Physiology
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Physiology is the scientific study of how living organisms function, with a particular focus on the physical and chemical processes that occur within cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems. This course explores the mechanisms that underlie vital processes such as circulation, respiration, digestion, metabolism, neural communication, muscle contraction, and endocrine regulation. Emphasis is placed on understanding how the body maintains homeostasis, adapts to varying internal and external environments, and responds to disease and injury. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and discussions, students gain a comprehensive foundation in human physiology, preparing them for advanced study or careers in health, medicine, and biological research.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology 4th Edition by George M. Brenner
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45 Chapters
150 Verified Questions
150 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which endeavor is most important for determining the dose-response relationship of a drug?
A) isolation of a pure drug compound
B) measurement of the plasma concentration of a drug over time
C) clinical trials to determine drug efficacy
D) study of the structure-activity relationship of a drug
E) development of a sustained-release formulation of a drug
Answer: A
Q2) A patient is administered a drug in the form of a tablet formulated with an osmotic substance that slowly attracts water. Which characteristic is associated with this preparation?
A) used to treat constipation
B) enables almost 100% bioavailability
C) poses more risks than intramuscular administration
D) causes a localized effect on the colon
E) provides sustained drug absorption over many hours
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug with a first-order elimination rate constant of 0.23 L/hour is administered by continuous intravenous infusion. About how long will it take to achieve a steady-state plasma drug concentration?
A) 5 hours
B) 10 hours
C) 15 hours
D) 30 hours
E) 50 hours
Answer: C
Q2) Which description best characterizes drug metabolism involving conjugation of a drug with glucuronate?
A) reduces the rate of biliary drug excretion
B) increases the rate of renal drug excretion
C) typically increases the pharmacologic activity of the drug
D) primarily occurs in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E) often induced or inhibited by other drugs
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Pharmacodynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient exhibits a rapid loss of responsiveness to a drug during the first several hours of drug administration. Which event is most likely responsible for this effect?
A) up-regulation of drug metabolizing enzymes
B) down-regulation of drug metabolizing enzymes
C) internalization of cell membrane receptors
D) formation of receptor antibodies
E) phosphorylation of G protein-coupled receptors
Answer: E
Q2) In what way is the log-concentration effect (dose response) curve of an agonist drug modified in the presence of a competitive receptor antagonist?
A) shifted to the right without a change in slope or maximum effect
B) shifted to the left without a change in slope or maximum effect
C) shifted to the right with a decreased slope and maximum effect
D) shifted to the left with a decreased slope and maximum effect
E) not shifted right or left but shows a decreased maximum effect
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Drug Development and Safety
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a generic version of a drug is approved for marketing on the basis of a study comparing the oral bioavailability of the generic and brand name product, which term is associated with the review of this product by the Food and Drug Administration?
A) Harris-Kefauver amendment
B) accelerated drug approval
C) orphan drug amendment
D) abbreviated new drug application
E) investigational new drug
Q2) Which term most accurately applies to a study involving the sequential administration of active drug and placebo to all subjects?
A) double-blind study
B) crossover study
C) Phase 1 study
D) postmarketing study
E) preclinical study
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Autonomic and Neuromuscular Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which neurotransmitter causes vasodilation when released by the enteric nervous system?
A) norepinephrine
B) nitric oxide
C) endothelin
D) neuropeptide Y
E) substance P
Q2) A child experiences abdominal spasms after a black widow spider bite. Which activity is affected by the toxin contained in its venom?
A) choline reuptake
B) choline acetylation
C) exocytosis
D) cholinesterase
E) receptor activation
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Chapter 6: Acetylcholine Receptor Agonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which adverse effect may result from administration of bethanechol?
A) dry mouth
B) urinary retention
C) pupil dilation
D) tachycardia
E) diarrhea
Q2) Which mechanism is responsible for the therapeutic effect of sildenafil?
