Physiology for Life Sciences
Practice Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive introduction to human physiology with an emphasis on mechanisms that are fundamental to life science disciplines. Students explore the structure and function of major organ systems, including the nervous, muscular, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and endocrine systems. The course emphasizes the regulatory processes that maintain homeostasis, integrating molecular, cellular, and systemic perspectives. Through lectures, practical exercises, and case studies, students gain an understanding of how physiological knowledge informs advances in health, disease, and biotechnology. This foundation equips students with the physiological principles necessary for further studies and careers in biological and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology From Cells to Systems 4th Canadian Edition by Lauralee Sherwood
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Chapter 1: The Foundation of Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) rapid clotting of blood due to increasing levels of platelet activity at a site of vessel damage
A)intrinsic control
B)negative-feedback control
C)positive-feedback control
D)feedforward control
Answer: C
Q2) When a blood capillary is cut, a clot forms under which feedback control system
A)negative feedback
B)positive feedback
C)extrinsic control
D)feedforward
Answer: B
Q3) Which of these statements describes extracellular fluid
A)It is the external environment of the body.
B)It is the fluid inside each cell.
C)It consists of plasma only.
D)It consists of plasma and interstitial fluid.
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Cell Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gap junctions are especially abundant in what kinds of tissue
A)skeletal muscles and epithelial tissues
B)epithelial tissues and smooth muscle
C)cardiac muscle and smooth muscle
D)brain tissue and cardiac muscle
Answer: C
Q2) ion whose equilibrium potential is exactly equal to the resting membrane potential
A)Na<sup>+</sup>
B)K
C)A<sup>-</sup>
D)Cl<sup>-</sup>
Answer: D
Q3) According to the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure, the plasma membrane consists primarily of a bilayer of mobile phospholipid molecules studded with an ever-changing mosaic pattern of proteins.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these statements does NOT describe the blood-brain barrier
A)It controls the direct exchange of materials between the cerebrospinal fluid and brain.
B)It is formed in part by the tight junctions in capillary cells of the brain.
C)It consists of the astrocyte processes that encircle the brain capillaries.
D)It is a barrier between the three layers of meninges.
Answer: D
Q2) Stimulation of the frontal lobe produces changes in personality and social behaviour.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) inhibits muscle tone throughout the body
A)cerebellum
B)hypothalamus
C)brain stem
D)basal nuclei
E)cerebral cortex
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: The Peripheral Nervous System: Sensory,
Autonomic, Somatic
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Sample Questions
Q1) low acuity
A)rods
B)cones
C)both rods and cones
Q2) When light of suitable wavelength strikes a photoreceptor, the photopigment (absorbs or reflects) the light, causing the photopigment to (dissociate or regenerate).This photopigment transformation acts through a second messenger system to cause Na channels in the outer segment to (open or close).Subsequently, the photoreceptor (depolarizes or hyperpolarizes), which results in a(n) (increase or decrease) in release of an (inhibitory or excitatory) transmitter from its synaptic terminal.
Q3) causes explosive release of ACh
A)black widow spider venom
B)curare
C)Clostridium botulinum toxin
D)organophosphate
Q4) ACh is the neurotransmitter released to signal skeletal muscles.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
Q5) Myopia is another name for ____________________.
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Chapter 5: Principles of Endocrinology: The Central
Endocrine Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lipophilic hormones interact with which of the following prior to gene activation
A)membrane receptors
B)cAMP
C)hormone response elements
D)G proteins
Q2) Which of these statements applies to TSH
A)A buildup of the thyroid hormone stimulates its production by negative feedback.
B)It is secreted by the thyroid gland.
C)It is stored in the posterior pituitary.
D)It stimulates the thyroid gland.
Q3) An anterior pituitary gland produces inhibiting and stimulating signals that affect the hypothalamus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) dissolve bone
A)osteocytes
B)osteoblasts
C)osteoclasts
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Chapter 6: The Endocrine Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) _____________________ is controlled primarily by the release of renin.
Q2) Hypothyroidism can occur even though the thyroid gland is perfectly normal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement applies to aldosterone
A)It causes conservation of sodium.
