) viruses.
B) bacteria.
C) cancer.
D) yeast.
Q3) Diapedesis is the process by which microbes are marked for destruction by phagocytic cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One function of phagocytes is to function as antigen-presenting cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cytokines include leukotrienes, interferons, and histamine.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is a natural killer cell? Explain the functioning of a natural killer cell.
Q7) Explain the role of toll-like receptors in the nonspecific immune system.
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Chapter 33: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibody whose precise function is not yet known
A)IgG
B)IgM
C)IgD
D)IgE
E)IgA
Q2) Antibody that is found in tears and saliva
A)IgG
B)IgM
C)IgD
D)IgE
E)IgA
Q3) When an antigen attaches to a naïve B cell, it becomes a(n) _____ cell.
A) memory
B) plasma
C) effector B
D) All of the above are correct.
Q4) T cells react mainly to antigens that are dissolved in plasma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 34: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define stressor.
Q2) Hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex in response to stress
A)Stage of resistance
B)Stressors
C)Adaptation
D)Stress syndrome
E)Alarm reaction
F)Stage of exhaustion
G)General adaptation syndrome
H)Glucocorticoids
Q3) A syndrome can be defined as a set of signs and symptoms that occur together and characterize one particular disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In response to stress, the adrenal cortex secretes:
A) norepinephrine.
B) norepinephrine and cortisol.
C) cortisol and aldosterone.
D) norepinephrine and aldosterone.
Q5) Explain the research that led to the development of Selye's theory on stress.
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nose is surrounded by the frontal bone and the mandible.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What part of the respiratory system serves as resonating chambers for speech?
Q3) The structures that deflect air as it passes through the nose are called:
A) choanae.
B) paranasal sinuses.
C) conchae.
D) vibrissae.
Q4) Identify some factors about the structure of lung tissue that make efficient gas exchange possible.
Q5) Just as all of the circulatory system serves the capillaries, all of the respiratory system serves the alveoli.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Paranasal sinuses are normally filled with:
A) bone marrow.
B) a serous fluid.
C) mucus.
D) air.
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Chapter 36: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Standard atmospheric pressure is _____ mm Hg.
A) 650
B) 700
C) 760
D) 800
Q2) Decrease in pulmonary ventilation that results in elevated blood levels of carbon dioxide
A)Dyspnea
B)Cheyne-Stokes respiration
C)Eupnea
D)Hypoventilation
E)Biot breathing
F)Hyperventilation
G)Hyperpnea
H)Orthopnea
I)Apneusis
J)Apnea
Q3) Normal tidal volume is about 500 ml.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Gas Exchange & Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) About 20% of the carbon dioxide that is carried in the blood is carried on hemoglobin attached to the acid group of an amino acid.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In order for the cells to get the correct amount of oxygen, the oxygen level in the interstitial fluid must be less than that of the cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a person were skiing high up in the mountains, she might feel that she is having trouble breathing (getting enough oxygen in her blood). This is because the:
A) thoracic cavity has a difficult time lowering the internal pressure below the lower atmospheric pressure.
B) lower atmospheric pressure lowers the PO and the diffusion gradient between the blood and the atmosphere is less.
C) lower atmospheric pressure lowers the PO and the diffusion gradient between the blood and the atmosphere is greater.
D) physiological dead air space increases and atmospheric pressure decreases.
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Chapter 38: Upper Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pulp cavity of the tooth consists of connective tissue, blood and lymphatic vessels, and nerves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The type of cell designed for absorption and secretion found throughout much of the GI tract is _____ epithelium.
A) simple columnar
B) stratified squamous
C) simple squamous
D) pseudostratified
Q3) Gingivitis is the general term for inflammation or infection of the gums.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The alimentary canal and the gastrointestinal tract refer to the same structure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The walls of the stomach and the small intestine have three layers of muscle tissue. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Lower Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the cause of appendicitis.
Q2) The peritoneum that lines the abdominal wall is called the parietal layer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Structure that stores and concentrates bile
A)Liver
B)Common bile duct
C)Mesentery
D)Ascending colon
E)Jejunum
F)Duodenum
G)Cystic duct
H)Ileum
I)Gallbladder
J)Descending colon
K)Pancreas
Q4) The falciform ligament in the liver divides it into equal right and left halves.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the location, structure, and function of the pancreas.
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Chapter 40: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following protein-digesting enzymes is made in the stomach?
A) Trypsin
B) Chymotrypsin
C) Pepsin
D) Peptidase
Q2) Donna has Crohn disease, which results in inflammation and ulceration of the small intestine. Her physician recommended surgery to help in the management of this autoimmune disease. Could her entire small intestine be removed? Why or why not?