A) inhibition of acetylcholine degradation
B) activation of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
C) inhibition of cyclic GMP degradation
D) stimulation of nitric oxide synthesis
E) stimulation of potassium efflux
Q3) A patient with open-angle glaucoma receives a drug that activates muscarinic receptors in the eye. Which action is responsible for the therapeutic effect of this drug?
A) contraction of ciliary muscle
B) relaxation of ciliary muscle
C) contraction of iris sphincter muscle
D) relaxation of iris sphincter muscle
E) stimulation of lacrimal gland secretion
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Chapter 7: Acetylcholine Receptor Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) Succinylcholine is avoided in persons with skeletal muscle injuries because of the drug's tendency to cause which effect?
A) hyperkalemia
B) hypocalcemia
C) hypernatremia
D) metabolic acidosis
E) prolonged apnea
Q2) For which purpose is glycopyrrolate administered during surgery?
A) reversing the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents
B) increasing blood pressure
C) decreasing respiratory secretions
D) causing bronchodilation
E) potentiating general anesthetics
Q3) Cisatracurium is preferred in patients with renal or hepatic impairment because of which property?
A) a short duration of action
B) undergoes spontaneous chemical degradation
C) metabolized by plasma cholinesterase
D) rapidly inactivated by sugammadex
E) effects easily reversed by edrophonium
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Chapter 8: Adrenoceptor Agonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in the intensive care unit is given dexmedetomidine. Which therapeutic outcome may result from this medication?
A) vasoconstriction and increased blood pressure
B) analgesia and sedation
C) increased cardiac output
D) muscle relaxation
E) bronchodilation
Q2) A patient with heart failure is given an intravenous dobutamine infusion to reduce impedance to left ventricular ejection. Which receptors mediate this effect of dobutamine?
A) dopamine D1 receptors
B) 1-adrenoceptors
C) 2-adrenoceptors
D) 1-adrenoceptors
E) 2-adrenoceptors
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10
Chapter 9: Adrenoceptor Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man is placed on doxazosin for hypertension. Which adverse effect is most likely to result from taking this drug?
A) postural hypotension
B) rebound hypertension
C) hypokalemia
D) urinary retention
E) bradycardia
Q2) Which pharmacologic effect is produced by topical ocular administration of timolol?
A) miosis
B) mydriasis
C) contraction of the ciliary muscles
D) decreased aqueous humor secretion
E) conjunctival vasoconstriction
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11
Chapter 10: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antihypertensive drug is most likely to reduce vascular injury by inhibiting activation of growth factors that cause smooth muscle proliferation and hypertrophy?
A) clonidine
B) terazosin
C) atenolol
D) candesartan
E) nifedipine
Q2) After several months of antihypertensive drug therapy, a patient develops a lupus erythematosus-like syndrome.
Which agent is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
A) minoxidil
B) hydrochlorothiazide
C) captopril
D) verapamil
E) hydralazine
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Chapter 11: Antianginal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which signaling mechanism participates in the vasodilative effect of nitroglycerin?
A) activation of nitric oxide synthase
B) inhibition of phosphodiesterase
C) inhibition of intracellular calcium release
D) activation of guanylate cyclase
E) activation of adenylate cyclase
Q2) A patient is given a drug that decreases anginal episodes without reducing heart rate or blood pressure. Which mechanism is responsible for the beneficial effects of this drug?
A) increased utilization of glucose by the heart
B) improved cardiac diastolic function
C) inhibition of fatty acid oxidation in the heart
D) increased sodium influx into myocytes
E) increased calcium influx into myocytes
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13
Chapter 12: Drugs for Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The beneficial effects of carvedilol in persons with heart failure are obtained with the use of which drug administration regimen?
A) intravenous infusion for 3 to 7 days
B) low doses that are gradually increased over time
C) loading doses followed by maintenance doses
D) high doses that are gradually tapered over time
E) titration to obtain the desired increase in cardiac output
Q2) Several weeks after beginning treatment for severe heart failure, a man develops hyperkalemia requiring hospitalization.
Which agent is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
A) eplerenone
B) digoxin
C) furosemide
D) dobutamine
E) milrinone
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14
Chapter 13: Diuretics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which diuretic acts to increase the renal excretion of weakly acidic drugs?
