Physiology is the scientific study of the mechanisms and processes that enable living organisms to function, from cellular processes to the intricate interactions among organ systems. This course explores fundamental concepts such as homeostasis, cellular physiology, neural and hormonal regulation, cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, digestive, and musculoskeletal functions, and how these systems are integrated to maintain health. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and case studies, students will gain a comprehensive understanding of the normal biological functions essential to life and how dysfunctions can lead to disease.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology An Integrated Approach 7th Edition by Silverthorn
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a buffer zone between the outside world and most of the cells of the body?
A) cell membrane
B) red blood cells
C) intracellular fluid
D) extracellular fluid
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) List all of the errors in Figure 1.1.
Answer: 1.The units of concentration are labeled as M when they should be mg.
2.The x-axis is in decreasing order of concentration.
3.The graph needs a legend.
Q3) Referring to Figure 1.2, at approximately what age do men begin to show higher systolic blood pressures than women? At what age does this trend reverse?
Answer: From age 10 to 40, male pressures are higher; after age 40, female pressures are higher.
Q4) Referring to Table 1.2, what general trend in systolic blood pressures is seen as both men and women increase in age?
Answer: The systolic pressure of both genders increases with advancing age.
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Chapter 2: Molecular Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of these statements about carbohydrates are True EXCEPT one.Identify the exception.
A) Simple sugars include galactose, glucose, and ribose.
B) Cellulose is the most abundant polysaccharide on earth.
C) Glycogen is a storage polysaccharide made by animal cells.
D) Polysaccharides are important both for energy storage and to provide structure to cells.
E) Glycogen is important both for energy storage and to provide structure for cells. Answer: E
Q2) Explain the polar character of an ammonia molecule (NH ).What is the cause of the partial charges? What is the overall charge for NH ?
Answer: When chemically bonded with each other, the nitrogen atom is partially negative whereas the hydrogen atoms are partially positive.The nitrogen atom in a molecule of ammonia has a stronger attraction for the electrons participating in the covalent bonds than the hydrogen atoms.The net charge on the molecule is still zero, however.
Q3) Solutions are formed with water and ________ solutes which dissolve in them.
Answer: hydrophilic
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Chapter 3: Compartmentation: Cells and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurons in the CNS of the adult don't contain centrioles.What does that tell you about CNS neurons?
A) They don't produce any products.
B) It doesn't tell you much of anything.
C) They don't replicate themselves.
D) They don't carry nerve impulses.
Answer: C
Q2) Close examination of an organ reveals a lining of several layers of cells.The layers do not contain any blood vessels, and one surface of the cells faces the internal cavity of the organ.This tissue is probably
A) epithelium.
B) muscle tissue.
C) connective tissue.
D) neural tissue.
E) fat tissue.
Answer: A
Q3) Only totipotent stem cells are capable of producing new cells in an adult.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Energy and Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) During starvation, steroid hormones trigger the transcription of genes for lipid metabolism in their target cells.This would be an example of control by A) negative feedback.
B) positive feedback.
C) repressors.
D) inducers.
E) alternative splicing.
Q2) Some diseases, such as phenylketonuria, classical hemophilia, cystic fibrosis, and muscular dystrophy are a result of enzyme malfunction.Each of these diseases is inherited.Explain how there might be a relationship among these observations.
Q3) dehydratase
A)oxidoreductase
B)hydrolase
C)transferase
D)ligase
E)Lyase
Q4) The electron transport system is located in the ________ and includes enzymes and iron-containing proteins known as ________.
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Chapter 5: Membrane Dynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the purpose of having both the reversible GLUT transporters as well as the SGLT transporters in the body.
Q2) Na enters the cell
A)resting membrane potential
B)hyperpolarization
C)depolarization
D)repolarization
E)more than one of the answers
Q3) conform(s)to the properties of specificity, competition, and saturation
A)simple diffusion
B)facilitated diffusion
C)both
D)Neither
Q4) The ion that plays a key role in initiating electrical signals in neurons is
A) K .
B) Na .
C) Cl .
D) Ca² .
Q5) Describe the distribution of water in the body's fluid compartments.
