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This course provides a comprehensive overview of human physiology with a focus on principles relevant to biomedical sciences. Students will explore the fundamental mechanisms that govern the function of the body's major organ systems, including the nervous, muscular, cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, digestive, and endocrine systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding molecular and cellular processes, homeostasis, and the integrative nature of physiological responses. The course aims to equip students with the foundational knowledge necessary to appreciate physiological adaptations and dysfunctions relevant to health, disease, and biomedical research.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology An Integrated Approach 7th Edition by Silverthorn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Refer to Table 1.3.
A.Write a hypothesis regarding gender and recovery time.
B.What is the dependent variable? What is the independent variable?
C.Create a graph using the averages from the data table.Based on these data, what do you conclude?
Answer: A.A prediction such as "Males recover from exercise more quickly than females" would be appropriate.
B.The independent variable is gender; the dependent variable is recovery time.
C.A bar graph such as the one below is appropriate.In this study, men recovered from exercise more quickly than women.
11ea425e_4397_4e93_8c17_f545f85a41dc_TB1120_00
Q2) "Glucose is transported from blood into cells by transporters in response to insulin." This type of explanation is A) mechanistic.
B) theological. C) teleological.
D) metalogical. E) scatological.
Answer: A
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Q1) In the equation CO + H O H CO H + HCO , which of these is an acid?
A) HCO
B) H CO
C) H O
D) CO
E) H
Answer: B
Q2) A(n)________ is a substance that consists entirely of atoms with the same atomic number.
A) atom
B) molecule
C) element
D) nucleus
E) tissue
Answer: C
Q3) Beta strands are an example of a spatial arrangement of amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Microvilli are found
A) mostly in muscle cells.
B) on the inside of cell membranes.
C) in large numbers on cells that secrete hormones.
D) in cells that are actively engaged in absorption.
E) only on cells lining the reproductive tract.
Answer: D
Q2) Cells are transformed into specialized units during A) differentiation.
B) mitosis.
C) apoptosis.
D) transcription.
E) programed cell death.
Answer: A
Q3) Which type of epithelium would one expect to compose the alveoli (air sacs)in the lungs? Defend your answer.
Answer: Since gases must diffuse across the alveoli and associated capillaries you would expect to find exchange epithelia, composed of very thin cells (simple squamous epithelium).Thicker types of epithelial cells would slow the process of gas diffusion to and from the blood.
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Q1) The activity of metabolic pathways is influenced by the ratio of ________.
Q2) lipase
A)oxidoreductase
B)hydrolase
C)transferase
D)ligase
E)Lyase
Q3) A molecule that loses electrons during a reaction is
A) reduced.
B) oxidized.
C) dehydrated.
D) hydrated.
Q4) The ________ is the portion of the mRNA that contains the coding sequence of the gene.
Q5) What happens to the oxygen that is metabolized within the mitochondria?
A) The oxygen is converted to CO .
B) The oxygen is incorporated into organic molecules during cellular metabolism.
C) The oxygen is combined with hydrogen to form water.
D) The oxygen acts as a coenzyme in the production of ATP.
E) The oxygen is converted to CO and is combined with hydrogen to form water.
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Q1) The Na -K -ATPase pumps (this number of)________ Na ions ________ (into/out of)the cell and (this number of)________ K ions ________ (into/out of)the cell.
Q2) Which of the following is a way for solutes in an aqueous solution to move from an area of high solute concentration to an area of low solute concentration?
A) only facilitated diffusion
B) only osmosis
C) only active transport
D) both facilitated diffusion and osmosis
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q3) Design an experiment to test whether molecular weight does indeed influence the rate of diffusion.Be sure to list all controlled variables.
Q4) Sodium ions are more concentrated in the extracellular fluid than in the intracellular fluid.This is an example of A) electrical disequilibrium. B) osmotic equilibrium. C) chemical disequilibrium. D) failed homeostasis.
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Q1) receives information about the regulated variable and initiates a response
A)threshold
B)effector
C)integrating center
D)setpoint
E)sensory receptor
Q2) Compare and contrast neural, neuroendocrine, and endocrine reflex pathways.
Q3) Down-regulation may allow a target cell to
A) only increase its number of receptors for a ligand.
B) only decrease its number of receptors for a ligand.
C) only increase its binding affinity for a ligand.
D) decrease the receptors' binding affinity and increase its number of receptors.
Q4) All molecules secreted by nerve cells (neuromodulators, neurotransmitters, and neurohormones)are known as ________.
Q5) When calcium becomes available inside a cell, it comes from
A) extracellular fluid only.
B) intracellular storage only.
C) extracellular fluid and intracellular storage.
D) It is always available as a major cytosol cation.
