Physiology and Pharmacology Practice Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of human physiology and the fundamental principles of pharmacology. Students will examine the normal functioning of major organ systems, including the nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, renal, and endocrine systems. The pharmacology component covers mechanisms of drug action, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, and the therapeutic and adverse effects of key drug classes. Emphasis is placed on understanding how physiological processes are influenced by pharmacological agents and how this knowledge is applied in medical and clinical practice. Through lectures, case studies, and laboratory exercises, students will develop the critical thinking skills necessary to integrate physiological concepts with pharmacological interventions for the maintenance of health and treatment of disease.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pharmacology 2nd Edition by Workman
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32 Chapters
1305 Verified Questions
1305 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Drug Regulation, Actions, and Responses
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient tells you that she is allergic to the drug her health care provider just prescribed.What is your best first response or action?
A) Ask her to describe the allergic response she had previously to this drug.
B) Ask her whether she received the drug she was allergic to by mouth or by injection.
C) Thank her for the information and ask the health care provider to prescribe something else.
D) Tell her that the health care provider will also prescribe an antidote that will prevent an allergic response to the prescribed drug.
Answer: A
Q2) Which health care professional has the major responsibility for dispensing prescribed drugs under the direction of a pharmacist?
A) Physician
B) Nurse practitioner
C) Licensed nurse
D) Pharmacy technician
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Safely Preparing and Giving Drugs
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which technique is used with some intramuscular drug injections but not with subcutaneous or intradermal drug injections?
A) Ensuring the site selected is appropriate for injection
B) Cleansing the selected site before inserting the needle
C) Aspirating the syringe before injecting the drug solution
D) Checking for allergic or sensitivity reactions to the injection
Answer: C
Q2) The prescriber orders a new drug over the telephone for a nursing home patient who has symptoms of a urinary tract infection.The order is for Gantanol,2 g now and then 1 g every 12 hours for the next 10 days.What further information is most important for you to obtain from the prescriber?
A) "How many refills are needed?"
B) "Do you want the drug given orally or intravenously?"
C) "Which brand of drug should be given,or is this a generic drug?"
D) "Does this drug need to be given with a meal or on an empty stomach?"
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Mathematics Review and Introduction to Dosage Calculation
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which fraction represents a whole number?
A) 4/20
B) 5/20
C) 10/20
D) 20/20
Answer: D
Q2) A patient is prescribed 2000 units of heparin subcutaneously.The drug on hand is heparin 5000 units/mL.How many milliliters is the correct dose? _____ mL
Answer: 0.4
Want 11ea681a_4366_564a_b611_f3f7bc65f0c3_TB1177_11 ,Have 11ea681a_4366_a46b_b611_e5948b0b4d77_TB1177_11 ; 11ea681a_4366_a46c_b611_07b44b509829_TB1177_11 = 0.4 * 1 mL = 0.4 mL.
Q3) Which statement about an improper fraction is true?
A) It is always greater than 1.
B) It has no lowest common denominator.
C) It cannot be multiplied or divided by another fraction.
D) It can only be multiplied or divided by a whole number.
Answer: A
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Medical Systems of Weights and Measures
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using dimensional analysis,calculate the correct dosage of theophylline 2 mg/kg to give orally to a child who weighs 51 lb.The drug is available as an elixir of 80 mg in 15 mL.Give the answer in mL.
Q2) A patient is prescribed 500 mg of amoxicillin (Amoxil).The amoxicillin on hand is a liquid with a concentration of 250 mg in 5 mL.How many milliliters is the correct dose for this patient?
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50 D) 100
Q3) The prescriber tells a patient to call if a temperature higher than 39° C develops.The patient asks what this temperature is in Fahrenheit.What is your response?
A) 99.2°
B) 100.2°
C) 101.2°
D) 102.2°
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6
Chapter 5: Dosage Calculation of Intravenous Solutions and Drugs
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient's IV is supposed to have a drip rate of 42 gtt/min.You count 8 gtt in 15 seconds.What is your best action?
A) Nothing,the IV flow rate is correct.
B) Increase the drip rate to 10 gtt/15 seconds.