Q3) Secretions of the digestive glands are mostly water.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The process of emptying the stomach takes about 12 hours after a meal.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Carbohydrates that are used for food are made up of one or more saccharide groups.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are the functions of mechanical digestion?
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Chapter 41: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evaluation of food and drink (nutrient) requirements for normal body functions
A)Anabolism
B)Catabolism
C)Metabolism
D)Nutrition
E)Assimilation
Q2) Unsaturated fats have double bonds in their fatty acid chains.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Glycogenesis is an example of carbohydrate anabolism.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Glycolysis is unique in carbohydrate metabolism in that it is the only process that does not occur in the mitochondrion.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Of the 20 amino acids used by the body, the body can synthesize 18.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List and explain factors that can influence BMR.
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Chapter 42: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the aldosterone concentration increases, the amount of potassium reabsorbed into the blood increases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Of all the blood pumped per minute by the heart, approximately ____ goes through the kidneys.
A) 1/5
B) 1/3
C) 1/2
D) 3/4
Q3) Both ADH and aldosterone attempt to decrease normal urine output.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One important function of the slit diaphragms is the prevention of large molecules such as proteins from passing through.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The renal artery branches directly from the abdominal aorta.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The release of aldosterone can cause an increase in the blood colloid osmotic pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not true of sodium chloride (NaCl)?
A) It will dissociate in water.
B) It will form ions.
C) It has the same type of bonds as glucose.
D) All of the above are true about sodium chloride.
Q3) A body weight loss of 7% due to dehydration is the most that can be tolerated and still sustain life.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Osmoreceptors assist in controlling homeostasis of body fluids by:
A) causing the anterior pituitary gland to secrete increased amounts of ACTH, thus decreasing more fluids.
B) causing the posterior pituitary to stop releasing ADH.
C) decreasing the function of the pons and reducing fluid losses.
D) working in the hypothalamus to trigger a conscious sense of dry mouth and thirst.
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Chapter 44: Acid Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the chloride shift and what is its cause?
Q2) When NaOH is added to a buffered solution, one of the substances produced is water.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sulfuric acid results from the metabolism of:
A) glucose.
B) amino acids.
C) fats.
D) ribonucleotides.
Q4) If the blood pH decreases below normal, the kidney tubules secrete:
A) fewer hydrogen ions from blood to urine.
B) more hydrogen ions from blood to urine.
C) more sodium ions into the urine.
D) Both A and C are correct.
Q5) Which of the following would have the greatest concentration of hydrogen ions?
A) pH 2
B) pH 6
C) pH 8
D) pH 10
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Chapter 45: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the negative feedback mechanism that controls the anterior pituitary gland secretion of LH and the interstitial cell secretion of testosterone.
Q2) If the anabolic steroid testosterone is taken at a young age, the epiphyses of the bones will continue to grow and the person will grow taller.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In both sexes, the essential organs of reproduction are the testes. A)True
B)False
Q4) The ampulla is a portion of the epididymis. A)True
B)False
Q5) Most of the estrogen found in males is probably made in the liver or other tissues. A)True B)False
Q6) The tunica vaginalis is a serous membrane that surrounds the testes.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 46: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main hormone produced by the growing primary follicle is progesterone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Birth control pills prevent pregnancy by preventing implantation of the fertilized ovum.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The outer layer of theca cells in the ovary produce an androgen that is converted to estrogen by the granulosa cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The gonads of the female are the ovaries.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Mammary glands are considered accessory organs of the female reproductive system.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the structure of the uterus.
Q7) List and describe the various components of the vulva.
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Chapter 47: Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) What layer of the ovum has receptors for sperm cells?
A) Zona pellucida
B) Corona radiata
C) Theca cells
D) Both A and B
Q2) "Old eye"
A)Atherosclerosis
B)Arteriosclerosis
C)Stroke
D)Osteoarthritis
E)"Barrel chest"
F)Lipping
G)Cataract
H)Hypertension
I)Glaucoma
J)Presbyopia
Q3) The fundus of the uterus is part of the body of the uterus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the theories of aging discussed in this chapter.
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Chapter 48: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The genetic code is transmitted to offspring in discrete, independent units that are called:
A) chromosomes.
B) genes.
C) gametes.
D) nucleosomes.
Q2) Chorionic villus sampling is a newer procedure than amniocentesis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One specific transcribed mRNA strand will always produce the same polypeptide. A)True
B)False
Q4) Crossing over is the process during which:
A) similar gametes fuse together.
B) dissimilar gametes fuse together.
C) meiosis stops after meiosis I.
D) pairs of matching chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell and exchange genes with one another.
Q5) Give a brief description of one genetic disorder that is the result of nondisjunction during formation of the gametes.
50
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