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This course provides a comprehensive introduction to human physiology tailored for students who are not majoring in biological sciences. It explores the fundamental principles governing the function of the major organ systems, including the nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and endocrine systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding how these systems maintain homeostasis and respond to internal and external stimuli. Real-world applications and case studies help students appreciate the relevance of physiology to health, disease, and everyday life, making complex concepts accessible through practical examples and interactive discussions. No prior background in biology is required.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Science for Life with Physiology Edition 5th Edition by Colleen M. Belk
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25 Chapters
1631 Verified Questions
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79 Verified Questions
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Q1) In an experiment testing the prediction that a certain drug prevents cataracts in females over the age of 65, which control should be used?
A) male subjects
B) female subjects younger than 65
C) alternative drugs that are suspected to prevent cataracts
D) female subjects over 65 that are given placebos
Answer: D
Q2) What type of scientific information would include a news report?
A) primary source
B) secondary source
C) tertiary source
D) anecdotal evidence
Answer: B
Q3) What would be the most trustworthy source of scientific information?
A) anecdotal evidence
B) paid advertisements
C) peer-reviewed research publications
D) science reports in newspapers and on TV
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following has the lowest OH concentration?
A) baking soda
B) pure water
C) coffee
D) battery acid
Answer: D
Q2) Which monomer units combine to form proteins?
A) amino acids
B) fatty acids
C) nucleotides
D) sugars
Answer: A
Q3) Imagine a newly discovered biological molecule that is mostly hydrophobic in its structure. How would this new molecule be classified?
A) carbohydrate
B) lipid
C) nucleic acid
D) protein
Answer: B

Page 4
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antioxidant is naturally found in cocoa?
A) vitamin A
B) beta-carotene
C) flavonol
D) vitamin C
Answer: C
Q2) In what molecular form does the human body store excess carbohydrates in muscles and the liver?
Answer: glycogen
Q3) Which problem could be caused by a decrease in the body's normal water level?
A) muscle cramps
B) decreased heart rate
C) low body temperature
D) increased sweating
Answer: A
Q4) If sports drinks have a higher solute concentration than blood, what condition may result when you drink them?
Answer: dehydration

Page 5
Q5) What is the compartment in a eukaryotic cell where DNA is stored as chromatin?
Answer: nucleus
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Q1) Which BMI range has the lowest relative risk of death?
A) 18-24.99 (normal weight)
B) 25-29.99 (overweight)
C) 30-34.99 (moderate obesity)
D) 35 and above (severe obesity)
Q2) What is meant by metabolism?
A) the body's ability to lose weight
B) the body's ability to maintain a constant temperature
C) all of the chemical reactions occurring in the body
D) the chemical reactions that create molecules in the body
Q3) Assume that a newly developed chemical agent blocks the active site of the enzyme shown in the figure. What molecule should the drug imitate in size and shape?
A) glucose
B) fructose
C) sucrase
D) sucrose
Q4) What 3-carbon molecules are produced when a 6-carbon glucose is broken down during glycolysis? (two words)
Q5) What weight classification would include a person with a BMI of 23?
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Q1) What is the initial carbon-containing starting product in the Calvin cycle?
A) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
B) glucose
C) ribulose bisphosphate
D) rubisco
Q2) Why does sweating cool your body?
A) The water in sweat, as it is secreted from skin glands, is cooler than your body temperature.
B) Heat energy from your skin is used to evaporate the water in the sweat.
C) Water in sweat contains hydrogen bonds that react with skin cells and removes excess heat from the skin.
D) Sweat contains a combination of chemicals that react with salt on the skin to create a heat-absorbing substance.
Q3) Which types of plant stores carbon dioxide as an organic acid in its vacuoles?
A) C plants
B) C plants
C) C plants
D) CAM plants
Q4) What does the glucose molecule supply to cells?
Q5) What cells regulate gas exchange by opening and closing the stomata?
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Q1) What are specialized cells (egg cells and sperm cells, for example) used for sexual reproduction?
Q2) What are genes that are located on the same chromosome and move together to the same gamete?
A) alleles
B) diploid genes
C) homologous genes
D) linked genes
Q3) Which term describes a cancerous tumor?
A) benign
B) carcinogenic
C) malignant
D) oncogenic
Q4) What process occurs when cancer cells detach from tumors and spread to other parts of the body?