C) Increase the drip rate to 15 gtt/15 seconds.
D) Decrease the drip rate to 6 gtt/15 seconds.
Q2) On an infusion pump,what does the abbreviation "VTBI" indicate?
A) Amount of fluid already infused
B) Amount of fluid remaining in the bag or bottle
C) Total amount of fluid prescribed for the day
D) How fast the infusion should be run
Q3) While examining a patient's peripheral intravenous (IV)site,you observe a red streak along the length of the vein.On palpation,the vein feels hard and cordlike.What is your best action?
A) Check for a blood return and notify the prescriber.
B) Discontinue the infusion and remove the IV needle.
C) Apply ice packs to the vein and continue the infusion.
D) Change the IV fluid to normal saline and redress the site.
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Chapter 6: Anti-Inflammatory Drugs
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been prescribed long-term low-dose prednisone to control inflammation reports concern about the changes in her appearance caused by the drug.What is your best response?
A) "This often happens when an individual takes this drug.You now have Cushing's disease."
B) "When you stop taking this drug,the changes will disappear,but it may take a while."
C) "You can make use of different styles of clothes to minimize changes in appearance."
D) "Changes in your diet and an exercise program will eliminate these changes while you are on this drug."
Q2) Why are corticosteroid drugs usually prescribed for a short period of time?
A) The inflammatory process cannot be controlled with less powerful drugs.
B) Inhalation of corticosteroid drugs causes irreversible damage to the lungs.
C) These drugs work less effectively when given over an extended period.
D) Corticosteroids have many adverse effects and side effects.
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Chapter 7: Drugs for Pain Control
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child who is taking gabapentin (Neurontin)for pain control has begun demonstrating all of the following behaviors.Which behavior represents a common side effect of this drug?
A) Fighting at school
B) Difficulty sleeping
C) Wetting the bed three to four nights per week
D) Crying more frequently for no apparent reason
Q2) You prepare to give a patient the next scheduled dose of an opioid analgesic.The patient arouses easily but the respiratory rate remains at 10 breaths/min.What is your best first action?
A) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber.
B) Hold the dose and apply oxygen by mask or nasal cannula.
C) Check the patient's oxygen saturation and ask about his or her pain level.
D) Call the Rapid Response Team and prepare to administer the prescribed opioid antagonist.
Q3) Which problem is a psychologic response to chronic opioid use?
A) Tolerance
B) Addiction
C) Withdrawal
D) Dependence
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Chapter 8: Anti-Infectives: Antibacterial Drugs
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the term "virulence" mean?
A) Bacteria that do not cause infection or systemic disease
B) How easily a bacterium can be killed by antibiotic therapy
C) How well bacteria can invade and spread within the body
D) How many different types of bacteria an antibiotic can kill
Q2) A patient is prescribed ciprofloxacin (Cipro)500 mg every 8 hours.Which are common side effects of this drug? (select all that apply)
A) Rash
B) Flatulence
C) Muscle pain
D) Photosensitivity
E) Joint pain
Q3) Which question would you be sure to ask a patient after giving any antibacterial drug?
A) "Are you allergic to any foods or medications?"
B) "Have you noticed any changes in your ability to remember things?"
C) "Do you know how to check your blood pressure and heart rate?"
D) "How many bowel movements do you have each day and what are they like?"
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Chapter 9: Anti-Infectives: Antiviral Drugs
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important question to ask before giving the first dose of darunavir to a patient newly prescribed this drug?
A) "Do you have a hearing problem or any trouble with your ears?"
B) "Do you take medications for seizures?"
C) "Are you allergic to sulfa drugs?"
D) "Have you ever had asthma?"
Q2) A 40-year-old patient infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)asks why the new drug maraviroc (Selzentry)is not being prescribed for her.What is your best response?
A) "This drug is very expensive and your insurance may not cover it."
B) "This drug can cause birth defects and should not be prescribed for anyone who is pregnant or might become pregnant."
C) "This drug is very toxic to the heart and lungs.It is prescribed only for patients who are young and have no other health problems."
