Physiology for Health Sciences Practice
Exam
Course Introduction
Physiology for Health Sciences is an essential course that explores the fundamental principles and mechanisms underlying the function of the human body. Designed for students pursuing health-related careers, the course examines the structure and function of major organ systems, including the nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, renal, and endocrine systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding how these systems interconnect to maintain homeostasis and support overall health. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and case studies, students will gain practical insights into physiological processes, disease mechanisms, and the clinical relevance of physiology in healthcare settings. This foundational knowledge prepares students for advanced coursework and professional practice in a variety of health science disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Holes Human Anatomy and Physiology 15th Edition by David Shier
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true of organelles?
A)They carry on specific activities.
B)They are only in cells of humans.
C)They are composed of aggregates of large molecules.
D)They are found in many types of cells.
Answer: B
Q2) A subcellular structure built of assemblies of macromolecules that carries out a particular function is a(n)________.
Answer: organelle
Q3) The removal of wastes produced by metabolic reactions is A)metabolism.
B)absorption.
C)assimilation. D)excretion.
Answer: D
Q4) A lengthwise cut that divides the body into right and left portions is termed ________.
Answer: sagittal
Q5) Individuals who live more than 100 years are called ________.
Answer: centenarians
3
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Chapter 2: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nucleic acids are
A)very small, simple molecules.
B)structural molecules that have no function other than support.
C)composed of building blocks called nucleotides.
D)primary sources of cellular energy.
Answer: C
Q2) If helium (He)were to gain a proton, it would become
A)He .
B)He .
C)Helium-3.
D)Lithium.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following best describes the reaction NaNO + HCl HNO + NaCl?
A)Decomposition reaction
B)Exchange reaction
C)Reversible reaction
D)Synthesis reaction
Answer: B
Q4) Two or more atoms bonding form a ________.
Answer: molecule
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a human cell has 23 chromosomes, it likely just finished
A)mitosis.
B)meiosis.
C)cytokinesis.
D)osmosis.
Answer: B
Q2) Loss of cell cycle control can cause cancer.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum does not.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A cell that secretes abundant proteins would have many nucleoli.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA profiling
A)sequences the entire genomes of criminals.
B)sequences genes that cause disease.
C)compares the most variable parts of the genome for a variety of applications.
D)analyzes 64 highly variable regions of the human genome.
Q2) Three types of RNA participate in protein synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The codon that will signal where to begin making a polypeptide is ________.
A)TAC
B)AGG
C)AUG
D)TTA
Q4) Catabolism builds up molecules and anabolism breaks down molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In glycolysis, the enzyme phosphofructokinase catalyzes the slowest part of this metabolic process and can therefore be considered a rate-limiting enzyme.
A)True
B)False
6
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pyloric glands of the stomach release hydrochloric acid and other digestive juices during digestion. These glands have very short ducts and the tubes are branched. These glands are ________.
A)simple branched tubular
B)simple coiled tubular
C)simple branched alveolar
D)unicellular
Q2) The tissue that covers all body surfaces is ________ tissue.
Q3) A mutation occurs that prevents the formation of intercalated disks. Which of the following muscular structures will be directly affected?
A)The legs
B)The heart
C)The stomach and intestines
D)The tongue
Q4) Usually epithelial tissues do not have blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The band between cardiac muscle cells is called a(n)________ ________.
Q6) A structure that "spot welds" skin cells is a(n)________.
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shafts of hair are composed of
A)living dermal cells.
B)dead epidermal cells.
C)living epidermal cells.
D)dead dermal cells.
Q2) The major blood vessels that supply the skin lie between the dermis and the epidermis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In healthy skin, the production of epidermal cells is closely balanced with the loss of skin cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In a condition called incontinentia pigmenti, the skin has deep dark splotches, due to melanin that seeps down into the dermis. Normally, melanin is confined to the A)epidermis.
B)basement membrane.
C)papillae.
D)hair.
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The femur extends from the knee to the foot.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following are not components of the pelvic girdle?