A) angiogenesis
B) carcinogenesis
C) metastasis
D) mutagenesis
Q5) What enzyme assists in DNA synthesis? (two words)
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Q1) What causes the differences between two human cell types (for example, a skin cell and a brain cell)?
A) Different cell types begin with the same genes but eliminate certain genes as they develop.
B) Different cell types contain different genes.
C) Different cell types contain different proteins that give each cell a different function.
D) Different cell types contain the same genes but use different combinations of them.
Q2) What are the segments of DNA that generally code for proteins?
Q3) Which process creates new alleles to affect genetic diversity in a population?
A) independent assortment
B) random fertilization
C) segregation
D) mutation
Q4) What does the highest point on a bell-shaped curve represent?
A) maximum amount of variation in a trait
B) heritability value of a trait
C) number of people in the population who are heterozygous
D) mean of the population
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Q1) What blood type would a child with the genotype IAi have?
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
Q2) Which member(s) of the Romanov family shared DNA sequences with England's Prince Philip?
A) both the tsar and the tsarina
B) only the tsar
C) only the tsarina
D) neither the tsar nor the tsarina
Q3) A person with hemophilia lacks the pleiotropic gene that codes for the protein called clotting factor VIII. What effects will this have on a person with hemophilia?
A) The person will only have the symptom of lack of blood clotting (bleeding).
B) The person will always have the same symptoms as other hemophiliacs.
C) The person will have many other symptoms in addition to excessive bleeding.
D) The person will always have neurological problems.
Q4) What pattern of inheritance occurs in the ABO blood system where there are three distinct alleles in human populations?
Page 10
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Q1) What determines the structure of a protein?
A) the number of amino acids it contains
B) the sequence of the amino acids it contains
C) the function of the nucleic acids it contains
D) the number of fatty acids it contains
Q2) What sequence of events usually occurs in the process of protein synthesis?
A) Protein RNA DNA
B) RNA DNA protein
C) DNA RNA protein
D) RNA protein DNA
Q3) Which molecule serves as the template during translation?
A) DNA
B) mRNA
C) tRNA
D) polymerase
Q4) Which nitrogenous base pairs with adenine in a DNA molecule?
A) cytosine
B) thymine
C) uracil
D) guanine
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Sample Questions
Q1) What embryonic structures are common in all chordates?
A) pharyngeal slits
B) arrector pili
C) gametophytes
D) vertebrae
Q2) True or false: Special creation could be considered a scientific hypothesis, but no one has ever tested it using scientific means.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How do scientists use the term theory?
A) as a hypothesis that has not yet been tested
B) as a hypothesis that seems logical but cannot be tested because it's impractical to do so
C) as a set of findings that are supported by repeated testing
D) as ideas which are so obviously true that testing is not required
Q4) Based on DNA evidence, fossil evidence, homology, and vestigial structures, what do humans and chimpanzees share?
Q5) What is the main mechanism that results in evolution?
Q6) What term describes distribution patterns of living things around the world?
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Q1) You notice that some squirrels in your neighborhood have a much darker coat color than most of the other squirrels. Is this darker color an adaptation?
A) Yes, all variations are adaptations.
B) No, adaptations are traits developed when they're needed to help an organism survive.
C) You can't know unless you can know the coat color of the dark squirrel's parents.
D) The trait is only an adaptation if it gives the squirrels an advantage in their habitat.
Q2) Which variation could be subject to natural selection?
A) A dog with short legs due to malnutrition is able to crawl into holes better than his littermates.
B) A tree is not infested by a ground-dwelling beetle when the homeowner cuts the lower branches.
C) A hyena is born with a spotted fur pattern that allows it to hide in the grass better than its littermates.
D) A pigeon learns that when its keeper comes near it will get fed.
Q3) What is the raw material for evolution?
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Q1) True or false: Levels of ultraviolet light influence both folate and vitamin D production in humans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In order to be acted on by sexual selection, what is required of a trait?
A) It must be something that influences mate choice by the opposite sex.
B) It must be something that increases survival.
C) It must be a male trait.
D) It must be a trait that increases fertility.
Q3) Genealogical species are groups that have diverged from a common ancestor but aren't yet reproductively ________.
Q4) About how long have modern humans existed?
A) 25,000 years
B) 250,000 years
C) 2,500,000 years
D) 25,000,000 years
Q5) What trait in humans is correlated with the humidity in the air to which the group is adapted?
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Q1) What is the most important role of bacteria in the environment?
A) as disease-causing agents
B) as fungal control
C) as decomposers
D) as a source of restriction enzymes
Q2) How are prokaryotes different from eukaryotes?