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Q1) thyroid
A)prolactin
B)insulin
C)aldosterone
D)melatonin
E)calcitonin
F)Epinephrine
Q2) Your roommate Sally has just found out her mother has high cholesterol.Knowing that health problems often run in families, Sally has decided to eliminate cholesterol from her diet.Her goal is to have no cholesterol in her body.She has asked you for advice on achieving this goal.Is her goal realistic? Explain.What information should you give her to help her establish a more realistic goal? Assuming she could banish cholesterol from her body, what would be the endocrine consequences?
Q3) A cell's or tissue's response to a hormone primarily depends on ________ and ________.
Q4) How does the embryological origin of the two distinct parts of the pituitary gland relate to the control of secretion and the types of hormones produced?
Q5) List and explain two ways hormones affect their targets.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The all-or-none principle states that
A) all stimuli will produce identical action potentials.
B) all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce action potentials of identical magnitude.
C) the greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the intensity of the action potential.
D) only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials.
E) only motor stimuli can activate action potentials.
Q2) Name two ways a cell changes its membrane permeability to ions.(Hint: One way is relatively slow.)
Q3) Spatial summation refers to
A) electrical signals reaching neurons from outer space.
B) multiple graded potentials arriving at one location simultaneously.
C) repeated graded potentials reaching the trigger zone one after the other.
D) suprathreshold potentials triggering action potentials that are extra large.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q4) require(s)a minimum stimulus to occur
A)graded potential
B)action potential
C)both

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Q1) occipital lobe
A)primary somatic sensory cortex
B)visual cortex
C)auditory cortex
D)association areas
Q2) Which functions in the control of movement?
A) hippocampus only
B) amygdala only
C) basal nuclei only
D) hippocampus and amygdala
E) All of the above function in the control of movement.
Q3) parietal lobe
A)primary somatic sensory cortex
B)visual cortex
C)auditory cortex
D)association areas
Q4) corpus callosum
A)structure is composed of gray matter
B)structure is composed of white matter
Q5) Describe cerebrospinal fluid flow from secretion to absorption.
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Q1) Discuss the gate control theory of pain modulation.
Q2) Describe pitch and loudness and how these properties of sound are processed by the cochlea.
Q3) Describe how lateral inhibition allows for localization of a stimulus.
Q4) Greater visual acuity results from convergence of ________ numbers of photoreceptors onto retinal ganglion cells.
Q5) List and describe the two types of retinal bipolar cells and how they respond differently to the same neurotransmitter.
Q6) Chronic pain is
A) only pathological.
B) only treated by analgesic drugs.
C) only the result of short-term changes in the nervous system.
D) pathological and treated by analgesic drugs.
Q7) Because of involvement of the ________, pain may be accompanied by emotional distress and nausea or sweating.
Q8) stretch
A)chemoreceptor
B)mechanoreceptor
Q9) Activation of a ________ leads to the perception of pain and itch.
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Q1) Which functions are controlled through the autonomic nervous system?
1)blood pressure
2)heart rate
3)water balance
4)temperature regulation
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 2, 3, 4
E) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q2) The ganglia are found in a chain that runs close to the spinal cord or along the descending aorta.
A)True only for the sympathetic division
B)True only for the parasympathetic division
C)True for both divisions
Q3) The ________ is the major source of parasympathetic output.
Q4) blocks secretion of adrenal catecholamines
A)sympathetic antagonist
B)parasympathetic antagonist
Q5) The two types of cholinergic receptors are ________ and ________.
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Q1) Striated muscles are so-called because of a repeating pattern of light and dark bands.One repeating unit of the banding pattern is called a
A) myofilament.
B) myomere.
C) sarcofibril.
D) sarcomere.
E) crossbridge.
Q2) inward extensions of the muscle cell membrane
A)muscle fiber
B)fascicle
C)sarcolemma
D)myofibril
E)t-tubules
Q3) ________ is composed of multiple globular molecules polymerized to form long chains or filaments.
A) Actin
B) Tropomyosin
C) Troponin
D) Myosin
E) Titin
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Q1) Autonomic reflexes are also called ________ reflexes.
Q2) have gamma motor neurons that innervate internal fibers
A)muscle spindles
B)Golgi tendon organs
C)both
Q3) Name the components of a reflex pathway, and describe generally how a reflex works.
Q4) The "normal" contractile fibers of the muscle are also called the A) extrafusal fibers.
B) intrafusal fibers.
C) muscle spindle fibers.
Q5) Compare and contrast the three categories of movement described in the text and give an example of each.
Q6) The reflex that prevents a muscle from exerting too much tension is the A) stretch reflex.
B) tendon reflex.
C) flexor reflex.
D) crossed extensor reflex.
E) reciprocal reflex.
Q7) Explain alpha-gamma coactivation. Page 15
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Q1) The action potentials of myocardial autorhythmic cells, are due to a combination of increasing Na² ________ and decreasing K ________.