A)Hip bones
B)Coxal bones
C)Femur
D)Sacrum
Q3) A six-month-old baby is admitted to the hospital with a broken bone. This is the third fracture in the otherwise healthy child. The parents are arrested on charges of child abuse. The defense lawyer gets the charges dropped after the results of genetic tests indicate which of the following conditions?
A)Polydactyly
B)Osteoporosis
C)Osteogenesis imperfecta
D)Anemia
Q4) The scapula is part of the ________ girdle.
Q5) Bones are classified as irregular, flat, short, or long.
A)True
B)False
9
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Chapter 8: Joints of the Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your friend trips and you lift your hand to help them up. In the process, you rotate your forearm so that your palm faces upward. This forearm movement is supination.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Synovial fluid moistens and lubricates the cartilaginous surfaces in a joint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The largest and most complex synovial joint is the A)hip joint.
B)knee joint.
C)elbow joint.
D)shoulder joint.
Q4) Joint capsules may be reinforced by bundles of strong, tough collagenous fibers called ________.
Q5) The coracohumeral ligament is associated with the A)knee joint.
B)hip joint.
C)elbow joint.
D)shoulder joint.
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structures that connect cardiac muscle cells are
A)intervertebral discs.
B)neuromuscular junctions.
C)intercalated discs.
D)motor end plates.
Q2) The combining of a series of twitches to produce a more forceful contraction is called ________.
Q3) Endomysium separates individual muscle fibers from each other.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When a muscle undergoes atrophy in response to disuse
A)motor neurons grow and invade abnormally.
B)the size of actin and myosin filaments decreases.
C)capillaries and vessels rupture.
D)the muscle swells.
Q5) Muscle fibers are basically a collection of A)muscles.
B)sarcomeres.
C)connective tissue fibers.
D)synapses.
11
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Chapter 10: Nervous System I: Basic Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order for a severed peripheral nerve to regenerate and recover its original function, nerve fibers must sprout and enter tubes formed by A)basement membranes and connective tissues.
B)former axons.
C)myelin.
D)nodes of Ranvier.
Q2) A reason that the axons in the CNS and PNS differ in their ability to regenerate after injury is that
A)axons of the CNS lack myelin.
B)axons of the CNS lack neurilemmae.
C)peripheral nerves lack Schwann cells.
D)peripheral nerves lack endoneurium.
Q3) The neurotransmitter that controls skeletal muscle contraction is A)beta endorphin.
B)nitric oxide.
C)acetylcholine.
D)GABA.
Q4) The difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a polarized neuron cell membrane is called the ________ ________.
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Chapter 11: Nervous System II: Divisions of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The gray commissure of the spinal cord surrounds the central canal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Over a lifetime, the brain shrinks by about ________ percent.
A)1
B)5
C)10
D)40
Q3) Cerebrospinal fluid
A)helps maintain a stable ionic concentration in the brain and spinal cord.
B)has no nutritive function and is only protective.
C)has the same composition as capillary fluids.
D)mixes with blood to nourish brain and spinal cord tissues.
Q4) The area of skin that sensory nerve fibers of a particular spinal nerve innervate is called a
A)dermatome.
B)myotome.
C)sensory body.
D)nerve body.
Q5) The ________ root of a spinal nerve consists of motor neuron axons.
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Chapter 12: Nervous System III: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your friend slaps you on the arm. Immediately, you feel a sharp, stinging pain that stops promptly after the slap is over. ________ are responsible for this sensation. For about a minute afterward, you feel a dull, lingering sting. ________ are responsible for this sensation.
A)Lamellated corpuscles; Tactile corpuscles
B)Tactile corpuscles; Lamellated corpuscles
C)C fibers; A-delta fibers
D)A-delta fibers; C fibers
Q2) Movement of hair cells in the semicircular canals signals
A)sound waves to the brain.
B)the direction of motion.
C)the frequency of the sound.
D)the velocity of the movement.
Q3) Optic nerve fibers cross over in the thalamus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Light breaks down rhodopsin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Receptors stimulated by changes in temperature are called ________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type 1 diabetes mellitus is caused by
A)excess sugar in the diet.
B)obesity.
C)a disorder of the immune system.
D)an effect of aging.