A) spironolactone
B) amiloride
C) acetazolamide
D) furosemide
E) mannitol
Q2) A man with renal stones is found to have hypercalciuria. The drug most likely used to treat this condition blocks which step in nephron function?
A) conversion of bicarbonate to carbon dioxide
B) sodium chloride reabsorption from the distal tubule
C) expression of sodium channel protein in the collecting duct
D) sodium chloride reabsorption from the loop of Henle
E) sodium-potassium exchange in the collecting duct
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Chapter 14: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because of the risk of serious toxicity, a yearly chest radiogram is required in persons taking which drug?
A) ibutilide
B) sotalol
C) quinidine
D) procainamide
E) amiodarone
Q2) Which drug slows atrioventricular conduction and increases atrioventricular refractory period and is used to control ventricular rate in persons with atrial fibrillation?
A) sotalol
B) ibutilide
C) diltiazem
D) disopyramide
E) adenosine
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16
Chapter 15: Drugs for Hyperlipidemia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dietary modifications that lower the ratio of LDL-cholesterol to HDL-cholesterol include an increased intake of which nutrient?
A) trans isomers of fatty acids
B) saturated fat
C) polyunsaturated fat
D) omega-3 (n-3) fatty acids
E) partially hydrogenated plant oils
Q2) A man taking simvastatin develops severe muscle pain, muscle inflammation, And dark urine after beginning concurrent therapy with another drug.
Which agent is most likely responsible for this adverse drug interaction?
A) ezetimibe
B) cholestyramine
C) itraconazole
D) rifampin
E) penicillin
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17
Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which coagulation factor is inactivated following administration of lepirudin?
A) tissue thromboplastin
B) fibrinogen
C) prothrombin
D) active factor X
E) thrombin
Q2) Which anticoagulant consists of a synthetic antithrombin III-binding pentasaccharide?
A) fondaparinux
B) bivalirudin
C) warfarin
D) heparin
E) enoxaparin
Q3) A patient receives a cyclic peptide derived from rattlesnake venom. Which step leading to platelet aggregation is inhibited by this agent?
A) glycoprotein IIb/IIIa expression
B) ADP binding
C) fibrinogen binding
D) cyclic AMP formation
E) 5-hydroxytryptamine synthesis
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Chapter 17: Hematopoietic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using larger doses of recombinant erythropoietin (e.g., epoetin)
To achieve hemoglobin levels >12 g/dL is associated with an increased risk of which type of disease?
A) cardiovascular disease
B) renal disease
C) hepatic disease
D) hematologic disease
E) pulmonary disease
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Chapter 18: Introduction to Central Nervous System
Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term is used to describe the effect of a drug that reduces the activity of an inhibitory neuronal system?
A) co-antagonist
B) disinhibition
C) up-regulation
D) delirium
E) metabotropic
Q2) Which attribute is most correctly associated with substances known as neuromodulators?
A) produced in the brain but exert effects on other organs
B) affect the activity of only one or a few neurons
C) inhibit the synthesis or degradation of neurotransmitters
D) influence the activity of a large number of neurons
E) modulate the activity of non-neuronal cells in the central nervous system
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Chapter 19: Sedative-Hypnotic and Anxiolytic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which attribute is correctly associated with ramelteon?
A) produces considerable daytime sedation
B) may cause rebound insomnia when discontinued
C) has a high abuse potential
D) binds melatonin receptors
E) is a Schedule IV controlled substance
Q2) Which property is related to the ability of zolpidem to selectively bind GABAA receptors that are composed of -subunits?
A) lack of active metabolites
B) low degree of daytime sedation
C) low potential for drug dependence
D) greater effect on REM sleep
E) greater effect on slow wave sleep
Q3) For which reason is lorazepam is one of the safer benzodiazepines for elderly patients?
A) It is excreted unchanged in the urine.
B) It does not cause anterograde amnesia.
C) It is not associated with drug dependence.