Q6) Name two ways the selectivity of a channel is determined.
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Chapter 6: Communication, Integration, and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important factor determining which type of receptor a signal molecule will bind to is
A) the lipid solubility of the ligand.
B) the size of the ligand.
C) the size of the receptor molecule.
D) the location of the receptor molecule.
Q2) An intracellular signal molecule that translates a signal from a neurotransmitter or hormone into an intracellular response is called a ________.
Q3) The most significant difference between a paracrine and an autocrine is
A) the cell that releases it.
B) the cell that responds to it.
C) the method of transport.
D) the route of transport.
E) There are no differences-they are the same.
Q4) Explain how epinephrine can cause intestinal blood vessels to constrict and cause skeletal muscle blood vessels to dilate.
Q5) What is an orphan receptor?
Q6) Compare and contrast neural and endocrine control.
Q7) Explain the two forms of down-regulation.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The outer layer of the adrenal gland is called the ________.
Q2) What normally stops hormone action, and why is this important?
Q3) lipophobic molecule that interacts with receptors on cell surface
A)peptide hormone
B)steroid hormone
C)amino acid-derived hormone
D)anterior pituitary
E)hypothalamus
F)posterior pituitary
Q4) There are two forms of diabetes: diabetes mellitus (lack of insulin regulation of cellular uptake of glucose)and diabetes insipidus (lack of regulation of water loss in the urine by the hormone antidiuretic hormone or ADH).In each case, there are two similar explanations for the resulting pathology.What are they? (Hint: Consider general principles of hormone action.)
Q5) A cell's or tissue's response to a hormone primarily depends on ________ and ________.
Q6) Describe the classic steps for identifying an endocrine gland.Are these steps practical for identifying the sources of all the hormones we know of today? Explain.
Q7) The term for two hormones that have additive effects is ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Neurons: Cellular and Network Properties
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary problem in hyperkalemia is
A) that neurons are harder to excite because their resting potential is hyperpolarized.
B) that neurons are hyperexcitable because their resting potential is closer to threshold.
C) that neurons respond too quickly to smaller graded potentials.
D) neurons are harder to excite because their resting potential is hyperpolarized and neurons respond too quickly to smaller graded potentials.
E) neurons are hyperexcitable because their resting potential is closer to threshold and neurons respond too quickly to smaller graded potentials.
Q2) If a stimulating electrode is placed in the middle of a resting axon and an above-threshold voltage is applied to the electrode action potentials A) will not occur.
B) will start at that point and proceed only toward the axon terminal.
C) will start at that point and proceed only toward the cell body.
D) will start at that point and travel in both directions in the axon.
Q3) Use the Nernst equation to predict the membrane potential for each ion.
Q4) What causes a graded potential to degrade?
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Chapter 9: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is a legend about an autopsy having been performed on a space alien in New Mexico, many decades ago.Assuming that this alien was as well-educated and trained on its planet as NASA educates and trains astronauts on Earth, what feature would be expected in the alien's brain?
A) a system of fluid-filled cavities deep in the brain
B) a thick band of fibers connecting right and left hemispheres
C) an enlarged area with surface grooves and folds
D) at least 12 pairs of cranial nerves
E) glandular structures resembling the pineal and pituitary
Q2) Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the
A) choroid plexus.
B) arachnoid villi.
C) frontal sinuses.
D) pia mater.
E) ventricles.
Q3) Define implicit and explicit memory.
Q4) corpus callosum
A)structure is composed of gray matter
B)structure is composed of white matter
Q5) Describe the phases of a normal sleep cycle.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Sensory Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A structure that allows the middle ear to communicate with the nasopharynx is the A) pinna.
B) membranous labyrinth.
C) bony labyrinth.
D) eustachian tube.
E) auditory meatus.
Q2) ________ ganglion cells transmit information about texture, while ________ ganglion cells transmit information about movement.
Q3) When G lf is activated, which of the following steps in the olfactory cells contribute to their depolarization?
A) increases in adenylate cyclase only
B) increases in cAMP concentrations only
C) increases in the closure of cAMP gated cation channels only
D) increases in adenylate cyclase activity and cAMP concentrations
E) increases in adenylate cyclase activity, cAMP concentrations and closure of cAMP gated cation channels
Q4) Provide three reasons for the greater visual acuity at the fovea.
