Physiology and Pathophysiology
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course offers an in-depth exploration of human physiology, focusing on the normal functioning of cells, tissues, organs, and systems within the body. Students will examine the intricate mechanisms that maintain homeostasis and the ways in which physiological processes interact. The course also delves into pathophysiology, investigating how normal physiological processes are altered by disease, injury, or genetic defects. Through case studies and application-based learning, students will gain an understanding of the clinical implications of various dysfunctions, preparing them to recognize and analyze signs and symptoms of common pathological conditions.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 6th Edition by Jacquelyn
L. Banasik
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54 Chapters
1199 Verified Questions
1199 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Socioeconomic factors influence disease development because of (Select all that apply.)
A) genetics.
B) environmental toxins.
C) overcrowding.
D) nutrition.
E) hygiene.
Answer: B,C,D,E
Q2) C.Q.was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection.His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3°F,skin rash,dysphagia,and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules.He complains of sore throat,malaise,and joint stiffness.A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus,and antibiotics have been prescribed.The etiology of C.Q.'s disease is A) a sore throat.
B) streptococcal infection.
C) genetic susceptibility.
D) pharyngitis.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis, Allostasis, and Adaptive
Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aldosterone may increase during stress,leading to (Select all that apply.)
A) decreased urinary output.
B) increased blood potassium.
C) increased sodium retention.
D) increased blood volume.
E) decreased blood pressure.
Answer: A,C,D
Q2) Chronic activation of stress hormones can lead to (Select all that apply.)
A) cardiovascular disease.
B) depression.
C) impaired cognitive function.
D) autoimmune disease.
E) overactive immune function.
Answer: A,B,C,D
Q3) Selye's three phases of the stress response include all the following except A) allostasis.
B) resistance.
C) alarm.
D) exhaustion.
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cardiac drug digitalis enhances myocardial contraction,because it
A) increases intracellular calcium level in cardiac cells.
B) inhibits sodium from entering cardiac cells.
C) enhances the sodium-potassium pump.
D) increases the sodium gradient across the cell membrane.
Answer: A
Q2) Phospholipids spontaneously form lipid bilayers,because they are
A) polar.
B) charged.
C) insoluble.
D) amphipathic.
Answer: D
Q3) Ribosomes are very important organelles within the cell that have the function of A) detoxifying substances.
B) synthesizing proteins.
C) converting energy to forms that can be used.
D) coding for protein synthesis.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary effect of aging on all body systems is
A) decreased functional reserve.
B) diseased function.
C) programmed senescence.
D) senility.
Q2) Somatic death refers to death
A) of a body organ.
B) of the entire organism.
C) of nerve cells.
D) secondary to brain damage.
Q3) Infectious injury often results from (Select all that apply.)
A) exotoxins.
B) endotoxins.
C) self-destruction of cells.
D) anti-inflammatory reactions.
E) enzymes from white blood cells.
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Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary role of genes is to
A) code for reproduction.
B) direct the synthesis of proteins.
C) determine differentiation.
D) determine cellular apoptosis.
Q2) Calcium channel blocker drugs are often used to treat conditions associated with (Select all that apply.)
A) cardiac muscle.
B) smooth muscle.
C) epithelial tissue.
D) nervous tissue.
E) connective tissue.
Q3) The differences in structure and function of cells in different body tissues are resulting from
A) gene differences in tissue cells.
B) expression of tissue-specific genes.
C) transcriptional controls.
D) translation of amino acids to proteins.
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The risk period for maternal rubella infection leading to congenital problems begins A) prior to conception.
B) during the last trimester.
C) at birth.
D) all through pregnancy.
Q2) Characteristics of Marfan syndrome include that it (Select all that apply.)
A) is a single-gene disorder.
B) involves alterations in connective tissue.
C) leads to skeletal and joint deformities.
D) leads to short stocky build.
E) results in dangerous cardiovascular disorders.
