Physiology for Life Sciences
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
This course introduces students to the fundamental principles of physiology as they relate to living organisms, with a focus on humans and other model systems. Through the study of key biological processes including neural, muscular, cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, digestive, and endocrine systems students gain an understanding of how the body maintains homeostasis and responds to internal and external changes. Emphasis is placed on integrating molecular, cellular, and systemic perspectives to explore how physiological mechanisms support life, adaptability, and health, providing a foundational knowledge base for future studies in health, biology, medicine, and related life sciences fields.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology An Integrated Approach 7th Edition by Silverthorn
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26 Chapters
3071 Verified Questions
3071 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is it necessary to space grid marks on a graph proportionally to the quantity measured (example: each square represents one centimeter)?
Answer: If this is not done, a trend would be obscured or even misrepresented.
Q2) List all of the errors in Figure 1.1.
Answer: 1.The units of concentration are labeled as M when they should be mg.
2.The x-axis is in decreasing order of concentration.
3.The graph needs a legend.
Q3) Summarize the data shown in Figure 1.2.
Answer: The systolic pressure of both genders increases with age.Under age 40, the systolic pressure of males is higher than that of females.After age 40, the systolic pressure of females is higher than that of males.The greatest rate of increase is from ages 50 to 70 in both genders.Blood pressure declines after age 70.
Q4) Use Table 1.1 to graph the data appropriately.What can you CONCLUDE based on the new figure?
Answer: This small sample suggests that an increase in epinephrine concentration increases the average heart rate of Sprague-Dawley rats.
Q5) Why are physiology and anatomy frequently studied together?
Answer: This is discussed in the "Physiology Is an Integrative Science"
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Chapter 2: Molecular Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chromium is
A) not an element in the periodic table.
B) a protein.
C) a dietary supplement with no natural role in the body.
D) an essential element involved in glucose metabolism.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is a way to recognize a carbohydrate by looking at its name only?
A) It ends in -ase.
B) It ends in -ose.
C) It begins with nucleo-.
D) It begins with proteo-.
E) It begins with lipo-.
Answer: B
Q3) Compare and contrast the chemical bonds between adjacent monomers in DNA, and between two strands of DNA.
Answer: The bonds holding monomers together are covalent bonds, between sugar and phosphate molecules.The bonds holding neighboring strands together at the complementary bases are hydrogen bonds.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Compartmentation: Cells and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) This type of epithelia is composed of cells with membrane extensions that beat in a coordinated fashion to move fluid and particles across the tissue.
A) exchange
B) transport
C) ciliated
D) protective
E) secretory
Answer: C
Q2) Which type of tissue below has minimal extracellular matrix?
A) epithelial only
B) connective only
C) neural only
D) muscle only
E) epithelial, neural, and muscle
Answer: E
Q3) Describe the progression of a fertilized egg, from totipotent cell through pluripotent and multipotent stem cells.How might stem cells be of therapeutic value? What is plasticity?
Answer: This is discussed in the "Tissue Remodeling"
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Chapter 4: Energy and Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) To activate a regulated gene, the formation of mRNA is ________ by the binding of ________ to the promoter.
A) repressed, transcription factors
B) repressed, translation factors
C) induced, transcription factors
D) induced, translation factors
Q2) Some diseases, such as phenylketonuria, classical hemophilia, cystic fibrosis, and muscular dystrophy are a result of enzyme malfunction.Each of these diseases is inherited.Explain how there might be a relationship among these observations.
Q3) synthetase
A)oxidoreductase
B)hydrolase
C)transferase
D)ligase
E)Lyase
Q4) Compare and contrast potential energy with kinetic energy.
Q5) A certain molecule that participates in more than one biochemical pathway and acts as a branch point for channeling substrate in one direction or another is called a
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Chapter 5: Membrane Dynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly explain the difference between open channels and gated channels.
Q2) Nurse Cameron has been asked to mix an isotonic intravenous solution for an emergency room patient who has lost a lot of blood.The available solutes include glucose (m.w.180), NaCl (m.w.58.5), and urea (m.w.60).How should she make up 10 L of IV solution with an osmolarity of 290 mOsm (isosmotic), making sure that it will also be isotonic?
Q3) Explain the process of receptor-mediated endocytosis and exocytosis.
Q4) Explain the steps that occur in a pancreatic beta cell so that insulin is secreted.
Q5) What are the two extracellular fluid compartments in the body?