B)It facilitates lipolysis.
C)It promotes gluconeogenesis.
D)It is regulated by ACTH.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT an effect of epinephrine
A)constriction of the respiratory airways
B)elevation of blood sugar concentration
C)stimulation of glycogenolysis in skeletal muscles
D)stimulation of hepatic gluconeogenesis
Q5) Which of these events is an effect of glucagon
A)decreased blood glucose levels
B)increased breakdown of fats
C)increased glycogenesis in the liver
D)increased amino acid uptake by cells
Q6) Describe the controls over secretion of mineralo- and glucocorticoids.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Muscle Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) composed of thick filaments only
A)A band
B)I band
C)H zone
Q2) If a muscle cell is excited, ____________________ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Q3) initiates a monosynaptic reflex
A)muscle spindle
B)Golgi tendon organ
C)both of these receptors
Q4) Which of these statements describes the sliding filament mechanism of muscle contraction
A)A bands slide in closer between the I bands.
B)Thin filaments slide inward toward the centre of the A band.
C)Z lines slide between the T tubules.
D)Contractile proteins contract, thus shortening sarcomeres.
Q5) Describe how summations occur in muscle cells.
Q6) The _____________________ is the descending pathway that is concerned primarily with regulation of posture involving involuntary movements of the trunk and limbs.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Cardiac Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The extent of ventricular filling is the preload of the heart, whereas the magnitude of the arterial blood pressure is the afterload of the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which heart chamber has the greatest workload
A)right ventricle
B)left ventricle
C)left atrium
D)right atrium
Q3) its cells have slow Ca² channels
A)tricuspid valve
B)myocardium
C)aortic semilunar valve
D)AV node
E)sinoatrial node
Q4) Compare and contrast intrinsic and extrinsic controls of cardiac activity.
Q5) The heart valves are innervated by the autonomic nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ____________________ is the normal pacemaker of the heart.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Vascular Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an arteriole, if the blood vessel radius is two units and then is vasoconstricted to one unit, what is the result
A)The resistance decreases 16 times.
B)The resistance increases 16 times.
C)Flow will be increased.
D)Flow will be neither increased nor decreased.
Q2) The interstitial fluid is not part of the ECF.
A)True
B)False
Q3) reduced synthesis of plasma proteins due to liver disease
A)The change would increase ultrafiltration and decrease reabsorption.
B)The change would decrease ultrafiltration and increase reabsorption.
C)The change would increase both ultrafiltration and reabsorption.
D)The change would decrease both ultrafiltration and reabsorption.
E)The change would not alter ultrafiltration and reabsorption.
Q4) It is considered hypertension if the systolic/diastolic pressure is above the value of ____________________.
Q5) Increased sympathetic nerve activity _____ the venous radius.
Q6) Blood flow is driven by ____________________.
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Q7) Two features of arteries are ____________________ and ____________________.
Chapter 10: The Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme that activates fibrinogen is ____________________.
Q2) What are the different types and functions of plasma proteins
Q3) Which of these steps is NOT involved in haemostasis
A)vascular spasms
B)platelet aggregation
C)coagulation
D)erythropoiesis
Q4) Haemostatic mechanisms are effective for completely arresting bleeding from small vessels, but ruptured medium to large vessels require external intervention to stop the bleeding.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Serum is not identical to plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor stimulates the replication and release of neutrophils from the bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q7) ____________________ prevents platelets from aggregating.
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Chapter 11: Body Defences
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Sample Questions
Q1) The membrane-attack complex is formed by the five final activated components of the complement system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In tissue repair, nerve and muscle tissue are replaced mainly by ____________________ tissue.
Q3) ____________________ against cancer cells involves an interplay among cytotoxic T cells, NK cells, macrophages, and interferon.
Q4) Debris trapped on the sticky mucus lining the respiratory airways is primarily cleared away by the alveolar macrophages.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Severe burns of the skin can result in life-threatening circulatory disturbances.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ____________________ in an infected wound is a collection of phagocytic cells, dead tissue liquefied by enzymes released from the phagocytic cells, and bacteria.