Q3) A point mutation
A) results from the addition or loss of one or more bases.
B) is because of the translocation of a chromosomal segment.
C) always produces significant dysfunction.
D) involves the substitution of a single base pair.
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Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general,a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is more likely to be aggressive.
A)True
B)False
Q2) After surgery to remove a lung tumor,your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy,which will
A) selectively kill tumor cells.
B) stimulate immune cells to fight the cancer.
C) have minimal side effects.
D) kill rapidly dividing cells.
Q3) Retroviruses are associated with human cancers,including A) Burkitt lymphoma.
B) Hodgkin's lymphoma.
C) pancreatic cancer.
D) hepatic cancer.
Q4) Cancer grading is based on A) tumor size.
B) local invasion.
C) cell differentiation.
D) metastasis.
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Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term used to describe fungal infections is A) sepsis.
B) mycoses.
C) amebiasis.
D) Chlamydia.
Q2) Dietary zinc is an important defense against infection,because it maintains (Select all that apply.)
A) natural killer cell function.
B) lymphocyte activity.
C) antioxidant activity.
D) neutrophil activity.
E) complement activity.
Q3) Risk of infection is increased in (Select all that apply.)
A) use of corticosteroids.
B) diabetes mellitus.
C) spleen removal.
D) stomach removal.
E) stress.
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "classical pathway" for activation of the complement cascade is triggered by A) activation of C3.
B) inflammation.
C) first recognition of an antigen.
D) antigen-antibody complexes.
Q2) Active immunity involves (Select all that apply.)
A) injection of preformed human antibodies.
B) injection of human immune globulin.
C) injection with preformed animal antibodies.
D) vaccines with dead or altered organisms.
E) active infections.
Q3) The spleen is an important defense against infection,because it
A) activates the complement cascade.
B) initiates inflammation.
C) controls phagocytosis.
D) filters the blood.
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11
Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis.This is most likely a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction.
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Q2) The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.
Q3) A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is A) monocytes.
B) mast cells.
C) neutrophils.
D) cytotoxic cells.
Q4) Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type II hypersensitivity reactions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The only known curative treatment for CML is allogeneic bone marrow transplantation from a suitable donor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient is diagnosed with stage III non-Hodgkin lymphoma and is preparing to undergo treatment.Which treatments may be used to treat this patient's cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A) Radiation
B) Bone marrow transplant
C) Chemotherapy
D) Lymph node transplant
E) Monoclonal antibody therapy
Q3) Burkitt lymphoma is most closely associated with
A) Epstein-Barr virus.
B) radiation exposure.
C) immunodeficiency syndromes.
D) history of cigarette smoking.
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Chapter 12: HIV Disease and Aids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The CDC defines three CD4 T-cell categories of T cell ranges.Which values are correct? (Select all that apply.)
A) In category 1, the CD4 T-cell count is greater than or equal to 500/mL.
B) In category 1, the CD4 T-cell counts range from 200 to 499/mL.
C) In category 2, the CD4 T-cell counts range from 200 to 499/mL.
D) In category 3, the CD4 T-cell count is less than 200/mL.
E) In category 3, the CD4 T-cell count is less than 300/mL.
Q2) An effective HIV vaccine is difficult to produce,primarily because
A) HIV is not immunogenic.
B) B cells are unable to produce antibodies against HIV.
C) HIV mutates frequently.
D) reverse transcriptase cleaves to the vaccine.
Q3) Which statement about HIV testing is correct?
A) Any patient can be tested for HIV with or without their informed consent.
B) A negative HIV test ensures absence of infection.
C) The false-negative rate for HIV testing is zero.
D) Significant exposure to infected blood or body fluids requires HIV testing.
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Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vaccination for pneumococcal pneumonia should be performed before 1 year of age in patients with sickle cell anemia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The primary source of erythropoietin is provided by the A) bone marrow.
B) kidney.
C) lung.
