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Physiology for Health Sciences provides a comprehensive overview of the fundamental principles governing human body function. The course covers the structure and function of major organ systems, including the cardiovascular, respiratory, nervous, muscular, endocrine, and digestive systems. Emphasis is placed on the integration of these systems in maintaining homeostasis and supporting health. Students will explore how physiological mechanisms respond to internal and external changes, the impact of disease on body function, and the clinical relevance of physiological concepts. This foundational knowledge is essential for students pursuing careers in health professions and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Human Physiology 4th Edition by Lauralee Sherwood
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Q1) ____________________ tissue is composed of cells specialized for contraction and force generation.
Answer: muscle
Q2) Which cells are considered pluripotent?
A) neurons
B) tissue-specific stem cells
C) embryonic stem cells
D) both b and c
E) none of these answers.
Answer: C
Q3) Organs are composed of two or more kinds of primary tissues.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) ____________________ refers to maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment.
Answer: homeostasis
Q5) Sweat glands
Answer: C
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Q1) When ATP is utilized _________ and ___________ are produced.
Answer: ADP/Pi
Q2) ____________________ are distinct, highly organized structures that perform specialized functions within the cell.
Answer: Organelles
Q3) The smooth ER packages the secretory product into transport vesicles.
A)Step 1
B)Step 2
C)Step 3
D)Step 4
E)Step 5
F)Step 6
G)Step 7
Answer: B
Q4) Causes pinching off of endocytic vesicles.
A)dynamin
B)tubulin
C)kinesin
D)actin
Answer: A

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Q1) Primary active transport moves which of the following ions across the membrane?
A) sodium
B) potassium C) hydrogen
D) calcium
E) all of these answers.
Answer: E
Q2) In a water solution containing dissolved salt:
A) salt is the solute
B) water is the solute
C) salt is the solvent
D) the solute is stationary
E) the solution is heterogeneous
Answer: A
Q3) ____________________ are the cells that secrete the majority of the composition of the extracellular matrix.
Answer: Fibroblasts
Q4) Endocytosis and exocytosis are both kinds of ____________________ transport.
Answer: vesicular
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Q1) electrical gradient for K<sup>+</sup> at the peak of an action potential
A)This force tends to move the involved ion out of the cell.
B)This force tends to move the involved ion into the cell.
Q2) Lipophilic (hydrophobic) hormones circulate in the blood largely bound to plasma proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A. permeability of a nerve cell membrane to Na<sup>+</sup> during the rising phase of an action potential
B. permeability of a nerve cell membrane to K<sup>+</sup> during the rising phase of an action potential
A)A is greater than B.
B)B is greater than A.
C)A and B are equal.
Q4) The most common second messenger used by hydrophilic hormones is A) calcium.
B) cyclic AMP.
C) chromatin.
D) messenger RNA.
E) plasma proteins.
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Q1) Which of the following does not apply to Wernicke's area?
A) is usually developed only in the left cerebral hemisphere.
B) is responsible for controlling the muscles necessary for speaking ability.
C) is concerned with language comprehension.
D) plays a critical role in understanding both spoken and written messages.
E) is responsible for formulating coherent patterns of speech.
Q2) Most of the cranial nerves originate from the A) brain stem.
B) cerebellum.
C) cerebral cortex.
D) hypothalamus.
E) thalamus.
Q3) Initially process visual input.
A)occipital lobes
B)temporal lobes
C)parietal lobes
D)frontal lobes
Q4) White matter consists primarily of myelinated nerve fibers.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) retina
Q2) Polymodal nociceptors
A) respond only to mechanical damage such as cutting, crushing, or pinching.
B) transmit impulses along A-delta fibers.
C) activate the slow pain pathway.
D) release prostaglandins.
E) none of these answers.
Q3) Cones have higher acuity than rods because
A) cones respond more to dim light.
B) there are three types of cones.
C) there is little convergence in the cone pathways within the retina.
D) there are more cones than rods.
E) the photopigment in the cones breaks down more rapidly than the photopigment in rods.
Q4) Provides information about the position of the head relative to gravity.