A) intracellular and plasma
B) plasma and interstitial
C) interstitial and intracellular
D) plasma and the fluid portion of the blood
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q6) Name two ways the selectivity of a channel is determined.
Q7) Diuretics cause the kidneys to produce large amounts of urine.Unfortunately, they can also cause the loss of large quantities of K in the urine.What effect might prolonged use of diuretics have on nerve or muscle cells?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Communication, Integration, and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Receptors in cell signaling are not to be confused with receptors that activate a reflex arc.Explain the difference, using specific examples.
Q2) A physiological parameter which is regulated in an up-down fashion by signals that are always present but change in intensity is said to be under ________.
Q3) Define tonic control and give a physiological example.
Q4) A few gases are known to act as signal molecules, including ________, ________, and ________.
Q5) Compare and contrast hormones, neurotransmitters, and neurohormones.
Q6) When epinephrine combines with alpha adrenergic receptors on smooth muscle in intestinal blood vessels, the blood vessels ________; however, when epinephrine binds to beta-2 adrenergic receptors on certain skeletal muscle blood vessels, the vessels
Q7) Describe the four classes of membrane receptor molecules.
Q8) ________ is a process by which an extracellular signal molecule, called the ________, activates a membrane receptor that in turn alters intracellular molecules, called the ________, to create a response.
Q9) If the signal molecule acts on the cell that secreted it, the chemical is called a(n)________.
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Chapter 7: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A circulatory route that has two sets of capillaries is known as a ________.
Q2) When an organ or gland shrinks due to lack of use, that condition is referred to as ________.
Q3) Each of the following statements concerning peptide hormones is True except one.Identify the exception.
A) Peptide hormones are first synthesized as prohormones.
B) Prohormones can be activated before their release via post-translational modification.
C) Peptide hormones remain in circulation for relatively short periods of time.
D) Peptide hormones in the bloodstream are always bound to carrier proteins.
E) Peptide hormones interact with receptors on the surface of their target cells.
Q4) Hormones are not typically considered to be cytokines because hormones are ________ like cytokines.
A) synthesized in advance and stored, not
B) not peptides
C) not effective in small amounts
D) secreted into the blood, not
E) secreted by cells, not
Q5) Two hormones that have opposing effects are called ________.
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Chapter 8: Neurons: Cellular and Network Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) Graded potentials that arrive at postsynaptic neurons are called ________ if they make that cell less likely to fire.
Q2) If a stimulating electrode is placed in the middle of a resting axon and an above-threshold voltage is applied to the electrode action potentials
A) will not occur.
B) will start at that point and proceed only toward the axon terminal.
C) will start at that point and proceed only toward the cell body.
D) will start at that point and travel in both directions in the axon.
Q3) Which ion(s)is/are higher in concentration inside the cell compared to outside?
A) potassium
B) sodium
C) chloride
D) calcium
E) More than one of the answers is correct.
Q4) The cell body of neurons is generally
A) 90% of the cell volume.
B) 50% of the cell volume.
C) 10% of the cell volume.
D) found in the same position on every neuron.
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Chapter 9: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inability to remember newly acquired information is called
A) discombobulation.
B) anterograde amnesia.
C) short-term amnesia.
D) implicit amnesia.
E) retrograde amnesia.
Q2) relay station for transfer of information between the cerebrum and cerebellum; coordinates breathing control with other areas
A)medulla oblongata
B)pons
C)midbrain
D)reticular formation
Q3) Do the terms vertebral column and spinal cord mean the same thing? Explain.
Q4) Describe the phases of a normal sleep cycle.
Q5) Describe a lumbar puncture and explain its purpose.
Q6) Trace the language pathway of signals from the eye (written words)or the ear (spoken words)to the motor cortex.Discuss the two regions of the cortex involved in this pathway.Describe their location and the communication problems that can occur if there is damage to either area.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Sensory Physiology
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175 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemicals such as histamine, prostaglandins, serotonin, and substance P
A) only sensitize nociceptors.
B) only activate nociceptors.
C) only inhibit nociceptors.
D) only sensitize and activate nociceptors.
E) sensitize, activate and inhibit nociceptors.
Q2) Activation of a ________ leads to the perception of pain and itch.
Q3) ________ cells connect photoreceptors to ganglion cells.
Q4) The bending of light as it passes through media of different densities is called ________.
Q5) Collateral pathways take vestibular receptor signals from the medulla to the A) reticular formation only.
B) thalamus only.