D) liver.
Q3) The anemia resulting from a deficiency of either vitamin B (cobalamin)or folate is caused by a disruption in DNA synthesis of the blast cells in the bone marrow that produces very large abnormal bone marrow cells called megaloblasts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most effective therapy for anemia associated with kidney failure is A) iron administration.
B) high-protein diet.
C) erythropoietin administration.
D) vitamin B and folate administration.
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Homeostasis and Blood
Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cause of thrombocytopenia includes A) hypoxemia.
B) reduced erythropoietin.
C) chemotherapy.
D) secondary polycythemia.
Q2) The conversion of plasminogen to plasmin results in A) clot retraction.
B) fibrinolysis.
C) platelet aggregation.
D) activation of thrombin.
Q3) A patient presents to the physician's office with pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin.The patient is most likely between the ages of _____ years.
A) 6 months and 2
B) 4 and 7
C) 15 and 18
D) 25 and 45
Q4) Hemophilia B is also known as Christmas disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Venous obstruction leads to edema because it ________ pressure.
A) increases capillary oncotic
B) increases arterial blood
C) decreases tissue
D) increases capillary hydrostatic
Q2) Blood flow throughout the periphery is regulated by A) cardiac output.
B) the autonomic nervous system.
C) velocity.
D) hemodynamics.
Q3) When a patient is struck in the eye by a baseball,the result is redness and swelling.This increase in blood flow to a localized area is called A) autoregulation.
B) edema.
C) hyperemia.
D) hypoxia.
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in A) non-Hispanic white adults.
B) Mexican-American adults.
C) non-Hispanic black adults.
D) Asian children.
Q2) After being diagnosed with hypertension,a patient returns to the clinic 6 weeks later.The patient reports "moderate" adherence to the recommended lifestyle changes and has experienced a decreased from 165/96 to 148/90 mm Hg in blood pressure.What is the most appropriate intervention for this patient at this time?
A) Continue lifestyle modifications only.
B) Continue lifestyle modifications plus diuretic therapy.
C) Continue lifestyle modifications plus ACE inhibitor therapy.
D) Continue lifestyle modifications plus b-blocker therapy.
Q3) The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is pulmonary disease. A)True B)False
Q4) New-organ damage is a function of both the stage of hypertension and its duration. A)True B)False
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrical currents that travel through the heart are called vectors because they include (Select all that apply.)
A) direction.
B) polarity.
C) magnitude.
D) vascularity.
E) ionic waves.
Q2) A vessel that normally contains desaturated (venous)blood is the
A) bronchial artery.
B) pulmonary artery.
C) pulmonary vein.
D) coronary artery.
Q3) The major wave complexes of an ECG include the (Select all that apply.)
A) P wave.
B) B wave.
C) TUV complex.
D) QRS complex.
E) T wave.
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atherosclerotic plaques with large lipid cores are prone to A) dislodgement.
B) binding.
C) rupture.
D) attachment.
Q2) A patient with a history of myocardial infarction continues to complain of intermittent chest pain brought on by exertion and relieved by rest.The likely cause of this pain is
A) stable angina.
B) myocardial infarction.
C) coronary vasospasm.
D) unstable angina.
Q3) Myocarditis should be suspected in a patient who presents with A) chest pain and ST elevation.
B) acute onset of left ventricular dysfunction.
C) murmur and abnormal valves on echocardiogram.
D) family history of cardiomyopathy.
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common
Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Q1) A patient's ECG lacks recognizable waveforms and is deemed to be in sinus arrest.The patient's sinus arrest may be a result of (Select all that apply.)
A) MI.
B) electrical shock.
C) electrolyte disturbance.
D) acidosis.
E) alkalosis.
Q2) Dysrhythmias are significant since they (Select all that apply.)
A) are an indicator of life span.
B) can indicate an underlying disorder.
C) can impair venous return.
D) increase the severity of heart murmurs.