Q5) Gustatory receptors are clustered in individual ________.
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Chapter 11: Efferent Division: Autonomic and Somatic Motor Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain what is meant by antagonistic control.
Q2) The ________ is the major source of parasympathetic output.
Q3) Each of these statements is True EXCEPT one.Identify the exception.
A) Monoamine oxidase is the main enzyme responsible for the degradation of catecholamines.
B) receptors respond equally well to both epinephrine and norepinephrine.
C) receptors are not innervated by sympathetic neurons, so are more sensitive to epinephrine, delivered via the blood.
D) Activation of receptors opens Na channels in the membrane.
Q4) On average, one preganglionic neuron synapses with eight or nine postganglionic neurons, each innervating a different target.
A)True only for the sympathetic division
B)True only for the parasympathetic division
C)True for both divisions
Q5) The cell bodies of preganglionic neurons are found either in the brain stem or in the sacral region of the spinal cord.
A)True only for the sympathetic division
B)True only for the parasympathetic division
C)True for both divisions
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Chapter 12: Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order for the bicep muscle to shorten, the force applied by the muscle must be ________ the load applied at the hand.
A) greater than
B) less than
C) equal to
Q2) When a skeletal muscle generates enough force during contraction to shorten,
A) only the sarcomere will shorten.
B) only the A band will shorten.
C) only the I band will shorten.
D) the sarcomere and the I band will shorten.
E) the sarcomere, the A band, and the I band will shorten.
Q3) Which fibers generate more force?
A) fast-twitch fibers
B) slow-twitch fibers
Q4) A construction worker entered the emergency room after an accident in which his leg was crushed by falling beams.A color of the urine sample is noticeably reddish brown.Assuming that color is related to the accident, what molecule could have been released from the damaged muscle cells that colored the urine? What is the function of this molecule?
Q5) Store-operated calcium channels open in response to ________.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Integrative Physiology I: Control of Body Movement
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ________ reflex has at least one interneuron placed between the sensory and motor neuron.
Q2) It is the middle of winter and you walk over an icy patch and lose your balance.As you begin to fall, you react by extending your arms to catch yourself.In this instance, what type of reflex is occurring?
A) stretch reflex
B) tendon reflex
C) flexor reflex
D) crossed extensor reflex
E) reciprocal reflex
Q3) our experiences tell us how to behave; bracing yourself in anticipation would be an example
A)somatic
B)autonomic
C)spinal
D)cranial
E)innate
F)acquired
G)polysynaptic
Q4) Most reflexes are regulated by ________.
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Chapter 14: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical term for heart attack is
A) heart failure.
B) myocardial infarction.
C) heart murmur.
D) fibrillation.
E) heart block.
Q2) Which of the following events result in the first heart sound?
A) The AV valves open.
B) The AV valves close.
C) The semilunar valves close.
D) The semilunar valves open.
E) The atria contract.
Q3) ventricular repolarization
A)P wave
B)QRS complex
C)T wave
D)PR segment
E)ST segment
Q4) Draw a diagram of the excitation-contraction coupling and relaxation in cardiac muscles.
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Chapter 15: Blood Flow and the Control of Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term for chronically elevated blood pressure is ________.
Q2) Define and describe the mechanism of myogenic autoregulation.
Q3) If cardiac output increases and resistance in arterioles does NOT change, what happens to arterial blood pressure?
A) increases
B) decreases
C) is unchanged
Q4) Reactive hyperemia is triggered by
A) local accumulation of paracrines due to reduced blood flow.
B) reflex contraction of smooth muscle following a period of dilation.
C) stress and the hormones released during stress.
D) toxins or allergens, such as bee venom or pollen.
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q5) Each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance EXCEPT one.Identify the exception.
A) increased sympathetic stimulation
B) elevated levels of epinephrine
C) vasodilation
D) irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques
E) factors that cause increased hematocrit
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excess iron in the body is
A) stored in bones.
B) eliminated in the feces.