A) influx, efflux
B) efflux, influx
C) influx, influx
D) efflux, efflux
Q2) If channels are permeable to
A) Na only.
B) K only.
C) Ca² only.
D) Na and K .
E) Ca² and K .
Q3) atrial depolarization
A)P wave
B)QRS complex
C)T wave
D)PR segment
E)ST segment
Q4) An increase in blood vessel diameter is known as ________.
Q5) Name the three portal systems in the body.
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Q1) The term for chronically elevated blood pressure is ________.
Q2) Which of the following is greater?
A) blood pressure when sympathetic stimulation to the heart increases B) blood pressure when parasympathetic stimulation to the heart increases
Q3) The rapid pressure increase that occurs when the left ventricle pushes blood into the aorta can be felt as ________.
Q4) Millie's grandfather suffers from congestive heart failure.Whenever she visits him, she notices that his ankles and feet appear to be quite swollen.She knows that you are an avid student of anatomy and physiology, and she asks you why this occurs.What would you tell her?
Q5) Why is there a loss of blood volume when a patient is confined to bed for two or three days? What symptoms commonly follow this confinement?
Q6) Draw a map of the baroreceptor reflex, starting with decrease in blood pressure.Indicate on the map the following: stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, integrating center, efferent pathway, effector, tissue response, systemic response.
Q7) Venules are similar to capillaries: they have ________ epithelium and little ________.They are distinguished from capillaries by ________.
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Q1) These cells contain hemoglobin and iron.
A)lymphocytes
B)erythrocytes
C)eosinophils
D)platelets
E)neutrophils
Q2) Which of the following is/are vasoconstrictors?
A) platelet-activating factor
B) serotonin
C) adenosine diphosphate
D) thromboxane A2
E) serotonin and thromboxane A2
Q3) The cell that is the progenitor of all the types of blood cells is called the A) pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell.
B) committed progenitor cell.
C) megakaryocyte.
D) reticulocyte.
E) progenitor.
Q4) Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations.
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Q1) Type II alveolar cells
A) allow rapid diffusion of gases through their thin membranes.
B) secrete a chemical known as surfactant.
C) are phagocytic.
D) allow rapid diffusion of gases through their thin membranes, secrete a chemical known as surfactant, and are phagocytic.
E) None of the statements are True.
Q2) Distinguish between intrapulmonary and intrapleural pressure.
Q3) Pressure and volume of gas in a container are related to temperature and number of gas molecules.This is known as ________ law.
A) the ideal gas
B) Boyle's
C) Dalton's
D) Henry's
E) Ohm's
Q4) What is Dalton's law? Why is it important?
Q5) What are the functions of pleural fluid?
Q6) What is surfactant? Why is it important?
Q7) The ability of a lung to recoil, or recover from stretch, is called ________.
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Q1) Drowning is often the introduction of outside water into the alveoli, yet some water is normally present in alveoli.Why is water normally present in the alveoli? What is present in alveolar fluid, besides water, that aids in respiration? What properties of water are detrimental to respiration? What causes drowning? While extremely rare, there have even been documented cases of people walking away from recreational swimming only to die later, on dry land, as a result of drowning (termed "delayed" or "secondary" drowning).Propose an explanation for delayed drowning.
Q2) Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is
A) dissolved in plasma.
B) bound to hemoglobin.
C) in ionic form as solute in the plasma.
D) bound to a plasma protein.
E) carried by white blood cells.
Q3) Explain how oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in the blood.How does the means of transport relate to the solubility and chemical reactivity of these gases in plasma?
Q4) increased pH
A)increase
B)decrease
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Q1) glucose
A)transcytosis
B)active transport
C)symport with a cation
D)passive reabsorption/diffusion
Q2) Urine is produced by the A) gallbladder.
B) urinary bladder.
C) kidney.
D) ureter.
E) urethra.
Q3) An obstruction in a glomerulus would affect the flow of blood into the A) renal artery.
B) efferent arteriole.
C) afferent arteriole.
D) renal vein.
Q4) Patrick's urine sample reveals a high concentration of glucose.Is glucose normally present in urine? Suggest two possible mechanisms to explain why the kidney would excrete excess glucose, and what abnormality may underlie those conditions.
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Q1) The hormone that regulates water reabsorption by the kidneys
A) decreases water permeability throughout the kidney tubules.
B) increases water permeability throughout the kidney tubules.
C) only decreases water permeability in certain portions of the kidney tubules.
D) only increases water permeability in certain portions of the kidney tubules.
Q2) The enzyme renin is responsible for the activation of A) angiotensin I.
B) cortisol.
C) erythropoietin.
D) atrial natriuretic peptide.
E) adrenaline.
Q3) Stimuli for the activation of the RAS pathway include
A) low blood pressure in arterioles in the nephron only.