E) can impair cardiac output.
Q3) Hypertrophy of the right ventricle is a compensatory response to A) aortic stenosis.
B) aortic regurgitation.
C) tricuspid stenosis.
D) pulmonary stenosis.
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Q1) Improvement in a patient with septic shock is indicated by an increase in A) cardiac output.
B) SvO<sub>2</sub>.
C) systemic vascular resistance.
D) serum lactate level.
Q2) A patient experiences anaphylactic shock.The nurse expects to observe which signs and symptoms in the patient? (Select all that apply.)
A) Stupor
B) Hypotension
C) Urticaria
D) Angioedema
E) Wheezing
Q3) Administration of which therapy is most appropriate for hypovolemic shock?
A) Crystalloids
B) Vasoconstrictor agents
C) Inotropic agents
D) 5% dextrose in water
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Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Virchow's triad can result in
A) decreased pulmonary arterial pressure.
B) alveolar collapse.
C) pulmonary embolus.
D) bronchoconstriction.
Q2) The amount of gas remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration is called the A) residual volume.
B) functional residual capacity.
C) expiratory reserve volume.
D) vital capacity.
Q3) Shifts in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve represent the A) effect of carbonic anhydrase on the uptake of CO .
B) ability of blood to pick up more CO when PaO is low.
C) amount of hydrogen in solution in the blood.
D) changes in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen.
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Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which complication of asthma is life threatening?
A) Exercise-induced asthma
B) Late phase response
C) Status asthmaticus
D) Mast cell degranulation
Q2) Which assessment would support a diagnosis of type A COPD rather than type B COPD
A) Copious sputum, dyspnea, cor pulmonale
B) Noisy breath sounds, fatigue, high PaCO , overweight
C) Normal PaCO , scant sputum, accessory muscle use, barrel chest
D) Barrel chest, productive cough, cyanosis, very decreased PaO
Q3) Individuals who have chronic bronchitis most often have
A) a productive cough.
B) normal lung sounds.
C) a barrel chest.
D) substantial weight loss.
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Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neuromuscular disorders impair lung function primarily because of A) inflammatory events in the lung.
B) secondary pneumonia.
C) weak muscles of respiration.
D) inactivity secondary to the disorder.
Q2) Which is indicative of a left tension pneumothorax?
A) Course crackles throughout the left chest
B) Tracheal deviation to the left
C) Absent breath sounds on the left
D) Respiratory acidosis
Q3) Air that enters the pleural space during inspiration but is unable to exit during expiration creates a condition called
A) tension pneumothorax.
B) open pneumothorax.
C) pleural effusion.
D) empyema.
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Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical manifestations of extracellular fluid volume deficit include A) weak pulse, low blood pressure, and increased heart rate.
B) thirst, dry mucous membranes, and diarrhea.
C) confusion, lethargy, coma, and perhaps seizures.
D) cardiac dysrhythmias, paresthesias, and muscle weakness.
Q2) Decreased neuromuscular excitability is often the result of A) hypercalcemia and hypermagnesemia.
B) hypomagnesemia and hyperkalemia.
C) hypocalcemia and hypokalemia.
D) hypernatremia and hypomagnesemia.
Q3) A patient has a positive Chvostek sign.The nurse interprets this as a sign of A) hypercalcemia.
B) hypermagnesemia.
C) decreased neuromuscular excitability.
D) increased neuromuscular excitability.
Q4) Hypernatremia may be caused by
A) decreased aldosterone secretion.
B) decreased antidiuretic hormone secretion.
C) compulsive water drinking.
D) excessive dietary potassium.
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Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis would result in
A) increased pH, increased HCO -.
B) increased pH, decreased HCO -.
C) decreased pH, increased HCO -.
D) decreased pH, decreased HCO -.
Q2) Metabolic alkalosis is often accompanied by A) hypernatremia.
B) hyponatremia.