A)external ear
B)middle ear
C)cochlea in the inner ear
D)semicircular canal in the inner ear
E)utricle and saccule in the inner ear
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Q1) Drugs that do this would decrease sympathetic function:
A) irreversibly inhibits acetylcholinesterase
B) causes an explosive release of acetylcholine
C) blocks the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
D) reversibly binds with acetylcholine receptor sites
E) blocks the release of NE
Q2) Preganglionic fiber secretes acetylcholine.
A)sympathetic nervous system
B)parasympathetic nervous system
C)both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system
D)somatic system
Q3) Have equal affinity for epinephrine and norepinephrine.
A)nicotinic receptors
B)muscarinic receptors
C)alpha receptors
D)Beta 1 receptors
E)Beta 2 receptors
Q4) Sympathetic activity stimulates the secretion of ____________________ from the pancreas.
Q5) Sympathetic fibers issue from ________-________ regions of the spinal cord. .
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Q1) Which type of muscle contains the most actin?
A) skeletal
B) smooth
C) cardiac
D) all of the above contain approximately the same amount
Q2) Oxidative phosphorylation occurs within the mitochondria of muscle cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Found in the I band.
A)actin only
B)myosin only
C)actin and myosin
D)troponin-tropomyosin complex
E)actin, troponin, and tropomyosin
F)actin, myosin, troponin, and tropomyosin
Q4) Monitors change in muscle length.
A)muscle spindle
B)Golgi tendon organ
C)both of these receptors
Q5) Single-unit smooth muscle is ______ rather than requiring nervous stimulation.
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Q1) An increase in heart rate ____________________ the cardiac output.
Q2) left ventricle
Q3) Associated with AV valves
A)gap junction
B)funny channels
C)functional syncytium
D)EDV
E)papillary muscles
F)second heart sound
Q4) Rapidly conducts the impulse down the ventricular septum and throughout much of the ventricular musculature.
A)SA node
B)AV node
C)Bundle of His and Purkinje system
D)Gap junctions
Q5) The semilunar valves are positioned between the atria and ventricles.
A)True
B)False
Q6) aorta
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Q7) An increase in stroke volume ____________________ the cardiac output.
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Q1) The walls of the veins contain smooth muscle innervated by sympathetic nerve fibers. Sympathetic stimulation ____ venous pressure and drives ____ blood into the heart.
A) increases, more.
B) increases, less.
C) decreases, more.
D) decreases, less.
E) none of these answers.
Q2) The sounds heard from a sphygmomanometer and stethoscope when measuring blood pressure are the same sounds as those heard when listening to heart valve closure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A constant blood supply to this organ is a priority of the circulatory system:
A) heart.
B) kidney.
C) brain.
D) muscle.
E) liver.
Q4) Increased resistance

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Q1) Cytotoxic T cells
A) are not the most numerous of the T cells.
B) secrete B-cell growth factor and T-cell growth factor.
C) confer greater phagocytic properties on macrophages, converting them into angry macrophages.
D) release antigens.
E) bind with class II MHC glycoproteins.
Q2) What advantages does the biconcavity of the erythrocyte impart on the cell?
A) it increases the overall surface area.
B) it increases the flexibility of the cell.
C) it prevents toxins from entering the cell.
D) all of these answers.
E) none of these answers.
Q3) Are attacked by AIDS virus.
A)applies to cytotoxic T cells
B)applies to helper T cells
C)applies to regulatory T cells
D)applies to both helper T and regulatory T cells
E)applies to all three types of T cells
Q4) ____________________ prevents platelets from aggregation.
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Q1) Describe the mechanics of ventilation.
Q2) A transmural pressure gradient exists across the lung wall because the ____ pressure is less than the ____ pressure.
A) intrapleural, intra-alveolar.
B) intra-alveolar, intrapleural.
C) intrapleural, atmospheric.
D) atmospheric, intra-alveolar.
E) none of these answers.
Q3) carbon monoxide poisoning
A)anemic hypoxia
B)circulatory hypoxia
C)histotoxic hypoxia
D)hypoxic hypoxia
Q4) Which of the following events occurs during expiration?