D) "This drug is not effective against all HIV subtypes and the HIV causing your infection does not have the target for this drug."
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Chapter 10: Anti-Infectives: Antitubercular and Antifungal Drugs
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement made by a patient indicates the need for more teaching about first-line drug therapy for tuberculosis (TB)?
A) "To prevent nausea/vomiting,I have been taking my drugs at night with a small snack."
B) "I have stopped taking all herbal supplements and stopped drinking beer until I finish this drug therapy."
C) "Now that my symptoms have disappeared after a month of drug therapy,I can no longer infect my family."
D) "Now that my symptoms have disappeared after a month of drug therapy,I can stop taking all of these drugs."
Q2) A patient prescribed a systemic antifungal drug reports a change in how food tastes.What is your best action?
A) Document the report as the only action.
B) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber immediately.
C) Caution the patient to wear sunglasses and a hat when outside.
D) Reassure the patient that this is a common side effect of the drug.
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12
Chapter 11: Drugs That Affect the Immune System
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the expected response in an Rh-positive infant who was accidentally injected with RhoGAM?
A) The infant would rapidly develop antibodies to Rh-positive red blood cells.
B) The infant would rapidly develop antibodies to Rh-negative red blood cells.
C) Some of the infant's Rh-positive red blood cells would be destroyed.
D) The infant's blood type would change from Rh-positive to Rh-negative.
Q2) Which antirejection drug belongs to the antiproliferative class?
A) Basiliximab (Simulect)
B) Cyclosporine (Neoral)
C) Mycophenylate (CellCept)
D) Tacrolimus (Prograf)
Q3) With which disorder or organism is a killed vaccine used to trigger immunity?
A) Tetanus
B) Influenza
C) Hepatitis B
D) Human papilloma virus
Q4) A child who weighs 78 lb is prescribed to receive azathioprine (Imuran)2 mg/kg intravenously.The solution available is azathioprine 100 mg/10 mL.How many milliliters will you prepare for a correct dose?
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Chapter 12: Anticancer Drugs
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which health care worker is the most appropriate person to administer intravenous (IV)chemotherapy?
A) Licensed practical/vocational nurse who has worked on an oncology unit for 10 years
B) Registered nurse who has completed menopause 5 years ago and can no longer get pregnant
C) Registered nurse who has completed an approved chemotherapy course
D) Pharmacy technician with 5 years' experience in mixing chemotherapy
Q2) How do most chemotherapy drugs help rid the body of cancer cells?
A) They interfere with cancer cell division.
B) They prevent cancer cells from receiving oxygen.
C) They enhance the immune system's ability to recognize and kill cancer cells.
D) They force cancer cells to undergo reverse transformation to become normal cells.
Q3) Which type of chemotherapy drug causes tissue damage on direct contact?
A) Cyclins
B) Vesicants
C) Biologics
D) Emetogenics
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14
Chapter 13: Drug Therapy for Diabetes
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who has been prescribed sitagliptin (Januvia)calls the clinic and reports swelling of the face,lips,and tongue.What is your best response?
A) "Do not worry,this is a common side effect of the drug and does not require any changes."
B) "Take only half the drug dose and see the prescriber within the next week."
C) "Apply cold compresses to the affected areas and take an aspirin."
D) "Stop taking the drug and call 911."
Q2) Why should you avoid aspirating the syringe before injecting an insulin dose?
A) There are no blood vessels in subcutaneous tissue.
B) The needle is too thin to penetrate the wall of a vein.
C) Tissue can be damaged by pulling it into the needle.
D) Aspirating blood into the syringe affects insulin activity.
Q3) What precaution do you teach a patient who is prescribed to take an oral sulfonylurea agent to maintain control of blood glucose levels?
A) "Change positions slowly."
B) "Stop taking this drug at the first sign of an infection."
C) "Avoid taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs."
D) "Do not skip a dose of the drug even if you are unable to eat."
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15
Chapter 14: Drug Therapy for Thyroid and Adrenal Gland
Problems
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which problem is a side effect of excessive thyroid hormone replacement drugs?