A) Prokaryotes have no DNA.
B) Prokaryotes have no nucleus separating the DNA from the rest of the cell.
C) Prokaryotes are unicellular, while eukaryotes are multicellular.
D) Prokaryotes cause disease, but eukaryotes don't.
Q3) What free-living organisms developed into both mitochondria and chloroplasts?
A) protists
B) animals
C) bacteria
D) plants
Q4) True or false: It's possible for the same species to be categorized under two different names in different natural history museums around the world.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What process is performed by both algae and plants?
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Q1) Walking along a mile-long path in the woods, you notice a stand of your favorite wildflower, the cardinal flower, three different times. You find each stand of cardinal flower, including many flowers in each stand, on a stream bank. What type of distribution applies to this example?
A) clumped
B) uniform
C) random
D) normal
Q2) Which energy source is a nonrenewable resource?
A) solar energy
B) hydrogen fuel cell
C) wind power
D) natural gas
Q3) True or false: The carrying capacity of a given geographic region for a single population can change over time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) True or false: Human population growth has always been exponential.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following would be most threatened by habitat fragmentation?
A) songbirds
B) lizards
C) mountain lions
D) antelopes
Q2) Why is a species that has few individuals at greater risk of extinction than a species with a large population size?
A) A species with few individuals is more likely to be eliminated by a reduction in population size caused by a chance environmental event like bad weather or a fire.
B) There's no risk to a small population as long as genetic diversity is high.
C) A species with few individuals is likely to have a high percentage of heterozygotes. This can reduce the likelihood that the species can adaptively evolve in response to environmental changes.
D) Genetic drift allows small populations to avoid the loss of advantageous alleles from the population.
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Q1) Buffalo, New York, experiences a "lake effect" when wind blowing across the warm water accumulates water vapor that condenses when reaching cooler land. Boston's climate is moderated by the warmer ocean water that lies to the east. Assuming similar winter temperatures, how much snowfall accumulation would be expected in Boston compared to Buffalo?
A) less snow in Boston
B) more snow in Boston
C) about the same in both cities
D) It is impossible to predict.
Q2) What is the purpose of the fragrant oils found in rosemary and thyme?
A) They encourage humans to pick them and spread their seeds.
B) They protect the plants from fire.
C) They help fuel fires, to which they've become adapted.
D) They discourage humans from consuming the plants.
Q3) To determine a geographic area's climate, what variable conditions must be taken into account?
A) distance from the equator and available sunlight
B) altitude and bodies of water
C) temperature and precipitation
D) air quality and urbanization
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Q1) What type of matrix does adipose (fat) tissue exhibit?
A) liquid
B) viscous
C) solid
D) fibrous
Q2) Which action is an example of voluntary muscle contraction?
A) a push-up
B) peristalsis
C) a heartbeat
D) stomach churning
Q3) How do striated and smooth muscles differ?
A) Striated muscle is involuntary, but smooth muscle is voluntary.
B) Striated muscle has a banding pattern under the microscope, but smooth muscle doesn't.
C) Striated muscle can contract for a long period, but smooth muscle contracts very briefly.
D) Striated muscle cells have nuclei, but smooth muscle cells do not.
Q4) What tissue type protects the body from water loss?
Q5) What connective tissue is made from substances secreted by osteocytes?
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Q1) What does the liver filter from the blood?
A) toxins
B) chyme
C) hepatocytes
D) glycogen
Q2) Which enzyme in saliva breaks down sugars? (two words)
Q3) Which organ system acts upon substances contained in the alimentary canal?
A) circulatory system
B) digestive system
C) integumentary system
D) excretory system
Q4) What strategy will encourage a safer engagement with alcohol?
A) adding energy drinks to any alcoholic beverage
B) alternating drinking glasses of water with alcoholic drinks
C) drinking only two to three alcoholic beverages per hour
D) eating a large meal after consuming alcohol
Q5) What are the functional units of the kidneys?
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Q1) True or false: The majority of deaths due to smoking result from cardiovascular disease, not lung cancer or other lung diseases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is one consequence of long-term exposure to carbon monoxide, found in environmental tobacco smoke?
A) damage to hemoglobin
B) protection from bronchitis
C) higher-than-average birth weights of babies born to smoking mothers
D) diminished brain function in infants and children
Q3) True or false: As you're sitting in your chair reading this test question, the process of breathing out (termed exhalation) is an active process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What potential consequence on the cardiovascular system may result from smoking?