C) cerebellum only.
D) reticular formation and cerebellum.
E) thalamus and reticular formation.
Q6) Explain why calling receptors for noxious stimuli "pain receptors" is inaccurate.What is the more accepted term for these receptors?
Q7) A ________ is a single energy packet of visible light.
Q8) List and define the four major receptor groups.
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Chapter 11: Efferent Division: Autonomic and Somatic Motor Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antagonistic control of efferent output is typical of the ________ division.
A) somatic
B) sensory
C) autonomic
D) somatic and sensory
E) somatic and autonomic
Q2) blocks secretion of adrenal catecholamines
A)sympathetic antagonist
B)parasympathetic antagonist
Q3) The division of the autonomic nervous system that prepares the body for intense levels of activity and stress is the
A) sympathetic division.
B) parasympathetic division.
C) craniosacral division.
D) intramural division.
E) somatomotor division.
Q4) Cholinergic receptors respond to the neurotransmitter ________.
Q5) Describe the major anatomical differences between the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches.
Q6) ________ are swellings that contain vesicles filled with neurotransmitter. Page 13
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Page 14
Chapter 12: Muscles
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106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Skeletal muscle cells are usually attached to bone by A) fascicles.
B) ligaments.
C) tendons.
D) flexors.
Q2) A construction worker entered the emergency room after an accident in which his leg was crushed by falling beams.A color of the urine sample is noticeably reddish brown.Assuming that color is related to the accident, what molecule could have been released from the damaged muscle cells that colored the urine? What is the function of this molecule?
Q3) A contraction that generates enough force to move a load is known as ________, whereas one that generates force that equals the load is known as ________.
A) isotropic, isometric
B) isometric, eccentric
C) isotonic, isometric
D) isometric, isotonic
E) isotonic, eccentric
Q4) The gap junctions in cardiac muscle are part of specialized cell junctions that are localized to the ________.
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Chapter 13: Integrative Physiology I: Control of Body Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) Draw two graphs that represent the alpha-gamma coactivation:
1.muscle length as a function of time
2.action potentials of spindle sensory neuron as a function of time
Q2) List three ways that neural reflex pathways can be classified.Name one of the reflexes in each category.What additional information may be gained from the name of the reflex? Name a specific reflex and identify its classification in all of the categories you listed.
Q3) Name the components of a reflex pathway, and describe generally how a reflex works.
Q4) an example would be slowing or speeding the heart and other internal organs that are not consciously controlled
A)somatic
B)autonomic
C)spinal
D)cranial
E)innate
F)acquired
G)polysynaptic
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Q5) Are relaxation of a muscle and inhibition of a muscle the same thing? Explain your answer.
Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how Ca² levels inside myocardial cells are important to cell function.
Q2) The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the A) end-diastolic volume.
B) end-systolic volume.
C) stroke volume.
D) cardiac output.
E) cardiac reserve.
Q3) Name the three portal systems in the body.
Q4) During fasting, some capillary beds in the digestive tract are closed and therefore have no blood flow.Others are open to meet the minimal need of the tract for blood flow.During eating and as long as food is present in the tract, all capillary beds open to flow.What happens to total cross-sectional area of vessels in the digestive tract?
A)increased
B)decreased
C)unchanged
D)stopped
Q5) The ________ is a wall that separates the two sides of the heart.
Q6) The ________ circuit carries blood to and from the alveoli of the lungs.
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Chapter 15: Blood Flow and the Control of Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Perfusion is
A) blood flow through an organ.
B) the driving force behind blood flow.
C) delivery of oxygen to cells.
D) the connection between capillaries and other vessels.
E) movement of blood through a shunt.
Q2) Compare and contrast the structure and location of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, and veins.How do these differences contribute to the differences in function of each?
Q3) The osmotic pressure created by the presence of proteins is known as ________, which is ________ (higher/lower)in the plasma than in the interstitial fluid.
Q4) The turbulent flow of blood causes a noise called a ________ that can be heard through the stethoscope when taking blood pressure.
Q5) For a diagnosis of hypertension, a patient must have
A) a systolic pressure above 120 mm Hg.
B) a systolic pressure above 140 mm Hg.
C) a diastolic pressure above 90 mm Hg.
D) a diastolic pressure below 80 mm Hg.
E) a systolic pressure above 140 mm Hg or a diastolic pressure above 90 mm Hg.
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of fibrinolysis
A) activates fibrinogen.
B) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together.