D) It is metabolized by glucuronide formation.
E) It has special utility in treating panic disorder.
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Chapter 20: Antiepileptic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman with epilepsy is instructed to take larger doses of vitamin D than are usually recommended. Which drug is most likely being taken by this patient?
A) valproate
B) phenytoin
C) phenobarbital
D) gabapentin
E) topiramate
Q2) After sustaining head trauma, a woman experiences recurrent tonic-clonic seizures without regaining consciousness.
Which pair of drugs is most often used to control this type of seizure?
A) valproate and carbamazepine
B) zonisamide and gabapentin
C) topiramate and vigabatrin
D) diazepam and phenytoin
E) pregabalin and tiagabine
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22
Chapter 21: Local and General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which attribute best describes sevoflurane?
A) causes little cardiovascular and respiratory depression
B) more irritating to the respiratory tract than other drugs
C) slower rate of induction than other inhalational agents
D) more potent than other halogenated inhalational anesthetics
E) increases systemic vascular resistance more than other drugs
Q2) Which advantage is associated with etomidate compared to other parenteral anesthetics?
A) produces muscle relaxation
B) causes a high degree of analgesia
C) less likely to cause hypotension
D) has a longer duration of action
E) causes dissociative anesthesia
Q3) The use of prilocaine is limited to topical and infiltration anesthesia because the drug's metabolite may cause which adverse effect?
A) cardiac arrhythmias
B) hepatitis
C) renal impairment
D) myopathy
E) methemoglobinemia
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Chapter 22: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
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Q1) A woman is evaluated to determine the cause of infertility and is found to have elevated serum prolactin levels. Which drug is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
A) fluoxetine
B) lithium
C) haloperidol
D) aripiprazole
E) bupropion
Q2) Several weeks after beginning drug therapy, a man experiences impotence, Erectile dysfunction, And impaired ejaculation. Which agent is most likely responsible for these adverse effects?
A) lithium
B) bupropion
C) sertraline
D) risperidone
E) desipramine
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Chapter 23: Opioid Analgesics and Antagonists
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Sample Questions
Q1) The analgesic effect of tramadol is partly attributed to which action?
A) inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis
B) activation of descending inhibitory pathways
C) activation of 2-adrenoceptors in the spinal cord
D) depletion of substance P from afferent neurons
E) partial agonist activity at kappa opioid receptors
Q2) Which adverse effect may result from administration of buprenorphine to a man who is illicitly taking oxycodone?
A) hypertensive crisis
B) cardiac arrest
C) opioid withdrawal reaction
D) malignant hyperthermia
E) apnea due to depression of respiratory centers
Q3) Chronic administration of meperidine should be avoided for which reason?
A) greater risk of drug dependence than with other opioids
B) auto-induction of drug metabolism enzymes
C) development of pharmacodynamic drug tolerance
D) increased suicidal ideations
E) accumulation of a toxic metabolite
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Drugs for Neurodegenerative Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Severe hypomobility ("freezing") reactions in advanced Parkinson's disease may respond rapidly after injection of which drug?
A) apomorphine
B) dopamine
C) ropinirole
D) benztropine
E) tizanidine
Q2) Which action is responsible for the therapeutic effects of entacapone?
A) inhibition of monoamine oxidase-type B
B) stimulation of levodopa decarboxylation
C) decreased formation of 3-O-methyldopa
D) increased uptake of dopamine into the brain
E) increased release of dopamine from neurons
Q3) Memantine is believed to benefit persons with Alzheimer's disease because of its ability to exert which action?
A) inhibit neurotransmitter degradation
B) increase neurotransmitter degradation
C) block neurotransmitter receptors
D) activate neurotransmitter receptors
E) block neurotransmitter reuptake
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Chapter 25: Drugs of Abuse
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Q1) The neuronal effects of -tetrahydrocannabinol are believed to result from activation of receptors that are coupled with which cellular effect?
A) sodium channel activation
B) calcium channel activation
C) inhibition of adenylyl cyclase
D) inhibition of guanylyl cyclase
E) synthesis of inositol triphosphate
Q2) Which statement most accurately describes prescription drug abuse?
