Physiology and Pharmacology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course offers a comprehensive overview of human physiology and pharmacology, exploring the fundamental processes that govern normal bodily function and the ways in which medications influence these processes. Emphasis is placed on the integration of physiological systems, the mechanisms of drug action, pharmacokinetics, and pharmacodynamics. Students will gain an understanding of how various drugs interact with biological systems to produce therapeutic effects, as well as potential side effects and toxicities. The course combines lectures with practical activities to reinforce core concepts and highlight the clinical relevance of physiology and pharmacology in health and disease management.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 7th Australian Edition by Shane Bullock
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666 Verified Questions
666 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Pharmacology Within the Social Context
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Sample Questions
Q1) From which plant is morphine derived?
A) Erythroxylum coca.
B) Papaver somniferum.
C) Cannabis sativa.
D) Claviceps purpurea.
Answer: B
Q2) Which one of the following statements best defines the term pharmacology?
A) The study of farm ecology.
B) The study of the structure of chemicals.
C) The study of drug formulations and dispensing of medicines.
D) The study of chemicals on physiological systems.
Answer: D
Q3) For clients from culturally and linguistically diverse backgrounds, the health professional should assess
A) the client's beliefs and values.
B) self-treatment by home remedies or concurrent use of traditional medicines with conventional medicines.
C) concerns about drug therapy and/or invasive procedures.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Pharmacology Within the Profesional Context
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following health professionals maintain a person's airway, breathing and circulation in medical emergency situations, and are permitted to administer medicines for chronic and life-threatening conditions?
A) Pharmacist
B) Paramedic
C) Physiotherapist
D) Podiatrist
Answer: B
Q2) After giving a verbal order the doctor must:
A) confirm the verbal order in writing within 48 hours.
B) confirm the verbal order in writing within 24 hours.
C) ensure that the medication is administered by the nurse.
D) ensure that a doctor has co-signed the verbal order.
Answer: B
Q3) Naturopaths may:
A) prescribe any medicines that will have a holistic effect on their client.
B) recommend and dispense doses of herbal, mineral and animal-based products.
C) prescribe Schedule 1-3 medications only.
D) none of the above.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Medicine Administration and Professional
Responsibilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Is it problematic to administer heparin via intramuscular injection?
A) No, intramuscular and subcutaneous administration are both safe and effective.
B) No, as long as the dose is appropriate.
C) Yes, it can cause a haematoma to form.
D) Yes, limited blood flow to skeletal muscles causes reduced bioavailability of the drug.
Answer: C
Q2) The shelf life of glyceryl trinitrate tablets after opening the container is:
A) 80 days.
B) 85 days.
C) 90 days.
D) 100 days.
Answer: C
Q3) Drugs of biological origin such as vaccine preparations need to be stored
A) between 25°C and 37°C.
B) at room temperature.
C) between 10°C and 20°C.
D) between 0°C and 4°C.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: General Aspects of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following factors is likely to result in higher plasma drug levels?
A) Taking a water-soluble drug during a meal.
B) Administering a drug orally when a client is experiencing an episode of severe diarrhoea.
C) Administering the narcotic analgesic morphine to a person with cirrhosis of the liver.
D) Administering a drug that is subject to significant metabolism to a person whose occupation involves handling chemicals that induce microsomal enzymes.
Q2) To elicit a rapid systemic effect, the route that will enable the maximum bioavailability is:
A) intramuscular.
B) oral
C) intravenous.
D) intradermal.
Q3) If a drug accumulates in one tissue (that is, the drug is extensively bound to a tissue), its volume of distribution is low.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: To Xicology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The passing of a client's blood across a medium containing adsorbent beads is called:
A) haemoperfusion.
B) haemosiderosis.
C) haemodialysis.
D) haemolysis.
Q2) The principle of management of clinical drug overdose that takes precedence over all others is:
A) life support.
B) client assessment.
C) drug detoxification.
D) drug elimination.
Q3) Chelating agents:
A) are used in methanol poisoning.
B) facilitate the elimination of heavy metals such as lead, cyanide and mercury.
C) are used in the management of bites and stings by poisonous animals.
D) neutralise the organophosphate sprays used in agriculture.
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Chapter 6: Autonomic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following chemical transmitters is not formed from the amino acid tyrosine?
A) Noradrenaline.
B) Acetylcholine.
C) Dopamine.
D) Adrenaline.
Q2) Following the administration of muscarinic agonist eyedrops, the client should be instructed to:
A) lie down.
B) rinse the eye with saline solution.
C) perform eye muscle exercises.
D) avoid driving and working with dangerous tools.
Q3) The involuntary subconscious motor component of the peripheral nervous system is called the:
A) autonomic nervous system.
B) somatic nervous system.
C) afferent nervous system.
D) brain.
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Chapter 7: Chemical Mediators
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of histamine receptor subtypes that have been identified is:
A) one.
B) two.
C) three.
D) four.
Q2) Generally when used as drugs, amino acid-based chemical mediators:
A) tend to be a fixed size of about 10-15 residues long.
B) can be administered orally.
C) only influence vascular function.
D) have short half-lives.
Q3) A human disease that may be associated with excessive nitric oxide production is:
A) diabetes mellitus.
B) atherosclerosis.
C) some forms of cancer.
D) poor wound healing.
Q4) Histamine activates H<sub>1</sub> receptors on the endothelium of a venule to cause vasodilation and increased permeability.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: The Modulat Ion of Behaviour, Cognition and Motor Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parkinson's disease is a defect in the function of which transmitter system in the basal ganglia?