C) hyperkalemia.
D) hypokalemia.
Q3) Respiratory alkalosis is caused by A) hyperventilation.
B) pneumonia.
C) chest muscle weakness.
D) pulmonary edema.
Q4) Diarrhea and other lower intestinal fluid losses will contribute to A) metabolic alkalosis.
B) metabolic acidosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) mixed acid-base disorders.
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Q1) The primary selectivity barrier for glomerular filtration is the A) glomerular basement membrane.
B) endothelial tight junctions.
C) epithelial fenestra.
D) mesangial cells.
Q2) Approximately two thirds of the water and electrolytes filtered by the kidney are reabsorbed by the A) loop of Henle.
B) collecting tubule.
C) distal tubule.
D) proximal tubule.
Q3) The blood urea nitrogen (BUN)level is affected by (Select all that apply.)
A) protein intake.
B) fat intake.
C) fluid intake.
D) catabolism.
E) renal function.
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Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Q1) Calcium oxylate stone formation is facilitated by A) hypercalciuria.
B) hypoparathyroidism.
C) low urine pH.
D) protein intake.
Q2) The infection frequently associated with development of postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis is
A) pneumonia.
B) throat infection.
C) endocarditis.
D) urinary tract infection.
Q3) Risk factors for renal carcinoma include (Select all that apply.)
A) genetics.
B) hypotension.
C) cigarette smoking.
D) obesity.
E) chemicals.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Q1) The most common agent resulting in nephrotoxicity and subsequent acute tubular necrosis (ATN)in hospitalized patients is
A) contrast media.
B) antibiotics.
C) cancer chemotherapy.
D) recreational drugs.
Q2) One of the most frequent causes of chronic kidney disease is
A) hypertension.
B) glomerulonephritis.
C) chronic pyelonephritis.
D) polycystic kidney disease.
Q3) The most common cause of intrinsic kidney injury is _____ injury.
A) glomerular
B) tubular
C) interstitial
D) vascular
Q4) The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI)is prevention.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Q1) In addition to renal colic pain,signs or symptoms of ureteral stones may frequently include
A) hematuria.
B) postrenal renal failure.
C) urinary urgency.
D) proteinuria.
Q2) Pelvic floor muscle training is appropriate for A) overflow incontinence.
B) reflux prevention.
C) urge incontinence.
D) functional incontinence.
Q3) The urinalysis finding most indicative of cystitis includes the presence of A) WBCs and RBCs. B) nitrites.
C) casts.
D) bacteria.
Q4) Infection can lead to bladder stone formation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The main function of the prostate is to
A) produce sperm.
B) produce seminal fluid to support sperm.
C) secrete male hormones.
D) provide innervation for erection.
Q2) The capacitation process occurs in sperm
A) after introduction into the vagina.
B) before emission from the penis.
C) after fertilization of the egg.
D) before ejaculation from the penis.
Q3) The parasympathetic nervous system mediates the process of ejaculation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The nerve most responsible for penile erection is the _____nerve.
A) penile
B) prepual
C) pudendal
D) prostatic
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis.The cancer is at what stage?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q2) A patient presenting with a urethral stricture may experience (Select all that apply.)
A) decreased urinary stream.
B) urethral discharge.
C) infection.
D) urine retention.
E) inability to retract the glans of the penis.
Q3) Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the corpus cavernosum during sexual stimulation.
A)True
B)False
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33
Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 48-year-old female who is having hot flashes,tachycardia,palpitations,and sleep disturbance may be experiencing symptoms related to A) pregnancy.
B) perimenopause.
C) ovulation.
D) endometriosis.
Q2) The hormone released from the posterior pituitary gland during the milk ejection reflex is
A) gonadotropin.
B) prolactin.
C) vasopressin.
D) oxytocin.
Q3) Before the onset of menstruation,water retention and breast swelling are thought to be high levels of ________ stimulating the secretory cells of the breast.
