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Physiology for Health Sciences introduces students to the fundamental principles and mechanisms of human physiology, emphasizing how the body's systems function individually and collaboratively to maintain homeostasis and health. The course covers key topics such as cellular function, nervous and endocrine regulation, cardiovascular and respiratory physiology, renal and digestive systems, and the physiological responses to exercise and disease. By gaining an understanding of normal physiological processes, students are better equipped to appreciate the basis of health, disease mechanisms, and the scientific fundamentals underlying clinical practice in health-related professions.
Recommended Textbook
Vanders Human Physiology 15th Edition by
Eric P. Widmaier Dr
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18 Chapters
1745 Verified Questions
1745 Flashcards
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64 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is the correct sequence for a regulatory reflex arc?
A)Stimulus,effector,efferent pathway,integrating center,afferent pathway,receptor
B)Stimulus,receptor,efferent pathway,integrating center,afferent pathway,effector
C)Stimulus,receptor,afferent pathway,integrating center,efferent pathway,effector
D)Stimulus,effector,afferent pathway,integrating center,efferent pathway,receptor
E)Effector,efferent pathway,integrating center,afferent pathway,receptor,stimulus
Answer: C
Q2) Which situation describes a feedforward mechanism?
A)Blood glucose returns toward normal an hour after a meal.
B)The smell of rotten food on a plate triggers the vomit reflex.
C)A drop in core body temperature triggers shivering.
D)An increase in core body temperature stimulates sweating.
E)Food in the stomach triggers the production of stomach acid.
Answer: B
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Q1) Comparing two cups of coffee,one with no sugar added and the other has had a packet of sugar dissolved in it,we can say that the coffee with sugar is more concentrated.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A solution with a pH of 8 contains more H ions than a solution with a pH of 3.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The sequence of amino acids in a protein is known as the secondary structure.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) All covalent bonds are polar.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

Page 4
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132 Verified Questions
132 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Human beings can synthesize all twenty amino acids the body must have.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The site where most of the ATP is generated in a cell is the A)nucleus.
B)plasma membrane.
C)endoplasmic reticulum.
D)Golgi apparatus.
E)mitochondria.
Answer: E
Q3) Which best describes functions of the smooth (agranular) endoplasmic reticulum?
A)Transcription of DNA into RNA
B)Generation of ATP
C)Digestion of engulfed bacteria and cellular debris
D)Synthesis and packaging of proteins for secretion from the cell or export to other organelles
E)Synthesis of lipids and intracellular storage of calcium ions
Answer: E
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Q1) Which is true regarding the mediated transport of a substance across a plasma membrane?
A)It depends upon the binding of that substance to a specific site on the membrane protein.
B)It depends upon movement of proteins from one side of the membrane to the other.
C)It always increases in direct proportion to the increasing concentration of the substance on one side of the membrane.
D)Both "depends upon the binding of that substance to a specific site on the membrane protein" and "depends upon movement of proteins from one side of the membrane to the other" are correct.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Active transport,facilitated diffusion,and osmosis all directly require the expenditure of metabolic energy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Endocytosis of any kind requires metabolic energy.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme that catalyzes the production of cAMP from ATP is phosphodiesterase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Amplification of a second-messenger cascade can take place at which level of a signal cascade?
A)One activated receptor can activate numerous G proteins.
B)One activated G protein can activate numerous effector enzymes.
C)One active effector enzyme can catalyze numerous reactions.
D)One activated protein kinase can allosterically modulate numerous proteins.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) Researchers have found that enkephalin receptors are upregulated in cocaine addicts when compared to non-users.It is likely that the action of cocaine
A)increases enkephalin in the brain.
B)decreases enkephalin in the brain.
C)increases enkephalin's affinity for its receptor.
D)is an agonist to the enkephalin receptor.
Q4) Cyclic AMP activates allosteric proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the equation expressed as Ohm's law,which of these would cause the greatest increase in current?
A)Doubling both voltage and resistance
B)Reducing both voltage and resistance by half
C)Doubling voltage and reducing resistance by half
D)Reducing voltage by half and doubling resistance
E)Quadrupling both voltage and resistance
Q2) Which is one of the most abundant excitatory neurotransmitters in the CNS?