A) Weight gain
B) Hypertension
C) Peripheral neuropathy
D) Increased daytime sleepiness
Q2) What does a goiter indicate?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Thyroid problem
D) Premature menopause
Q3) Which mineral is critical for the thyroid to use in making thyroid hormones?
A) Lithium
B) Sodium
C) Chloride
D) Iodine
Q4) Which drug suppresses thyroid activity?
A) Methimazole (Tapazole)
B) Metolazone (Mykrox)
C) Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
D) Liothyronine (Cytomel)
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Chapter 15: Drugs That Affect Urine Output
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient prescribed a drug for overactive bladder (OAB)tells you that he or she regularly exercises throughout the year.What would you be sure to teach him or her about exercising during summer heat?
A) "When the weather is hot,you are at increased risk for heat stroke."
B) "During summer always exercise early in the day or after the sun goes down."
C) "Exercise will help you lose weight which will help decrease your OAB symptoms."
D) "Be sure to wear disposable pads to absorb any urine that leaks from your bladder while exercising."
Q2) A patient taking a thiazide diuretic has the following blood laboratory values for kidney function.Which value will you report to the prescriber immediately?
A) Sodium 136 mEq/L
B) Potassium 2.6 mEq/L
C) Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
D) Blood urea nitrogen 6 mg/dL
Q3) The adult patient is prescribed 100 mg of hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ [Oretic])in 2 divided doses per day.HCTZ is available on 25 mg tablets.How many tablets per dose will you give the patient?
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Drug Therapy for Hypertension
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do alpha blockers work to lower blood pressure?
A) Preventing clots from forming
B) Promoting water and potassium loss
C) Relaxing blood vessel muscles
D) Reversing atherosclerosis
Q2) Which action or precaution is most important for before giving any type of drug for hypertension?
A) Check the patient's blood pressure.
B) Ensure that the patient is in a sitting position.
C) Check the patient's pulse for regularity.
D) Have the patient drink a full glass of water.
Q3) A patient with hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus is taking carvedilol (Coreg).What special precaution should you teach the patient to take when taking this drug?
A) Check blood pressure in both arms.
B) Keep a strict record of intake and output.
C) Check blood sugar levels regularly.
D) Avoid sugar-containing drinks.
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Chapter 17: Drug Therapy for Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin).The patient reports nausea,blurry vision,and feeling like the heart is skipping beats.What is your best action?
A) Administer the scheduled dose because it will correct these heart failure symptoms.
B) Assess the patient's heart rate and then administer the scheduled dose.
C) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber immediately.
D) Place the patient on complete bed rest.
Q2) The patient is prescribed potassium (K-Dur)tablets 30 mg orally each morning.You have potassium (K-Dur)in 10 mg tablets.How many tablets will you give for each dose?
Q3) A patient with heart failure is prescribed a one-time dose of furosemide (Lasix)400 mg by intravenous (IV)push immediately.What is the best action?
A) Contact the prescriber and request that the dose be changed from IV push to IV piggyback.
B) Give the dose by IV push over a 10-minute period of time.
C) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber immediately.
D) Start an IV and administer the drug as prescribed.
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Chapter 18: Drug Therapy for Dysrhythmias
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48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition is a common side effect of atropine?
A) Urinary retention
B) Loss of appetite
C) Weight gain
D) Difficulty sleeping
Q2) What step must be taken before giving digoxin (Lanoxin)?
A) Measure the size of both ankles.
B) Take the apical pulse for a full minute.
C) Make sure the patient has not eaten for at least an hour.
D) Take the blood pressure in both the right arm and the left arm.
Q3) What dose of atropine is prescribed to be administered via endotracheal tube?
A) The same dose as normal
B) Twice the normal dose
C) Three times the normal dose
D) Four times the normal dose
Q4) Which person is likely to have the lowest resting heart rate?
A) Newborn infant
B) Exercising child
C) Young adult athlete
D) Older adult female
20
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Chapter 19: Drug Therapy for High Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common side effect of nicotinic acid agents?
A) Itching
B) Blurred vision
C) Muscle weakness
D) High blood pressure
Q2) A patient who is prescribed simvastatin (Zocor)asks why liver function tests must be drawn every 6 months.What is your best response?