C) dissolves clots.
D) forms emboli.
E) forms thrombi.
Q2) A person who goes from sea level to a city that is 5000 feet above sea level will show an increased hematocrit within 2 to 3 days.Draw the reflex pathway that links the hypoxia of high altitude to increased red blood cell production.
Q3) Often called immunocytes, these cells direct the activities of the immune system.
A)lymphocytes
B)erythrocytes
C)eosinophils
D)platelets
E)neutrophils
Q4) Summarize the steps of the coagulation cascade.
Q5) The hormone that regulates the production of red blood cells is ________.
Q6) The dissolution of fibrin by plasmin is known as ________.
Q7) What is the difference between hemostasis and homeostasis, or are they the same?
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Mechanics of Breathing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ________ is an instrument that measures the volume of air moved with each breath.
Q2) The volume of air that remains in the lungs after a forced expiration is called the ________.
Q3) Bronchioles and systemic arterioles constrict.
A)PO increases.
B)PCO increases.
C)PO decreases.
D)PCO decreases.
Q4) When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, A) expiration occurs.
B) intrapulmonary pressure increases.
C) intrapleural pressure decreases.
D) the volume of the lungs decreases.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q5) Sherry is not able to produce surfactant.In order to inhale a normal tidal volume, does her intrapleural pressure have to be higher or lower than for a healthy individual? Explain.
Q6) Air flows into lungs because of ________ created by ________.
Q7) What is Dalton's law? Why is it important?
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Chapter 18: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diffusion rate is indirectly proportional to ________.
Q2) increased 2,3-DPG
A)increase
B)decrease
Q3) The expiratory neurons control the ________ muscles, whereas the inspiratory neurons control the ________ muscles.
A) diaphragm and external intercostal, abdominal and internal intercostal
B) abdominal and internal intercostal, diaphragm and external intercostal
C) diaphragm and internal intercostal, abdominal and external intercostal
D) abdominal and external intercostal, diaphragm and internal intercostal
E) diaphragm and abdominal, intercostal internal and external
Q4) Drowning is often the introduction of outside water into the alveoli, yet some water is normally present in alveoli.Why is water normally present in the alveoli? What is present in alveolar fluid, besides water, that aids in respiration? What properties of water are detrimental to respiration? What causes drowning? While extremely rare, there have even been documented cases of people walking away from recreational swimming only to die later, on dry land, as a result of drowning (termed "delayed" or "secondary" drowning).Propose an explanation for delayed drowning.
Q5) ________ is the enzyme that converts CO into bicarbonate ions.
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Chapter 19: The Kidneys
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neural control of GFR is mediated by ________ that innervate ________ receptors on vascular smooth muscle causing ________.
Q2) Functions of the kidneys include all but one of the following.Identify the exception.
A) regulation of extracellular fluid volume
B) maintenance of ion balance in body fluids
C) regulation of blood protein levels
D) regulation of blood osmolarity
E) homeostatic regulation of blood pH
Q3) Which of the following statements about autoregulation is NOT True?
A) Myogenic response is the intrinsic ability of vascular smooth muscle to respond to pressure changes.
B) Myogenic response is a paracrine signaling mechanism.
C) In tubuloglomerular feedback, stretch-sensitive ion channels open, resulting in depolarization of smooth muscle cells.
D) In myogenic response, the macula densa cells send a paracrine message to the neighboring afferent arteriole.
Q4) The nephron begins with a hollow, ball-like structure called ________.
Q5) The ________ lie between and around the glomerular capillaries.
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Chapter 20: Integrative Physiology II: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ interstitial osmolarity allows urine to be concentrated.
A) High medullary
B) Low medullary
C) High cortex
D) Low cortex
Q2) Shrinkage of hepatocytes in the liver causes them to cause which of the following?
A) glycogen production only
B) glycogen breakdown only
C) protein synthesis only
D) both glycogen production and protein synthesis
E) both glycogen breakdown and protein breakdown
Q3) Water reabsorption by the kidneys is a result of
A) both passive and active transport processes.
B) cotransport with ions.
C) exchange with ions.
D) osmosis.
Q4) Diagram the reactions and interactions of the renin-angiotensin system (RAS).Which condition is the primary stimulus for its activation?
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Q5) What are the two mechanisms of bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule?
Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbohydrate digestion is completed here.