Q2) Compared to the nervous system, the endocrine system
A)does not use receptors.
B)may have a longer lasting effect.
C)takes only seconds.
D)is not essential to life.
Q3) A night-shift worker experiences extreme difficulty falling asleep due to being exposed to bright lights during both night and day. The unusual pattern of light exposure is disturbing their ________, which controls the release of the hormone ________.
A)metabolic rate; thyroxine
B)circulatory system; dopamine
C)circadian rhythm; melatonin
D)limbic system; thymosin
Q4) The ________ gland is located deep between the cerebral hemispheres attached to the roof of the third ventricle.
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Chapter 14: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin B is important for the production of red blood cells because it is utilized in the synthesis of intrinsic factor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What occurs with edema?
A)The body shrivels from dehydration.
B)Tissues swell with fluid.
C)Blood clots form inappropriately.
D)Monocytes dominate the blood.
Q3) Persons with type AB blood are sometimes called universal donors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most abundant type of plasma protein is ________.
Q5) Which of the following are agranulocytes?
A)Basophils
B)Eosinophils
C)Neutrophils
D)Monocytes
Q6) In an adult, red blood cells are produced primarily in the ________.
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Q7) Normally the most common type of leukocyte in a blood sample is the ________.
Chapter 15: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pump is attached to the superior mesenteric artery and blue ink is pumped in. Which structures of the body will show the blue ink?
A)The neck and the facial muscles
B)The intercostal muscles and chest area
C)The arms and the hands
D)The small intestine and portions of the large intestine
Q2) When venous pressure is too low, ________ stimulate smooth muscles in the walls of veins to contract.
A)parasympathetic reflexes
B)sympathetic reflexes
C)somatic reflexes
D)carbon dioxide levels
Q3) Central venous pressure is the pressure in the inferior vena cava at the central point of the abdomen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Osmotic pressure forces molecules in the blood out through capillary walls.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) An antigen is ________, whereas an antibody is ________.
A)a foreign substance such as a protein or a polysaccharide to which lymphocytes respond; a globular protein that reacts with an antigen to eliminate the antigen
B)an immunoglobulin that is produced by lymph nodes in response to bacteria; a foreign protein that enters the body and causes an immune reaction
C)a hapten molecule that is complex in shape; an enzyme produced by the thymus gland that neutralizes antigens
D)only on a pathogen; only in a human body
Q2) A person has an autoimmune disease. Which of the following could be targets for the immune cells in this type of disease?
A)Human Papilloma virus
B)Normal red blood cells
C)Clostridium difficile bacteria
D)Tissue from a transplanted organ
Q3) Two mechanical barriers to infection are interferon and inflammation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ is accumulation of tissue fluid in the interstitial spaces.
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Chapter 17: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cecum is located at the inferior end of the descending colon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pyloric sphincter serves as a valve that controls the movement of food between the esophagus and stomach.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The uvula is
A)a type of tooth.
B)a projection from the soft palate.
C)a flap of tissue that keeps food from entering the trachea.
D)part of the tongue.
Q4) Pancreatic acinar cells secrete pancreatic juice.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The enterogastric reflex begins in the stomach and ends in the small intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The double-layered folds of peritoneum that support portions of the small intestine are called ________.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Caloric intake exceeding caloric output is a positive energy balance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A person has a hormonal disorder in which their stomach constantly secretes ghrelin. Predict the effect of this disorder.
A)The person will never feel hungry.
B)The person will constantly feel hungry.
C)They will have an increased metabolic rate.
D)They will have an increased metabolic rate, but no abnormal effect on appetite.
Q3) Dietary minerals are organic molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lipids include all of the following except A)triglycerides.
B)vegetable oil.
C)cholesterol.
D)tyrosine.
Q5) The typical source of dietary iodine is iodized ________.
Q6) Proteins are digested into ________.
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Chapter 19: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The force responsible for normal expiration is supplied by the A)diaphragm.
B)external intercostal muscles.
C)elastic recoil of tissues and surface tension.
D)contraction of smooth muscles in air passages.
Q2) Cellular respiration enables cells to harness the energy from oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bronchial asthma is usually associated with
A)an injury to the respiratory areas.