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Chapter 12: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory system is the only system involved with the exchange of gas between the cells of an organism and the external environment.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The residual volume is the amount of air remaining in the lungs at the end of a normal expiration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the respiratory quotient
A)the rate at which gases diffuse across the alveolar capillary membrane
B)the respiratory rate times the tidal volume
C)the ratio of O consumed to CO produced
D)the ratio of CO produced to O consumed
Q4) Which of these conditions applies to alveolar PO at high altitudes
A)PO is higher than normal.
B)PO is lower than normal.
C)PCO is higher than normal.
D)PCO is lower than normal.
Q5) Contraction of the ____________________ muscles elevates the ribs.
Q6) The apneustic and pneumotaxic centres are located in the
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Chapter 13: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a substance is filtered and secreted but not reabsorbed, its plasma clearance rate is always less than the GFR.
A)True
B)False
Q2) a nitrogen waste product from RNA metabolism
A)urea
B)creatinine
C)uric acid
D)Na<sup>+</sup>
E)glucose
Q3) Which of these statements describes glomerular filtrate
A)It is plasma-free blood.
B)It is formed as a result of passive forces acting across the glomerular membrane.
C)It does not contain foreign compounds.
D)Its rate is increased by increased plasma protein level.
Q4) During acidosis, H secretion increases.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ____________________ is the inability to prevent the discharge of urine.
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Chapter 14: Fluid and Acidbase Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) 20/2
A)uncompensated respiratory acidosis
B)uncompensated metabolic acidosis
C)uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
D)uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
Q2) The secretion of aldosterone promotes the reabsorption of sodium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During respiratory compensation for metabolic alkalosis, breathing becomes slower and shallower.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of these statements is the best description of the role of angiotensin II
A)It increases Na reabsorption by stimulating aldosterone secretion.
B)It suppresses the thirst centre at the brain.
C)It is activated when ECF volume and arterial blood pressure are increased.
D)It decreases Na reabsorption by inhibiting the secretion of vasopressin.
Q5) Alkalosis occurs when the pH of the blood is above ____________________.
Q6) The amount of Na excreted depends on ____________________ minus
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Chapter 15: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pancreas secretes enzymes involved in the digestion of all three categories of foodstuff.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why is the pharyngoesophageal sphincter normally closed
A)to prevent air from entering the oesophagus during breathing
B)to prevent gastric contents from refluxing back into the oesophagus
C)to prevent vomiting
D)to prevent oesophageal secretions from leaking into the stomach
Q3) activation initiated by enterokinase
A)amylase
B)trypsin
C)chymotrypsin
D)lipase
Q4) Which of these substances is a precursor to an enzyme that functions in the stomach
A)pepsinogen
B)HCl
C)intrinsic factor
D)gastrin
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most dominant factor influencing the BMR is the level of circulating, active thyroid hormone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How many kilocalories is 5300 calories
A)0.053 kcal
B)0.53 kcal
C)5.3 kcal
D)53 kcal
Q3) Which of these statements describes obesity
A)The percentage of body fat and the body mass index are two commonly used determinants of obesity.
B)The health risks are the same for a person who is in the obese category and a person who is in the overweight category.
C)Waist circumference (WC) is not a significant measurement in gathering a fat weight distribution picture.
D)A link between obesity and heredity has not yet been scientifically proven.
Q4) ____________________ tissue stores fat.
Q5) The unit of heat energy used in energy balance is the ____________________.
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Chapter 17: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the absence of masculinizing factors, a female reproductive tract and external genitalia develop regardless of the genetic sex of the individual.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of these factors does NOT contribute to follicular development and estrogen secretion
A)FSH
B)LH
C)progesterone
D)GnRH
Q3) Which of these statements does NOT pertain to suckling
A)It induces milk secretion due to prolactin release.
B)It induces milk ejection due to oxytocin release.
C)It stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.
D)PRH is released by the hypothalamus.
Q4) The three major stages of spermatogenesis are ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.
Q5) Forty-four of the 46 chromosomes in a human body cell are ____________________.
Q6) Discuss the pros and cons of estrogen replacement therapy following menopause.
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