C) stored in fatty tissues.
D) found in white blood cells.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q2) The function of hemoglobin is to
A) carry oxygen.
B) protect the body against infectious agents.
C) aid in the process of blood clotting.
D) carry nutrients from the intestine to the body's cells.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Thrombopoietin is produced in the A) liver only.
B) kidney only.
C) spleen only.
D) bone marrow only.
E) liver and kidney.
Q4) Blood is approximately ________% plasma by volume.
Q5) What is the difference between hemostasis and homeostasis, or are they the same?
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Chapter 17: Mechanics of Breathing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Air moves out of the lungs because
A) the gas pressure in the lungs is less than outside pressure.
B) the volume of the lungs decreases with expiration.
C) the thorax is muscular.
D) contraction of the diaphragm increases the volume of the pleural cavity.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q2) the sum of all the lung volumes
A)total lung capacity
B)inspiratory capacity
C)vital capacity
D)functional residual capacity
Q3) Air flows into lungs because of ________ created by ________.
Q4) Pulmonary ventilation refers to the
A) movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
C) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the interstitial space.
D) movement of dissolved gases from the interstitial space to the cells.
E) utilization of oxygen.
Q5) An increase in the rate and depth of breathing is known as ________.
Q6) The volume of air moved in a single respiration is called the ________.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Gas Exchange and Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain how oxygen and carbon dioxide are transported in the blood.How does the means of transport relate to the solubility and chemical reactivity of these gases in plasma?
Q2) What are the three ways CO is transported in blood? Approximately what percentage is transported by each way?
Q3) Hemoglobin binds to and has a much higher affinity for carbon monoxide (CO)than for oxygen.CO is colorless and odorless and can be produced in homes heated by natural gas; victims usually do not realize they are being poisoned and often die in their sleep.Describe the likely changes in a CO poisoning victim.
Q4) Inappropriate relaxation of the ________ muscles during sleep contributes to ________, a sleep disorder associated with snoring.
Q5) Chronic hypoxia
A) increases 2,3-DPG production in blood.
B) shifts the HbO dissociation curve to the left.
C) can be caused by anemia.
D) increases 2,3-DPG production in blood and can result from anemia.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q6) Generally, PO in arterial blood is ________ than PO in venous blood.
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Chapter 19: The Kidneys
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Sample Questions
Q1) The percentage of total plasma volume that filters is called the ________.
Q2) Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed by A) diffusion.
B) symport with sodium.
C) cotransport.
D) countertransport.
Q3) Trace a drop of water through the urinary system, beginning with the plasma in the renal artery.
Q4) The primary function of the proximal tubule is A) filtration.
B) reabsorption of ions, organic molecules, and water.
C) secretion of acids and ammonia.
D) secretion of drugs.
E) adjusting the urine volume.
Q5) The Bowman's capsule and glomerulus make up the A) renal pyramid.
B) loop of Henle.
C) renal corpuscle.
D) renal papilla.
E) collecting system.
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Chapter 20: Integrative Physiology II: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Granular cells secrete
A) angiotensinogen.
B) angiotensin I.
C) aldosterone.
D) renin.
E) angiotensin converting enzyme.
Q2) The primary osmoreceptors are located in the A) pons.
B) kidney.
C) stomach.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla.
Q3) Symptoms of low plasma pH may include
A) CNS depression only.
B) confusion and disorientation only.
C) numbness, tingling, or muscle twitches only.
D) CNS depression and confusion and disorientation.
E) CNS depression; confusion and disorientation; and numbness, tingling, or muscle twitches.
Q4) How do kidneys alter urine concentration?
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Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion?
A) stomach
B) pancreas
C) spleen
D) colon
E) esophagus
Q2) Which of the following statements is True?
A) A basolateral GLUT5 transporter moves glucose out of the intestinal epithelial cell.
B) Fructose moves across the apical membrane by active transport.
C) Glucose and galactose use different transporters in absorption.
D) Glucose and galactose absorption uses an apical Na -glucose SGLT symporter.
E) None of the statements are True.
Q3) A drug that blocks the action of the hormone cholecystokinin would affect
A) the amount of bile produced by the liver.