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) hCG
D) oxytocin
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34
Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that fibrocystic breast disease
A) commonly progresses to breast cancer.
B) may be exacerbated by methylxanthines.
C) is characterized by painless breast lumps.
D) is a contraindication for progesterone birth control pills.
Q2) Uterine prolapse is caused by a relaxation of the A) cardinal ligaments.
B) abdominal organs.
C) cervix.
D) vaginal musculature.
Q3) What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated with urinary stress incontinence?
A) Rectocele
B) Menopause
C) Cystocele
D) Cervicitis
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Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) The initial incubation period of syphilis lasts for A) 2 to 3 days.
B) 10 to 90 days.
C) 3 to 6 weeks.
D) 40 years.
Q2) The first choice of treatment for the management of syphilis is
A) penicillin G.
B) doxycycline.
C) antiviral agents.
D) antimicrobial agents.
Q3) Central nervous system degeneration,blindness,and paresis are associated with untreated
A) HSV.
B) LGV.
C) syphilis.
D) gonorrhea.
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36
Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are major pairs of salivary glands? (Select all that apply.)
A) Parotid
B) Parietal
C) Submandibular
D) Sublingual
E) Pituitary
Q2) The primary stimulus for pancreatic secretion is
A) gastrin.
B) histamine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) secretin.
Q3) Chief cells secrete
A) pepsinogen.
B) hydrogen chloride.
C) intrinsic factor.
D) gastrin.
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rupture of esophageal varices is a complication of cirrhosis with portal hypertension and carries a high ________ rate.
A) cure
B) morbidity
C) insurance
D) mortality
Q2) What finding would rule out a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome in a patient with chronic diarrhea?
A) Negative stool leukocytes
B) Intermittent constipation
C) Abdominal pain and distention
D) Bloody stools
Q3) What clinical finding would suggest an esophageal cause of a client's report of dysphagia?
A) Nasal regurgitation
B) Airway obstruction with swallowing
C) Chest pain during meals
D) Coughing when swallowing
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38
Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most gallstones are composed of A) bile.
B) cholesterol.
C) calcium.
D) uric acid salts.
Q2) Patients who may be at risk for development of cholesterol gallstones include (Select all that apply.)
A) high spinal cord injuries.
B) patients receiving total parenteral nutrition.
C) patients receiving chemotherapy.
D) patients with rapid weight loss.
E) pregnant women.
Q3) Chronic cholecystitis can lead to (Select all that apply.)
A) biliary sepsis.
B) calcified gallbladder.
C) porcelain gallbladder.
D) cirrhosis.
E) diabetes mellitus.
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Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a history of alcoholism presents with hematemesis and profound anemia.The expected diagnosis is
A) ascites.
B) cerebral edema.
C) hepatic encephalopathy.
D) gastroesophageal varices.
Q2) A patient being treated for hepatic encephalopathy could be expected to receive a(n)________ diet.
A) low-protein and high-fiber
B) high-protein and high-carbohydrate
C) high-sodium
D) unrestricted
Q3) Steatohepatitis is caused by an accumulation of ________ in the liver cells.
A) fat
B) bile
C) acetaminophen
D) ferritin
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a secondary endocrine disorder is
A) pituitary hyposecretion of TSH.
B) adrenal insufficiency following adrenalectomy.
C) congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
D) pheochromocytoma.
Q2) Hormones that are released from the anterior pituitary gland include (Select all that apply.)
A) luteinizing hormone.
B) vasopressin.
C) prolactin.
D) oxytocin.
E) follicle-stimulating hormone.
Q3) What suppresses the normal secretion of growth hormone?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Somatostatin
C) Somatomedin
D) Amino acids
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diabetes insipidus is a condition that A) results from inadequate ADH secretion.
B) is characterized by oliguria.
C) is associated with anterior pituitary dysfunction.
D) leads to glycosuria.