A) a growing problem associated with significant morbidity and mortality
B) incidence has decreased over the past two decades
C) rarely leads to emergency department visits or accidental overdose
D) the leading cause of accidental death in the United States
E) primarily due to overprescribing by physicians and nurse practitioners
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27
Chapter 26: Autacoid Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which orally administered agent improves exercise capacity in persons with pulmonary artery hypertension?
A) epoprostenol
B) bosentan
C) treprostinil
D) sildenafil
E) dinoprostone
Q2) A woman complains of sedation after taking a second-generation antihistamine in the morning. Which drug is most likely responsible for this side effect?
A) fexofenadine
B) desloratadine
C) loratadine
D) cetirizine
E) astemizole
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28
Chapter 27: Drugs for Respiratory Tract Disorders
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Q1) By which mechanism does tiotropium improve respiratory function in patients with emphysema?
A) increasing levels of cyclic AMP in smooth muscle
B) inhibiting vagally mediated bronchoconstriction
C) improving diaphragmatic function and ventilation
D) stimulation of brainstem respiratory centers
E) improving mucociliary clearance
Q2) Dextromethorphan is the most widely used antitussive drug because of which attribute?
A) does not bind to opioid receptors
B) full agonist at opioid receptors
C) partial agonist at opioid receptors
D) antagonist at opioid receptors
E) little effect on the central nervous system
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Chapter 28: Drugs for Gastrointestinal Tract Disorders
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Q1) By which mechanism does lubiprostone relieve some cases of severe idiopathic constipation?
A) blockade of serotonin 5-HT3 receptors
B) activation of serotonin 5-HT4 receptors
C) inhibition of fluid reabsorption in the colon
D) stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system
E) activation of chloride channels
Q2) Blockade of which receptors is responsible for the antiemetic effect of aprepitant?
A) histamine H1
B) serotonin 5-HT<sub>3</sub>
C) muscarinic acetylcholine M1
D) dopamine D2
E) neurokinin NK1
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Chapter 29: Drugs for Headache Disorders
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Q1) Which agent might be used for termination of migraine headache in a woman with coronary artery disease?
A) sumatriptan
B) tramadol
C) valproate
D) dihydroergotamine
E) propranolol
Q2) A 1-month drug-free interval every 6 months is required for patients taking methysergide in order to prevent which adverse effect?
A) heart valve fibrosis
B) intermittent claudication
C) pulmonary hypertension
D) cardiac ischemia
E) serotonin syndrome
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Chapter 30: Drugs for Pain, Inflammation, and Arthritic Disorders
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Q1) Leflunomide prevents leukocyte proliferation by inhibiting which step in this process?
A) formation of active folate
B) pyrimidine biosynthesis
C) purine biosynthesis
D) ribonucleotide reductase
E) DNA polymerase
Q2) Administration of allopurinol produces which effect on serum and urinary levels of uric acid in a patient with gout?
A) increased serum and urinary levels
B) increased serum and decreased urinary levels
C) decreased serum levels and no change in urinary levels
D) decreased serum and urinary levels
E) decreased serum and increased urinary levels
Q3) Abatacept exerts its antirheumatic effects by binding to which molecular target?
A) interleukin-1 type I receptor
B) tumor necrosis factor-
C) cell surface proteins of T lymphocytes
D) immunoglobulin G rheumatoid factor
E) interleukin-2 transcription factors
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Chapter 31: Hypothalamic and Pituitary Drugs
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Q1) Desmopressin is often preferred for treating diabetes insipidus for which reason?
A) convenient once daily oral administration
B) relieves nocturnal enuresis in most patients
C) causes more vasoconstriction than vasopressin
D) It is a potent inhibitor of adenylyl cyclase.
E) selectively activates vasopressin V1 receptors
Q2) Which agent is most likely to cause an up-regulation of gonadotropin-releasing hormone receptors during long-term administration of the drug?