A) "The tests are important because early liver problems do not cause symptoms."
B) "The tests help your prescriber decide what your dose of simvastatin should be."
C) "The tests tell your prescriber how well your body is responding to the therapy."
D) "The tests indicate how much cholesterol is being produced by your liver."
Q3) What action must you take for a diabetic patient who is prescribed niacin (Niacor)?
A) Give insulin only in the presence of food.
B) Check the blood glucose level more often.
C) Decrease the morning insulin dosage.
D) Encourage increased caloric intake.
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Chapter 20: Drugs That Affect Blood Clotting
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Sample Questions
Q1) What actions are performed when giving a subcutaneous injection of low-molecular-weight heparin? (select all that apply)
A) Position the patient lying down.
B) Expel the air bubble before injection.
C) Insert the needle into a skinfold held between the thumb and forefinger.
D) Release the skinfold then inject the drug.
E) Rub the injection site to avoid bruising.
Q2) Which antiplatelet drug prevents platelet aggregation by blocking a receptor on the surface of platelets?
A) Aspirin
B) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
C) Clopidogrel (Plavix)
D) Dipyridamole
Q3) Which common over-the-counter agent is an antiplatelet drug?
A) Aspirin
B) Tylenol
C) Vitamin C
D) Magnesium
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Chapter 21: Drug Therapy for Asthma and Other Respiratory Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common route used to deliver short-acting beta-adrenergic agonists?
A) Oral
B) Intravenous
C) Transdermal
D) Inhalation
Q2) A 75-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)is prescribed tiotropium (Spiriva),an inhaled drug that must be loaded into a HandiHaler with each dose.The patient has all of the following health problems.For which problem do you suggest to the prescriber that this drug may not be appropriate?
A) Reduced hearing
B) Visual impairment
C) Chronic high blood pressure
D) Arthritis of hands and knees
Q3) Which problem is the main adverse effect of epoprostenol (Flolan)?
A) Impotence
B) Prolonged bleeding
C) Severe hypertension
D) Congestive heart failure
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Chapter 22: Drug Therapy for Gastrointestinal Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are instructing a patient who is experiencing chronic nausea/vomiting,about antiemetic therapy.What is the most important precaution you must teach the patient?
A) "Rinse your mouth frequently to reduce the unpleasant sensation of dry mouth."
B) "Report any constipation lasting 2 days or longer to your prescriber."
C) "Wear sunscreen and protective clothing when going outdoors."
D) "Avoid drinking alcoholic beverages while taking this drug."
Q2) How do osmotic laxatives reduce constipation?
A) They cause retention of fluid in the bowel,increasing the water content in stool.
B) They add bulk to the stool,which increases stool mass that stimulates peristalsis.
C) They soften stool,allowing the stool to mix with fatty substances,making it easier to eliminate.
D) They cause chemical irritation of nerve receptors in the intestinal lining,which then triggers peristalsis.
Q3) A child is prescribed metoclopramide (Reglan)8 mg by oral solution.The available drug solution is 5 mg/5 mL of solution.How many milliliters does the nurse administer?
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Chapter 23: Drug Therapy for Gastric Ulcers and Reflux
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common symptom of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
A) Heartburn
B) Drowsiness
C) Constipation
D) Bloody sputum
Q2) What should you teach a patient about smoking and peptic ulcer disease? (select all that apply)
A) Smoking increases acid secretion.
B) Smoking is not a cause of ulcer formation.
C) Smoking slows ulcer healing.
D) Smoking is related to the reoccurrence of ulcers.
E) Smoking decreases stomach mucus production.
Q3) A 12-year-old child is prescribed a total daily IV dose of ranitidine (Zantac)4 mg/kg/day.The child weighs 110 lb.The total dose is to be divided into four doses to be given every 6 hours.How many milligrams will you give for each dose?
Q4) An adult patient is prescribed esomeprazole magnesium (Nexium)80 mg orally once daily.The pharmacy has esomeprazole magnesium (Nexium)40 mg tablets.How many tablets will you teach the patient to take for each dose?