B) pancreatic secretions.
C) the level of intestinal gastrin.
D) secretions of the duodenal glands.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q4) What would be the nutritional consequence of excessive antacid use?
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energy Balance
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Q1) The crew of an ocean-going racing sailboat must adhere to strict weight limits for both their bodies and the food they eat, yet their activity levels are very high, and weather conditions may vary to extreme cold, so they must consume many kilocalories.What kinds of nutrient-dense foods can you suggest to them to bring? In general, what type of energy nutrient should they choose to consume?
Q2) The liver and skeletal muscles store glucose as ________ for a ready energy source.
A) lipids
B) glucose
C) glycogen
D) urea
E) ketone bodies
Q3) Drugs used to treat diabetes may
A) stimulate beta-cell secretion of insulin.
B) stimulate digestion and absorption of carbohydrates in the intestine.
C) stimulate hepatic glucose output.
D) decrease responsiveness of target tissue to insulin.
E) None of these answers are correct.
Q4) Describe anorexia nervosa and diabetes mellitus, and how they resemble each other.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Endocrine Control of Growth and Metabolism
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Q1) Structurally similar steroids sometimes bind to the same receptor, producing ________ effects.
Q2) may result from a pituitary tumor
A)Addison's disease
B)Cushing's disease
C)Graves' disease
D)Paget's disease
Q3) Describe the hypothalamic-pituitary-endocrine organ pathways for the adrenal cortex and thyroid gland.Do releasing and/or trophic hormones exert effects outside this pathway? Explain.
Q4) hypercortisolism
A)Addison's disease
B)Cushing's disease
C)Graves' disease
D)Paget's disease
Q5) Describe the endocrine regulation of bone growth.
Q6) List four factors that affect normal body growth.
Q7) GH stimulates the secretion of ________ from the liver and other tissue.This hormone has ________ feedback effect on growth hormone secretion.
25
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Chapter 24: The Immune System
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Q1) Diffuse lymphoid tissue includes A) tonsils.
B) GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue).
C) the spleen.
D) tonsils and GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue).
E) tonsils, GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue), and the spleen.
Q2) Meghan thinks she has an abscessed tooth.If she does, what type of white blood cell would you expect to see in elevated numbers in a differential count?
A) neutrophils
B) eosinophils
C) basophils
D) lymphocytes
E) monocytes
Q3) present in breast milk
A)IgA
B)IgM
C)IgG
D)IgD
E)IgE
Q4) Draw a concept map illustrating the immune response to bacterial infection.
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Chapter 25: Integrative Physiology III: Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the normal baroreceptor reflex absent during exercise?
Q2) Athletes with chronic energy deficit (energy output > energy intake)tend to have high levels of cortisol.Do you expect their immune systems would be better than those who are sedentary? Explain.
Q3) EPOC is
A) excess physiological oxygen contribution.
B) extra phosphorylated oxygenated creatine.
C) excess postexercise oxygen consumption.
D) exercising physiological oxygen consumption.
E) extraneous preoxygen contribution.
Q4) Which of the following best explains why exercise can help reduce the necessity for insulin use in people with type II diabetes mellitus?
A) Exercise upregulates insulin receptors.
B) Exercise uses up blood sugar before its levels can become elevated.
C) Exercise reduces cortisol levels.
D) Exercise doesn't help type II diabetes.
Q5) Why and how does intracellular K become depleted with exercise?
Q6) Discuss changes in the cardiovascular and pulmonary systems that result from conditioning for exercise.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) human chorionic gonadotropin
A)Leydig cells
B)granulosa cells
C)corpus luteum
D)placenta
Q2) A zygote with the genotype YO will
A) develop into a male.
B) develop into a female.
C) have Turner's syndrome.
D) have Kleinfelter's syndrome.
E) die.
Q3) The structure that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra is the
A) ductus deferens.
B) rete testis.
C) seminal vesicle.
D) ejaculatory duct.
E) corpus cavernosum.
Q4) List and discuss three to five different methods of contraception, including at least one barrier method and one hormonal treatment.
Q5) Explain how modern birth control pills work as contraceptives.
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