A) diaphragm moves upward
B) thoracic volume increases
C) external intercostal muscles contract
D) ribs are elevated
E) phrenic nerve is inactive
Q5) inspiratory capacity

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Q1) The kidneys keep the urine volume and composition essentially constant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Represents 25% of Na<sup>+</sup> reabsorbed.
A)sodium reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules
B)sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule
C)sodium reabsorption coupled with chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle
Q3) Water reabsorption
A) occurs passively by osmosis in the proximal tubule.
B) is under the control of vasopressin in the distal and collecting tubules.
C) occurs by active transport in the distal and collecting tubules.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.
Q4) Typically, of the 125 ml of plasma filtered per minute, 124 ml/min are reabsorbed.
A)True
B)False
Q5) angiotensinogen
Q6) Body fluids are ____________________ at 300 mosm/liter.
Q7) angiotensin converting enzyme

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Q1) primary intracellular buffer
A)hemoglobin buffer system
B)phosphate buffer system
C)protein buffer system
D)H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>:HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>- </sup>buffer system
Q2) Water is freely permeable through all cell membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which chemical buffer system primary buffers against pH changes in the urine?
A) bicarbonate.
B) protein.
C) hemoglobin.
D) phosphate
E) carbon dioxide
Q4) Cells change in size by ____________________ when immersed in a hypertonic ECF.
Q5) Control of salt balance in humans is accomplished primarily by control of salt intake via a well-developed salt hunger.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe how the body responds to a substantial drop in ECF pH.
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Q1) The stomach performs all of the following except:
A) stores ingested food
B) secretes HCl
C) secretes enzymes that begin protein digestion
D) converts chewed food into a thick, liquid paste called chyme
E) allows digested material to move quickly into the duodenum
Q2) The intestinal hormone secretin is released by endocrine cells in the duodenal mucosa in response to
A) distention of the stomach.
B) carbohydrate in the duodenum.
C) acid in the duodenum.
D) gastrin secreted by the pyloric gland area of the stomach.
E) none of these answers.
Q3) Which tissue layer provide for primary digestive motility?
A) mucosa.
B) submucosa.
C) muscularis mucosa.
D) muscularis externa.
E) mesentery.
Q4) Chylomicrons are large, coated droplets of ____________________.
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Q1) Which increases metabolic rate?
A) exercise.
B) diet-induced thermogenesis.
C) epinephrine.
D) thyroid hormone.
E) all of these answers.
Q2) "Normal" body temperature may vary slightly as a result of A) exercise.
B) the menstrual cycle.
C) the time of day.
D) exposure to extremes in environmental temperature.
E) all of these answers.
Q3) emission of heat energy from the surface of a warm body in the form of electromagnetic waves
A)convection
B)evaporation
C)radiation
D)conduction
Q4) We lose or gain heat through ____________________ to the layer of air in direct contact with our bodies.
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Q1) ____________________ is the most important physiological regulator of thyroid hormone secretion.
Q2) Decreases the blood glucose concentration.
A)gluconeogenesis
B)glycogenesis
C)glycogenolysis
D)both gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis
E)all of these answers
Q3) Thyroid-stimulating hormone is produced by the thyroid gland.
A)True
B)False
Q4) metabolic actions
Q5) Which hormone uses a "bone bank" to maintain the plasma calcium level?
A) calcitonin
B) GH
C) thyroxine
D) PTH
E) ACTH
Q6) breast growth and milk secretion
Q7) Hypernatremia is a body retention of ____________________.
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Q1) A high local concentration of testosterone within the seminiferous tubules is essential for sustaining sperm production.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The normal site of fertilization is the A) ovary.
B) uterus.
C) oviduct.
D) vagina.
E) fimbria.
Q3) secondary spermatocyte
A)contains a full set of 23 pairs of chromosomes
B)contains a full set of 23 pairs of doubled chromosomes
C)contains a half set of doubled chromosomes
D)contains a set of 23 single unpaired chromosomes
Q4) If several sperm fertilize a single ovum as it is dividing, twins or even triplets, may result.
A)True B)False
Q5) Describe the events associated with fertilization and early development.
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