A)Glutamate
B)Dopamine
C)Norepinephrine
D)Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
E)Endorphin
Q3) The basal nuclei are important subcortical nuclei in the cerebrum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most common neurotransmitters for neuroeffector communication are dopamine and acetylcholine.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following symptoms would a patient with a lesion (injury)that destroyed the right side of the spinal cord in the region of the upper back be most likely to experience?
A)Loss of both pressure sense and pain in the right foot
B)Loss of both pressure sense and pain in the left foot
C)Loss of pressure sense in the right foot and pain in the left foot
D)Loss of pressure sense in the left foot and pain in the right foot
Q2) The incus,malleus,and stapes of the middle ear
A)serve to keep the pressure on the two sides of the tympanic membrane equal.
B)are part of the vestibular apparatus.
C)are in direct contact with both the tympanic membrane and the round window.
D)serve to amplify the pressure of sound vibrations from the air in the outer ear to the fluid in the inner ear.
E)are found inside the cochlear duct.
Q3) One function of saccades is to prevent adaptation of photoreceptors to a visual image.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An EEG with waves of high amplitude and low frequency is descriptive of or occurs during
A)slow-wave sleep.
B)paradoxical sleep.
C)both slow-wave sleep and paradoxical sleep.
D)neither slow-wave sleep nor paradoxical sleep.
Q2) Working memory is easy to change and can be lost in response to any condition that interrupts electrical activity of the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In pardoxical sleep an individual is easily aroused from a deep sleep,although the EEG pattern that is observed is consistent with that of an individual in NREM sleep.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A drug that blocks dopamine receptors is likely to be addictive. A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding myosin in skeletal muscle is TRUE?
A)Myosin cross-bridge heads contain two binding sites,one for actin and one for tropomyosin.
B)Myosin is an ATPase.
C)The rate of ATP hydrolysis by myosin is the same in all types of skeletal muscle.
D)All of the myosin cross-bridge heads in a thick filament are oriented and rotate in the same direction.
E)Troponin covers the binding site on myosin molecules until Ca² binds to troponin to remove it from its blocking position.
Q2) Neuronal stimulation of skeletal muscle is always excitatory,whereas neuronal stimulation of smooth muscle may be excitatory or inhibitory.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Type 2X skeletal muscle fibers have fast myosin ATPase activity.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Information from the muscle spindle stretch receptors is not conveyed above the level of the spinal cord and thus does not reach consciousness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true of corticospinal fibers?
A)They may synapse directly on alpha motor neurons.
B)They may synapse directly on gamma motor neurons.
C)They may synapse directly on interneurons.
D)They are collectively sometimes called the extrapyramidal system.
E)They may synapse with afferent neurons in ascending pathways.
Q3) The motor neuron pool of a skeletal muscle consists of the neurons of all of the motor units of that muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Practicing a movement allows for "fine-tuning" the original program so that the movement can be executed with fewer corrections.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) You are designing an experiment to quantify the levels of stress experienced by different individuals.Which of the following tests would reveal insight as to a patient's chronic stress?
A)Testing plasma levels of growth hormone
B)Testing plasma levels of parathyroid hormone
C)Testing plasma levels of dopamine
D)Testing plasma levels of follicle-stimulating hormone
E)Testing plasma levels of cortisol
Q2) Which stimulates the secretion of growth hormone?
A)Waking from sleep
B)Exercise
C)Increased levels of IGF-I in blood
D)High plasma glucose
E)Increased somatostatin secretion
Q3) Growth hormone secretion is stimulated by exercise.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both thyroxine and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) are amine hormones.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Your doctor has determined that you have a leaky right atrioventricular valve.This defect will be detected by an ECG.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What determines the movement of blood in systemic veins?
A)The blood pressure difference between systemic capillaries and the right atrium
B)The contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscles
C)The decrease of thoracic pressure and increase of abdominal pressure due to diaphragm movement
D)Valves in the veins
E)All of the these
Q3) The function of the platelet plug is to block the blood vessel so that blood cannot flow through it.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves releases epinephrine into the blood plasma.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is a cause of asthma?