A) Noradrenaline.
B) Acetylcholine.
C) Dopamine.
D) Serotonin.
Q2) Which description best matches the role of the thalamus?
A) A sorting area for sensory and motor impulses that relays the information to the most appropriate brain region.
B) An area involved in appetite, body temperature, thirst and hormone release.
C) The area involved in the primary perception and interpretation of sensation as well as the initiation of skeletal muscle movement.
D) This region is involved in equilibrium, postural control and coordinated movement.
Q3) Echolalia and coprolalia are common features of:
A) Huntington's disease.
B) Schizophrenia.
C) Tourette's syndrome.
D) Parkinson's disease.
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Chapter 9: Medicines Used to Relieve Pain and Produce
Anaesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect, this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.
Q2) The opioid tramadol should be avoided in clients with:
A) epilepsy.
B) a heart condition.
C) asthma.
D) liver disease.
Q3) Preventative therapies for migraine should be used for a period of:
A) three to six days.
B) three to six weeks.
C) three to six months.
D) six to twelve months.
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Chapter 10: The Modulat Ion of Oxygenat Ion and Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inclusion of ________ in the diet may help to avoid hypercholesterolaemia.
A) chicken
B) sardines
C) mutton
D) beef
Q2) Calcium channel blockers have which of the following effects?
A) Depressed cardiac contractility.
B) Depressed cardiac conduction.
C) Reduced vascular tone.
D) All of the above.
Q3) If a second dose of diuretic is required, this is usually administered:
A) mid-morning.
B) midday or early afternoon
C) early evening.
D) at bedtime.
Q4) In the treatment of erectile dysfunction, phosphodiesterase inhibitors:
A) act to trigger the release of nitric oxide.
B) are used when the cause is psychological.
C) may interact negatively with organic nitrate therapy.
D) must be administered directly into the penis.
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Chapter 11: The Modulation of Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pairs of proton pump inhibitors inhibit the cytochrome P450 system and have a number of clinically important drug interactions?
A) Esomeprazole and omeprazole.
B) Rabeprazole and lansoprazole.
C) Lansoprazole and pantoprazole
D) Esomeprazole and rabeprazole.
Q2) It is important to advise a person who is pregnant about the possible teratogenetic effects of antiemetics during the:
A) first trimester of pregnancy.
B) second trimester of pregnancy.
C) third trimester of pregnancy.
D) labour period.
Q3) Which of the following chemical mediators stimulates the production of mucus in the gastrointestinal tract and inhibits secretion of hydrochloric acid?
A) Acetylcholine.
B) Histamine.
C) Gastrin.
D) Prostaglandin E.
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Chapter 12: The Modulation of Body Growth, Development and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) An injection of glucagon would be appropriate for which of the following?
A) A person with type 1 diabetes mellitus who presents with a blood glucose reading above 18 mmol/L.
B) A person with unstable diabetes insipidus.
C) A person with drug-induced hypoglycaemia
D) A person with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has hypersensitivity reactions to metformin.
Q2) The pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with:
A) hyperinsulinaemia.
B) an autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
C) cellular insulin resistance.
D) pregnancy.
Q3) A characteristic of gout is that:
A) it manifests as a form of arthritis.
B) it is more prevalent in women.
C) the risk of developing it can be reduced by eating foods such as sardines or offal.
D) it is not associated with any genetic predisposition.
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Chapter 13: Nutritional and Natural Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following measures would not improve the management of diarrhoea during enteral feeding?
A) Select a feed with a high fat content.
B) Decrease rate of feed.
C) Remove the feed from the fridge about half an hour before administration.
D) Administer an iso-osmolar feed rather than a hyperosmolar feed.
Q2) A complication of bolus feeds compared to continuous infusion in individuals with a nasogastric tube is:
A) diarrhoea.
B) feed contamination.
C) ileus.
D) gastric bleeding.
Q3) Which of the following is a precursor of serotonin?
A) Phenylalanine.
B) Tryptophan.
C) Tyrosine.
D) Histidine.
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Chapter 14: The Modulation of Celullar Growth and Proliferation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The form of gene therapy characterised by direct insertion of genes into particular cells within the body is known by the term:
A) in vitro procedures.
B) in vivo procedures.
C) ex vivo procedures.
D) in situ procedures.
Q2) The most active agent for leprosy is:
A) dapsone.
B) rifampicin.
C) thalidomide.
D) streptomycin.
Q3) Individuals need to remain within a medical facility for about ________ minutes after vaccination.
A) 5
B) 15
C) 60
D) 90
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Chapter 15: Medicines Used Topically
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not appropriate advice to offer an individual receiving verteporfin treatment?
A) That since verteporfin can cause blurring or black spots, driving a car or operating machinery should be avoided.
B) Avoid skin and eye exposure to sunlight and to bright indoor light for 48 hours after treatment.
C) Remain in a darkened room when staying indoors.
D) Wear protective clothing and sunglasses at all times when going outside.
Q2) Which of the following is a drug group that is used in the treatment of glaucoma that decreases aqueous humour production?
A) Prostamides.
B) Prostaglandins.
C) Muscarinic agonists.
D) -blockers.
Q3) Trachoma is associated with:
A) a chlamydial eye infection.
B) an impairment of aqueous humour drainage.
C) a form of cancer that affects the eyeball.
D) an ingrowing eyelash.
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