A)mouth
B)stomach
C)rectum
D)small intestine
E)large intestine
Q2) apical transporter for iron absorption
A)ezetimibe
B)ferroportin
C)hepcidin
D)DMT1
E)NPC1L1
Q3) Which of the following is the sequence of layers from the lumen to the outer wall of the digestive tract?
A) serosa, submucosa, mucosa, muscularis externa
B) submucosa, mucosa, serosa, muscularis externa
C) mucosa, submucosa, serosa, muscularis externa
D) submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa, mucosa
E) mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa
Q4) Name two functions of cholecystokinin.
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energy Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first law of thermodynamics states that
A) the total amount of energy in the universe is variable.
B) energy can be neither created nor destroyed and thus must be accounted for.
C) what heats up must cool down.
D) natural processes move from order to disorder, or entropy.
E) there is no way a process can increase the amount of order.
Q2) ________ monitor skin temperature and core body temperature.
Q3) Lipids are broken down into ________, which feeds into glycolysis, and ________, which are metabolized to acetyl CoA.
Q4) The most practical way to estimate a person's basal metabolic rate is to measure it when the person is A) sleeping.
B) resting after a large meal.
C) resting after a 12-hour fast.
Q5) D cells in the islet of Langerhans secrete A) somatostatin.
B) amylin.
C) insulin.
D) glucagon.
E) pancreatic polypeptide.
Page 25
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Chapter 23: Endocrine Control of Growth and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the two distinct endocrine cell types that comprise the thyroid gland, and what do they secrete?
Q2) Rani has read how important Ca² ions are to muscle contraction and neuron function.Rani, age 25, hates milk and most dairy products, and doesn't think she eats many foods that are sources of calcium, nor does she take supplements.Why don't Rani's muscles and nerves show problems related to calcium deficiency? What problems might Rani encounter later in life if she continues this lifestyle?
Q3) What is a permissive hormone effect? Provide an example, explaining what would result if the permissive hormone was absent.
Q4) hypercortisolism
A)Addison's disease
B)Cushing's disease
C)Graves' disease
D)Paget's disease
Q5) Iodine accumulation in thyroid cells involves symport with A) hydrogen.
B) sodium.
C) potassium.
D) chloride.
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Chapter 24: The Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cells that are actively involved in immunological surveillance are the A) NK cells.
B) plasma cells.
C) B lymphocytes.
D) helper T cells.
E) suppressor T cells.
Q2) These cells are related to mast cells, and both release chemical mediators such as histamine and heparin, which aid in the immune response.
A)lymphocytes
B)neutrophils
C)monocytes
D)eosinophils
E)basophils
Q3) Stem cells that will form B lymphocytes are found in the A) bone marrow.
B) liver.
C) spleen.
D) thymus.
E) kidneys.
Q4) Substances that can trigger an immune response are known as ________.
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Chapter 25: Integrative Physiology III: Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) During exercise, skeletal muscle
A) vasodilation decreases peripheral resistance to blood flow.
B) vasodilation increases peripheral resistance to blood flow.
C) vasoconstriction decreases peripheral resistance to blood flow.
D) vasoconstriction increases peripheral resistance to blood flow.
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q2) With acclimatization, the body begins to do a better job of conserving A) water only.
B) heat only.
C) salt only.
D) water and heat only.
E) water, heat, and salt.
Q3) mean arterial pressure during exercise
A)increase
B)decrease
C)no change
Q4) Discuss changes in the cardiovascular and pulmonary systems that result from conditioning for exercise.
Q5) Why and how does intracellular K become depleted with exercise?
Q6) How does exercise hyperventilation maintain nearly normal PO and PCO ?
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) In males, which cells are the primary targets for LH? What effect does the hormone have on these cells?
Q2) mature sperm or egg
A)haploid (1N)
B)diploid (2N)
C)quadriploid (4N)
Q3) When allowed to develop, the Müllerian ducts become the
A) fallopian tubes, uterus, and upper vagina.
B) distal vagina, clitoris, and labia.
C) epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicles.
D) penis and scrotum.
E) fallopian tubes, uterus, upper vagina, distal vagina, clitoris, and labia.
Q4) Describe the events that must occur in order for sperm to penetrate an egg.What prevents more than one sperm from entering? In the case of twins, how many sperm entered the egg? Why must a man have millions of sperm in a semen sample to be considered fertile? If only one sperm were present in the semen and that sperm managed to find its way to the egg, could it fertilize the egg? Explain.
Q5) What seems to be the most likely hormone that we could use as a male contraceptive pill? Explain.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29