A)Loss of alveoli
B)Inflammation of the bronchioles
C)Elevation of intrapleural pressure to equal atmospheric pressure
D)Environmental chemicals that stimulate -adrenergic receptors
E)Lack of pulmonary surfactant
Q2) Normal,resting exhalation/expiration of air from the lungs requires contraction of the exhalatory/expiratory intercostal muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Type II alveolar cells are among the last cells to mature during fetal development.In babies born prematurely,type II alveolar cells are often not ready to perform their function.Which of the following would be TRUE of these babies?
A)They would be at risk of alveolar collapse due to too much surface tension in the alveoli.
B)They would be at risk of bacterial infections in the lungs.
C)They would be at risk of autoimmune diseases with lung complications.
D)They would be more likely to have coughing fits.
E)None of these would occur.
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Q1) Which of the following describes tubular reabsorption in the kidney?
A)The movement of substances from the peritubular capillaries into the tubular fluid
B)The movement of substances from the proximal tubule into the loop of Henle
C)Transepithelial transport from the lumen of the tubule into renal interstitial fluid
D)Movement of Na ,Cl ,and water from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's capsule
E)Transport of solutes from the renal medullary interstitial fluid into the collecting duct
Q2) Which of the following is least likely to be filtered into Bowman's capsule in a normal,healthy person?
A)Glucose
B)Plasma protein
C)Sodium
D)Urea
E)Bicarbonate ion
Q3) A person on a high-protein diet will have high levels of protein in their urine.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Neural regulation of digestive processes is accomplished exclusively by the enteric nervous system of the gastrointestinal tract.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The products of lipid digestion diffuse into the intestinal epithelium as micelles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You're going hiking and want to pack emergency food in case you get lost or the hike takes longer than you anticipate.Your goal is to pack a food that will have the biggest increase on your blood glucose level to be able to supply your hiking muscles with glucose for cellular respiration.Which of the following foods will lead to the biggest and most immediate increase in blood glucose?
A)A snack rich in lipids,such as slices of cheese
B)A snack rich in protein,such as a dried meat stick
C)A snack rich in digestible polysaccharides such as a cooked potato
D)All of these will have equal impacts on blood glucose level
E)A snack rich in cellulose,such as a bag of celery
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Q1) Which accurately describes the metabolic actions of cortisol during fasting?
A)It decreases blood glucose by increasing the sensitivity of muscle and adipose tissue to insulin.
B)It stimulates protein synthesis in muscle cells,and is permissive of triglyceride synthesis by adipocytes.
C)It increases sensitivity of muscle and adipose to insulin,and inhibits gluconeogenesis in the liver.
D)It directly stimulates gluconeogenesis and lipolysis,and increases sensitivity of muscle and adipose tissue to insulin.
E)It is permissive of gluconeogenesis and lipolysis,and reduces sensitivity of muscle and adipose tissue to insulin.
Q2) The excretion of glucose in the urine of a diabetic patient is a result of the inability of the kidney tubules to reabsorb a normal amount of glucose in the absence of insulin.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Kathryn is pregnant and very eager to breast-feed after the baby is born.Her friend gives her a supplement to encourage prolactin secretion and Kathryn starts to take it during pregnancy.The supplement works and Kathryn's blood level of prolactin increases.She does not begin lactating during pregnancy because
A)the breast ducts do not develop until after parturition.
B)the high levels of estrogen and progesterone in maternal plasma inhibit the effects of prolactin.
C)maternal plasma levels of prolactin are low during pregnancy.
D)high levels of androgens inhibit milk synthesis by the breasts.
E)the low levels of circulating estrogen and progesterone during pregnancy inhibit milk synthesis by the breasts.
Q2) Which is NOT a function of Sertoli cells?
A)Forming a barrier between the blood and developing germ cells
B)Secreting inhibin
C)Nourishing developing sperm
D)Converting estrogens into testosterone
E)Phagocytizing defective sperm
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Q1) Unlike cytotoxic T cells,natural killer cells do not require antigen to be complexed with class I MHC proteins in order to bind to the antigen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) You're working in a clinical lab and your boss has asked you to run a test on a patient's MHC Class I molecules.You need to isolate some cells from her collected tissues that express the Class I proteins.Which of the following cell types would you NOT use?
A)Red blood cells
B)Liver cells
C)Neurons
D)Skeletal muscle cells
E)Intestinal epithelial cells
Q3) An infant fed with formula will have less passive immunity than a breast-fed infant. A)True
B)False
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