A) abarelix
B) gonadorelin
C) leuprolide
D) chorionic gonadotropin
E) nafarelin
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33
Chapter 32: Thyroid Drugs
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Q1) Which agent is preferred for controlling symptoms of hyperthyroidism prior to administration of radioactive iodine (¹³¹I)?
A) methimazole
B) propylthiouracil
C) propranolol
D) potassium iodide
E) lithium carbonate
Q2) Which drug causes the most rapid decline in circulating thyroid hormones in persons with thyrotoxicosis?
A) methimazole
B) propylthiouracil
C) propranolol
D) potassium iodide
E) radioactive iodine (131I)
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Chapter 33: Adrenal Steroids and Related Drugs
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Q1) Which drug action prevents precocious sexual development in boys being treated for congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
A) suppression of corticotropin secretion
B) activation of adrenal steroid receptors
C) stimulation of adrenal 11- -hydroxylase
D) stimulation of adrenal 21-hydroxylase
E) inhibition androgen pathway enzymes
Q2) A patient is treated with a drug that increases expression of genes encoding sodium channels and the sodium-potassium ATPase. Which effect will result from this action?
A) increased free water clearance
B) increased sodium excretion
C) increased potassium excretion
D) increased calcium excretion
E) increased aldosterone secretion
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35
Chapter 34: Drugs Affecting Fertility and Reproduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) A postmenopausal woman is placed on a drug that inhibits aromatase. This treatment will decrease serum levels of which hormone?
A) androstenedione
B) estrone
C) follicle-stimulating hormone
D) progesterone
E) dehydroepiandrosterone
Q2) Administration of a progestin causes which effect on pulses of gonadotropin-releasing hormone secretion?
A) decreased amplitude of pulses
B) decreased frequency of pulses
C) increased frequency and amplitude of pulses
D) decreased frequency and amplitude of pulses
E) increased frequency and decreased amplitude of pulses
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Chapter 35: Drugs for Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) After skipping a meal, a diabetic woman experiences a hypoglycemic reaction. Which drug is most likely responsible for this effect?
A) metformin
B) sitagliptin
C) pioglitazone
D) acarbose
E) glipizide
Q2) A patient is placed on a drug that has the same effects as glucagon-like peptide-1. Which adverse effect has been associated with this drug?
A) hyperglycemia
B) hypoglycemia
C) weight gain
D) pancreatitis
E) heart failure
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Chapter 36: Drugs Affecting Calcium and Bone
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Sample Questions
Q1) Strontium may have role in preventing osteoporosis because of its ability to produce which effect?
A) increased calcium absorption
B) decreased calcium excretion
C) increased formation of osteoblasts
D) increased parathyroid hormone secretion
E) decreased parathyroid hormone secretion
Q2) Patients who are taking both calcium and alendronate to prevent osteoporosis should be advised to take these drugs in which way?
A) separately on alternate days
B) separately at least 2 hours apart
C) separately with different meals
D) together at the same time each day
E) together at bedtime
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Chapter 37: Principles of Antimicrobial Chemotherapy
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Q1) Which class of antibiotics is most often used for prophylaxis of surgical infections?
A) penicillins
B) aminoglycosides
C) tetracyclines
D) cephalosporins
E) fluoroquinolones
Q2) Oseltamivir is used for prophylaxis of which infection during an outbreak of the disease?
A) influenza
B) tuberculosis
C) malaria
D) meningococcal meningitis
E) whooping cough
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Chapter 38: Inhibitors of Bacterial Cell Wall Synthesis
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Q1) Which attribute is associated with a third-generation cephalosporin that is excreted primarily in the bile?
A) well absorbed from the gut
B) long plasma half-life
C) used to treat Pseudomonas infections
D) may cause platelet dysfunction and bleeding
E) prolongs the QT interval of the electrocardiogram
Q2) A woman is dispensed a single dose of a drug for a urinary tract infection. Which step in bacterial cell wall synthesis is inhibited by this drug?