B)coalescing alveoli.
C)an allergy.
D)paralysis of breathing muscles.
Q4) What is globin?
A)Another term for alveolus
B)A form of fat that carries oxygen in the blood
C)A form of surfactant
D)The protein part of hemoglobin
Q5) The bronchus and blood vessels enter a lung through the ________.
Q6) In a mixture of gases, each gas creates a pressure called its ________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The countercurrent mechanism in the nephron
A)creates a highly concentrated interstitial fluid so that urine can be concentrated by the collecting ducts when they are permeable to water.
B)is a method to move sodium to control its concentration.
C)keeps the volume of water lost in the urine relatively constant.
D)keeps interstitial fluid hydrated to maintain blood pressure.
Q2) The glomerular filtrate in the proximal convoluted tubule is isotonic to the plasma of the peritubular capillary.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When sodium ions are reabsorbed through the wall of the renal tubule by active transport, chloride ions are
A)reabsorbed by active transport.
B)reabsorbed by passive transport.
C)secreted by active transport.
D)secreted by passive transport.
Q4) Proteins of smaller molecular size may be reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by the process of ________.
Q5) Uric acid results from the metabolism of ________.
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Chapter 21: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) A blood pH of 7.2 inhibits the respiratory center in the brainstem and decreases CO level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The parts of an amino acid that are important in the protein buffer system are the A)amino and R groups.
B)amino and carboxyl groups.
C)monocarbonate and bicarbonate groups.
D)monohydrogen phosphate and dihydrogen phosphate groups.
Q3) A doctor is trying to help a woman get rid of arsenic found in her system. One way to do this is to force it to be excreted quickly in the urine. To promote this, the doctor should give her
A)ADH.
B)angiotensinogen.
C)renin.
D)a diuretic.
Q4) In a healthy body, the volume of water remains relatively stable at all times.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 22: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dimensions of a uterine tube are
A)5 centimeters in diameter and about 20 centimeters long.
B)2 centimeters in diameter and about 30 centimeters long.
C)10 centimeters in diameter and about 40 centimeters long.
D)0.7 centimeters in diameter and about 10 centimeters long.
Q2) The zona pellucida consists of A)glycoprotein.
B)adipose tissue.
C)epithelium.
D)nucleic acid.
Q3) Ciliary action aids movement of an egg through a uterine tube. A)True
B)False
Q4) A Pap smear is used to detect abnormal cells in the A)urethra. B)ovary.
C)cervix.
D)vagina.
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Chapter 23: Pregnancy, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Sperm movement through the uterus and uterine tubes is aided by muscle contractions of the uterine walls and ________ in the semen.
A)estrogen
B)progestins
C)prostaglandins
D)epinephrine
Q2) After birth, the foramen ovale is closed as a result of
A)increasing pressure in the right atrium.
B)increasing pressure in the left atrium.
C)increased resistance in the pulmonary circuit.
D)decreased blood volume in the pulmonary veins.
Q3) The fetus is protected from certain infections, to which the mother is immune, by
A)antibodies from the mother's immune system.
B)antibodies from its own immune system.
C)its own innate defenses.
D)the extraembryonic membranes.
Q4) In an adult, the proximal portions of the umbilical arteries persist and supply blood to the ________.
Q5) The process of growing old is called ________.
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Chapter 24: Genetics and Genomics
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Q1) In von Willebrand disease, which is either autosomal recessive or autosomal dominant, clotting time slows and the person bruises and bleeds easily. Not everyone who inherits the disease genotype actually develops the phenotype. Affected individuals have differing degrees of difficulty in blood clotting. This condition is
A)completely penetrant, variably expressive, and not genetically heterogeneic.
B)incompletely penetrant, variably expressive, and genetically heterogeneic.
C)completely penetrant, invariably expressive, and not genetically heterogeneic.
D)pleiotropic and genetically heterogeneic.
Q2) Identical alleles are said to be
A)homozygous.
B)heterozygous.
C)recessive.
D)dominant.
Q3) A human male is hemizygous for genes on the X chromosome because he has two copies of that chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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