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25
Chapter 24: Drug Therapy With Nutritional Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement about multivitamins is accurate?
A) Multivitamins are essential organic micronutrients the body needs in small amounts for various roles throughout the human body.
B) Multivitamins are essential micronutrients which are inorganic elements.
C) Multivitamins are preparations that contain several vitamins essential for health.
D) Multivitamins are only water soluble vitamins and trace minerals.
Q2) Which substance should a patient avoid when prescribed a potassium supplement?
A) Table salt
B) Salt substitutes
C) Garlic salt
D) Onion salt
Q3) Which vitamin is essential in preventing blindness?
A) Vitamin D
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin A
D) Vitamin K
Q4) A patient is prescribed to receive 240 mL of the supplemental feeding,Jevity,over 2 hours.At what rate in milliliters per hour will you set the feeding pump?
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Chapter 25: Drug Therapy for Seizures
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newly admitted patient with a seizure disorder is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin)100 mg orally every 8 hours and phenobarbital (Luminal)300 mg orally daily.What is your best action?
A) Remind the prescriber that these two drugs are both types of antiseizure medication.
B) Ensure that the phenobarbital is given as early as possible in the morning.
C) Separate the administration of the two drugs by at least 6 hours.
D) Administer the drugs as prescribed.
Q2) A 13-year-old boy who has a seizure disorder has grown 6 inches and gained 30 lb in the past 8 months.How do you expect these physical changes to affect his antiseizure drug therapy?
A) No change will be needed.
B) The dosage of the antiseizure drugs will probably need to be decreased.
C) The dosage of the antiseizure drugs will probably need to be increased.
D) The antiseizure drugs can be discontinued because it is likely he has outgrown the disorder.
Q3) An infant is prescribed phenobarbital 4 mg/kg in an oral suspension.The infant weighs 11 lb.How many milligrams will you give?
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Chapter 26: Drug Therapy for Alzheimers and Parkinsons Diseases
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Q1) Which problem is a common side effect of donepezil (Aricept)for treatment of Alzheimer's disease?
A) Weight gain
B) Hypertension
C) Constipation
D) Nausea/vomiting
Q2) Which common initial symptom suggests that a patient may be developing Parkinson's disease?
A) Pill-rolling tremor
B) Muscle rigidity
C) Stooped posture
D) Stumble-run walk
Q3) For which patient do you watch most closely for symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?
A) 35-year-old with Down syndrome
B) 50-year-old with a whiplash injury
C) 60-year-old with hypertension
D) 75-year-old with a smoking history
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Drug Therapy for Psychiatric Problems
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Q1) Which precaution is most important to teach a patient who is prescribed any antidepressant drug?
A) "Avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking this drug."
B) "Avoid drinking alcoholic beverages while taking this drug."
C) "Be sure to wear sunscreen and a hat when going outdoors."
D) "Drink at least 3 L of fluid every day while taking this drug."
Q2) A patient who has been prescribed clonazepam (Klonopin)for the last 3 months tells you that he wants to stop this drug because he constantly feels like he is in a "fog." What is your best response?
A) "Quit taking the drug today and I will have the prescriber change your medication to another drug category."
B) "Continue to take this drug as prescribed because most patients eventually get used to the foggy sensation."
C) "We will give you a final dose of this drug today intravenously and then start you on a different drug."
D) "I will contact the prescriber but it will still be necessary to take this drug at a lower dosage for a while."
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Drug Therapy for Insomnia
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Q1) Why is more than one dose of Flumazenil (Romazicon)often needed to reverse a benzodiazepine overdose?
A) It must be administered only by the intravenous route.
B) It depresses the drug metabolizing effects of the liver.
C) It has a shorter duration of action than most benzodiazepines.
D) It must be given in low doses to avoid respiratory depression.
Q2) Which problems are the two most common side effects of drugs for insomnia?