A) an increase in the production of HDL
B) a decrease in the production of LDL
C) a higher risk of atherosclerosis
D) an increase in the risk for lung cancer
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Q1) Why are latent viruses more likely to be transmitted to unsuspecting hosts than other types of viruses?
A) Because latent viruses have the ability to infect host cells better than most types of viruses.
B) Latent viruses lack a capsid, which enables them to infect host cells more readily.
C) Latent viruses reproduce slowly and steadily, allowing them to gain a foothold in the host.
D) Latent viruses can undergo long periods of dormancy, enabling infected hosts to transmit them to others unknowingly.
Q2) What are molecules such as viruses and bacteria that are foreign to the host and stimulate the immune system to react?
Q3) What happens during an autoimmune disease such as multiple sclerosis?
A) B cells are no longer able to make antibodies.
B) Helper T cells are no longer produced.
C) Infectious agents are able to hide in immune system cells.
D) Immune system cells attack healthy body cells.
Q4) Where are developing lymphocytes tested to determine whether they'll bind to self-proteins?
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Q1) What type of cells respond to a particular hormone?
A) glandular
B) target
C) receptive
D) endocrine
Q2) Which component of bone tissue forms the hard outer shell of bones?
A) bone marrow
B) compact bone
C) spongy bone
D) cartilage
Q3) When a person dies, muscles become rigid and fixed in position. This is a condition known as rigor mortis. Why does rigor mortis occur?
A) ATP is not available to release myosin heads from actin filaments.
B) Muscle fibers break down quickly in the absence of oxygen.
C) ATP is not available to cause sarcomeres to shorten.
D) The human skeletal system locks together after death.
Q4) While ________ are involved in bone deposition, ________ are involved in the breakdown of bone tissue.
Q6) Which type of skeleton protects a human's soft internal organs? Page 23
Q5) Which structure produces immune cells and is part of the lymphatic system?
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Q1) What structures inside the human penis are responsible for an erection?
A) columns of erectile tissue that fill with blood
B) a series of small bones that push out of the pelvic cavity and into the penis during arousal
C) small balloon-like glands that fill with air
D) one large bone that pushes out of the pelvic cavity and into the penis during arousal
Q2) Where does sperm production takes place?
A) seminiferous tubules
B) Leydig cells
C) epididymis
D) vas deferens
Q3) What process occurs in cells that become more specialized in their function?
A) cleavage
B) gastrulation
C) differentiation
D) fertilization
Q4) What are the primary female reproductive organs that are responsible for producing egg cells?
Q5) What body system allows the survival of different species?
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Q1) Huntington's disease is a fatal disorder characterized by abnormal muscle movements called chorea. Based on your knowledge of the nervous system, which brain region would be disrupted by Huntington's disease?
A) thalamus
B) midbrain
C) caudate nucleus
D) corpus callosum
Q2) Which structures would be classified as effectors?
A) sensory neurons
B) interneurons
C) body tissues
D) neurotransmitters
Q3) What is the sudden withdrawal of one's hand from a hot stove?
A) learning
B) common sense
C) an instinct
D) a reflex
Q4) What system is composed of the spinal cord and brain?
Page 26
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Q1) What is the loss of fertilizer and pesticides from soil by water moving through it?
A) the pesticide treadmill
B) biomagnification
C) soil erosion
D) runoff
Q2) Plants need both macronutrients and micronutrients to grow. Which chemical is a plant micronutrient?
A) nitrogen
B) iron
C) magnesium
D) sulfur
Q3) What type of growth does a plant exhibit when its trunk gets thicker?
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) determinate
Q4) What is the emergence of a plant embryo from a seed?
Q5) Pollination occurs when the pollen of a flower lands on which plant structure?
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Q1) What is the tendency of a plant's uppermost bud to limit the growth of lower buds? (two words)
Q2) What is the time from the final frost in the spring to the first frost in the fall?
A) transpiration
B) hardiness
C) a growing season
D) translocation
Q3) A greenhouse manager wants to encourage long-term, productive flowering instead of short-term, rapid flowering in annual garden plants that are for sale. Which action would accomplish that goal?
A) pruning away early flowers
B) limiting water and fertilizer
C) moving the plants to the shadiest part of the greenhouse
D) allowing any flowers to become fruits and seeds
Q4) Which phenomena drives transpiration in a terrestrial woody plant?
A) evaporation
B) gravitropism
C) translocation
D) photoperiodism
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