A) transpeptidase
B) addition of phosphoenolpyruvate
C) formation of N-acetylglucosamine
D) incorporation of D-alanine residues
E) formation of pentaglycine bridge
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Chapter 39: Inhibitors of Bacterial Protein Synthesis
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Q1) Which agent used to treat infections caused by drug-resistant gram-positive cocci has caused myalgia and arthralgia in some persons?
A) quinupristin-dalfopristin
B) daptomycin
C) linezolid
D) tigecycline
E) spectinomycin
Q2) A woman develops an allergic reaction after being treated for a superficial ocular infection. Which agent is most likely responsible for this adverse effect?
A) polymyxin
B) azithromycin
C) neomycin
D) bacitracin
E) chloramphenicol
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Chapter 40: Quinolones, Antifolate Drugs, and Other
Antimicrobial Agents
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Q1) Ciprofloxacin should be taken 2 hours before or after taking nutritional supplements containing which ingredient?
A) folic acid
B) vitamin C
C) potassium
D) iron
E) vitamin D
Q2) Which antimicrobial agent prevents the formation of supercoils in circular bacterial DNA?
A) daptomycin
B) nitrofurantoin
C) polymyxin
D) trimethoprim
E) moxifloxacin
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Chapter 41: Antimycobacterial Drugs
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Q1) Rifabutin is usually combined with which other drugs in the treatment of Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare infections?
A) isoniazid and ethambutol
B) ethambutol and clarithromycin
C) clarithromycin and dapsone
D) clofazimine and pyrazinamide
E) thalidomide and clofazimine
Q2) The efficacy of clofazimine is partly due to its ability to alter the activity of which type of cells?
A) erythrocytes
B) platelets
C) leukocytes
D) epithelial cells
E) fibroblasts
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43
Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
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Q1) A patient is placed on a drug that inhibits synthesis of -(1,3)-D-glucan. Which infection is most likely being treated?
A) cryptococcal meningitis
B) tinea capitis
C) sporotrichosis
D) Candida krusei infection
E) Histoplasma capsulatum infection
Q2) A woman experiences hypopigmented and hyperpigmented macules on her upper body. Which agent is applied topically treat this condition?
A) flucytosine
B) ciclopirox
C) fluconazole
D) caspofungin
E) posaconazole
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44
Chapter 43: Antiviral Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A man receives a drug that binds cations essential for the catalytic activity of an enzyme required for HIV replication. Which step is blocked by this drug?
A) viral maturation and release
B) interaction of the viral enzyme and host cell DNA
C) insertion of glycoprotein 41 into host cell membranes
D) formation of a DNA copy of viral RNA
E) binding of glycoprotein 120 to CD4 antigen
Q2) A woman is placed on a drug that binds HIV reverse transcriptase and is being monitored for drug-induced neuropsychiatric reactions. This drug should not be taken by persons with which condition?
A) cardiac arrhythmia
B) hypercholesterolemia
C) pancreatitis
D) pregnancy
E) diabetic neuropathy
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Chapter 44: Antiparasitic Drugs
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Q1) The acute phase of which disease may be shortened by administration of nifurtimox and interferon gamma?
A) visceral leishmaniasis
B) African sleeping sickness
C) onchocerciasis
D) cutaneous larva migrans
E) American trypanosomiasis
Q2) Which antiprotozoal agent inhibits enzymes involved in glycolipid metabolism in sensitive organisms?
A) nitazoxanide
B) paromomycin
C) miltefosine
D) tinidazole
E) mefloquine
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Chapter 45: Antineoplastic and Immunomodulating Drugs
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Q1) A woman is placed on a drug that colors the urine red. Which agent has been used to protect against the cardiac toxicity caused by this drug?
A) mesna
B) mannitol
C) leucovorin
D) dexrazoxane
E) sodium thiosulfate
Q2) Which drug reduces the supply of 5,10-methylene-tetrahydrofolate and thereby prevents formation of deoxythymidine monophosphate?
A) mercaptopurine
B) cytarabine
C) fluorouracil
D) hydroxyurea
E) methotrexate
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