A) Increased bleeding and reduced sense of taste
B) Inability to fall asleep and stay asleep
C) Dry mouth and drowsiness
D) Hiccoughs and diarrhea
Q3) Which symptoms are expected to be seen in a patient with insomnia? (select all that apply)
A) Difficulty falling asleep
B) Sleeping too much
C) Waking often during the night
D) Feeling unrested after sleep
E) Uncontrollable urge to sleep
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Chapter 29: Drug Therapy for Eye Problems
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Q1) Which drug for glaucoma is a beta blocker?
A) Timolol (Timoptic)
B) Travoprost (Travatan)
C) Apraclonidine (Iopidine)
D) Pilocarpine (Adsorbocarpine)
Q2) Which statement made by a patient prescribed drug therapy for glaucoma indicates more teaching is needed?
A) "I am so glad my glaucoma has been cured with bimatoprost (Lumigan)in time to prevent blindness."
B) "I will take care never to touch the tip of the applicator to my eye to prevent infection."
C) "I will only call my doctor for eye redness if it lasts longer than just an hour or two."
D) "I understand that I should wait for my vision to clear once the eye drops are in before I drive the car."
Q3) A patient is prescribed to use 2 gtt of carbachol (Isopto)1.5% solution per eye every 8 hours.The drug comes in a 15 mL bottle and 1 mL = 16 gtt.How many days will the bottle of carbachol last?
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Chapter
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Q1) Which patient is at greater risk for having a severe allergic reaction from an infusion with denosumab (Prolia)?
A) The patient who is also being treated for gastroesophageal reflux disease.
B) The patient who has been taking Prolia every 6 months for 2 years.
C) The patient who is about to receive her first dose of prolia.
D) The patient who has an allergy to peanuts.
Q2) Which action is most important to teach a patient prescribed to take allopurinol (Zyloprim)daily for gout?
A) "Avoid operating heavy machinery."
B) "Drink plenty of water."
C) "Avoid alcohol and caffeine."
D) "Take the drug only when symptoms of gout are present."
Q3) Which action by a skeletal muscle relaxant is the major mechanism of action?
A) Dilating blood vessels in skeletal muscles and reducing the need for contraction.
B) Binding to opioid and serotonin receptors in the brain to induce sleep.
C) Reducing motor nerve impulse transmission to the skeletal muscles.
D) Inhibiting glucose uptake in skeletal muscles.
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Page 32
Chapter 31: Drug Therapy for Male Reproductive Problems
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Q1) You are providing teaching for a patient who is interested in exploring the use of drug therapy for erectile dysfunction.The patient asks how the drugs work.What response is accurate?
A) "The drugs are Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor drugs (PDE-5)that start working in 2 to 4 hours."
B) "Effects of these drugs can last 3 to 5 days or more."
C) "Sexual stimulation is required to achieve an erection."
D) "Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor drugs (PDE-5)cause smooth muscle to constrict to achieve an erection."
Q2) What question should you be sure to ask before administering a dose of tamsulosin (Flomax)to a patient?
A) "Do you have a history of high blood pressure?"
B) "Have you ever had a problem with liver disease?"
C) "Are you allergic to any of the sulfa drugs?"
D) "How often are you sexually active?"
Q3) A patient is prescribed tamsulosin (Flomax)1.2 mg orally once daily 30 minutes after a meal.You have tamsulosin (Flomax)0.4 mg/tablet.How many tablets will you administer?
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Chapter 32: Drug Therapy for Female Reproductive Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does estrogen-based hormone replacement therapy (HRT)reduce perimenopausal symptoms?
A) By inhibiting ovulation and implantation.
B) By making periods more regular and predictable.
C) By inhibiting excessive secretion of follicle stimulating hormone.
D) By increasing the rate of normal involution and menopausal cessation.
Q2) A patient prescribed to take the oral contraceptive with the brand name Ortho Tri-Cyclen asks whether she should stop taking the pill for the 10 days that her husband is out of town on business.What is your best advice?
A) No,this drug's protection against pregnancy requires taking the drug as prescribed. B) No,the hormonal confusion this would cause could result in an increased risk for blood clots.
C) Yes,if you would normally have your period any time during the 10 days that your husband is away.
D) Yes,it is very important that your body experience drug-free period from time to time to ensure optimal drug effect.
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