B) a decrease in fluid flow through the distal tubule only.
C) high blood pressure in the renal artery only.
D) low blood pressure in arterioles in the nephron and a decrease in fluid flow through the distal tubule.
E) low blood pressure in arterioles in the nephron, a decrease in fluid flow through the distal tubule, and high blood pressure in the renal artery.
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Q1) The primary complex carbohydrate ingested and digested by people is A) fiber.
B) glycogen.
C) glucagon.
D) cellulose.
E) starch.
Q2) In the intestine, the epithelial cells have
A) leaky junctions.
B) tight junctions.
C) electrical gap junctions.
Q3) Bicarbonate secretion
A) neutralizes acid entering from the stomach into the duodenum.
B) is secreted by apical Cl -HCO exchanger.
C) is not dependent on high levels of carbonic anhydrase to maintain bicarbonate production.
D) is secreted by the acinar cells.
E) neutralizes acid entering from the stomach into the duodenum and is secreted by apical Cl -HCO exchanger.
Q4) Defects in which channel lead to the disease cystic fibrosis? Which ion does this channel transport?
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Q1) ________ is the transfer of heat energy to air.
Q2) Why does insulin deficiency lead to metabolic acidosis?
Q3) wound healing, recovering from surgery
A)chemical work
B)transport work
C)mechanical work
Q4) When blood glucose levels fall,
A) only insulin is released.
B) only glucagon is released.
C) only peripheral cells take up less glucose.
D) only protein synthesis decreases.
E) All of these answers are correct.
Q5) enlarging one's muscles through body-building exercises
A)chemical work
B)transport work
C)mechanical work
Q6) ________ is a test used to measure insulin response.
Q7) Low leptin levels have been observed in athletes with chronic negative energy balance.What might be a possible explanation for this? Would you expect neuropeptide Y (NPY)levels to be high? Explain.
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Q1) Pendrin is an anion transporter important in the production of A) parathyroid hormone.
B) calcitonin.
C) TRH.
D) TSH.
E) thyroid hormone.
Q2) The thyroid gland is composed of many ________ that produce and store thyroid hormones.
Q3) The Thyroid hormones T and T are lipophilic so they do not require transporters to cross cell membranes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In bone, the calcium phosphate forms crystals of ________.
Q5) The precursor chemical for ACTH synthesis is
A) CRH.
B) POMC.
C) beta-endorphin.
D) MSH.
E) TRH.
Q6) List four factors that affect normal body growth.
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Q1) In an experimental situation focused on the development of a new vaccine, mice were injected with a viral antigen.Their plasma was removed in order to detect the presence of antibodies.This is an example of
A) innate immunity.
B) active immunization.
C) passive immunization.
D) natural immunity.
E) autoimmunity.
Q2) Which of these is matched incorrectly?
A) innate immunity - nonspecific responses
B) acquired immunity - responses directed toward specific invaders
C) active immunity - an immune response started and developed by the cells
D) actively acquired immunity - immunity passed via the placenta or milk to offspring
E) Each of these is correctly described.
Q3) Infected cells are killed by perforin and granzymes.
A)specific
B)nonspecific
Q4) ________ are groups of lymphocytes with a specific ligand in common.
Q5) ________ are free phagocytes found in the lungs.
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Q1) The nutrients that yield the most energy per gram when metabolized are
A) carbohydrates.
B) proteins.
C) fats.
D) nucleic acids.
E) vitamins.
Q2) During exercise, skeletal muscle
A) vasodilation decreases peripheral resistance to blood flow.
B) vasodilation increases peripheral resistance to blood flow.
C) vasoconstriction decreases peripheral resistance to blood flow.
D) vasoconstriction increases peripheral resistance to blood flow.
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q3) Excess postexercise oxygen consumption serves all of the following purposes EXCEPT A) it metabolizes lactate.
B) it restores ATP and phosphocreatine levels.
C) it replenishes oxygen bound to myoglobin.
D) it removes unnecessary catecholamines from circulation.
Q4) Individuals with McArdle's disease cannot break down glycogen.How would this affect substrate utilization during exercise?
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Q1) Which of the following hormones is used as in indicator of polycystic ovary syndrome?
A) anti-Müllerian hormone
B) follicle stimulating hormone
C) lutenizing hormone
D) estrogen
E) progesterone
Q2) The structure that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra is the
A) ductus deferens.
B) rete testis.
C) seminal vesicle.
D) ejaculatory duct.
E) corpus cavernosum.
Q3) Identify the False statement.
A) Androgens control the development of reproductive organs in the male fetus.
B) Estrogens control the development of the reproductive organs in the female fetus.
C) Females have one less active chromosome than males.
D) Gametogenesis begins in the female fetus.
E) Meiosis is never completed in most oocytes.
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