Q2) It is true that the synthesis of thyroid hormones
A) is increased by thyrotropin-inhibiting factor.
B) occurs in perifollicular C cells.
C) is stimulated by ACTH.
D) is inhibited by iodine deficiency.
Q3) Surgical removal of a gland may result in A) hypersecretion.
B) hyposecretion.
C) hyporesponsiveness.
D) tissue resistance.
Q4) It is true that Graves disease is
A) a secondary endocrine disorder.
B) associated with autoantibodies to TSH receptors.
C) characterized by high serum TSH levels.
D) untreatable.
42
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the United States,nearly ________ people have diabetes mellitus.
A) 7 million
B) 29.1 million
C) 366 million
D) 176 billion
Q2) In type I diabetes,respiratory compensation may occur through a process of
A) respiratory alkalosis.
B) respiratory acidosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
Q3) Which are hormones that increase serum glucose level? (Select all that apply.)
A) Vasopressin
B) Glucagon
C) Growth hormone
D) Catecholamine
E) Corticosteroid
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43
Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a fever of 3°F above normal would be expected to have increased energy expenditure of
A) 3%.
B) 15%.
C) 21%.
D) 50%.
Q2) The metabolic response to fever is A) anabolic.
B) catabolic.
C) both anabolic and catabolic.
D) related to gluconeogenesis.
Q3) Starvation is associated with A) loss of visceral protein.
B) low serum albumin levels.
C) loss of somatic fat and protein.
D) generalized edema.
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44
Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ protects the soft tissue of the brain.
A) dural septa
B) dura
C) falx cerebri
D) tentorium cerebella
Q2) Axonal myelination generally increases the
A) metabolic needs of the neuron.
B) flow of ions across the neuronal membrane.
C) sodium permeability.
D) speed of action potential conduction.
Q3) Which are functions of neuroglia? (Select all that apply.)
A) Generation of action potential
B) Modulation of ionic composition of extracellular fluid in the brain
C) Production of CSF
D) Phagocytosis of wastes within the CNS
E) Slowing the rate of conduction to the nerve axons
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A severe complication of elevated intracranial pressure is
A) Cushing reflex.
B) brain herniation.
C) burr hole.
D) hydrocephalus.
Q2) A tool used to assess levels of consciousness is
A) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
B) intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring.
C) Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS).
D) central perfusion pressure (CPP).
Q3) Acceleration-deceleration movements of the head often result in polar injuries in which
A) injury is localized to the site of initial impact.
B) widespread neuronal damage is incurred.
C) bleeding from venules fills the subdural space.
D) focal injuries occur in two places at opposite poles.
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient who experiences early symptoms of muscle twitching,cramping,and stiffness of the hands may be demonstrating signs of
A) Guillain-Barré syndrome.
B) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
C) Parkinson disease.
D) hydrocephalus.
Q2) It is true that Bell palsy is a
A) permanent facial paralysis after stroke.
B) painful neuropathic pain affecting the trigeminal nerve.
C) paralysis of the muscles innervated by the facial nerve.
D) herpetic outbreak in a facial dermatome.
Q3) What type of seizure usually occurs in children and is characterized by brief staring spells?
A) Epileptic
B) Idiopathic
C) Partial
D) Absence
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A vestibular disorder that is manifested by the sensation of motion without actual motion is referred to as
A) equilibrium.
B) nystagmus.
C) vertigo.
D) effusion.
Q2) The nurse caring for an individual with vision impairment should be prepared to A) keep the patient on bed rest to avoid injury.
B) speak to the patient with a clear, loud voice.
C) announcing himself or herself at all interactions.
D) provide as much bright light as possible.
Q3) Opacification of the lens is commonly referred to as A) hyperopia.
B) glaucoma.
C) presbyopia.
D) cataract.
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ is the level of painful stimulation required to be perceived.
A) perception
B) tolerance
C) expression
D) threshold
Q2) Modulation of pain signals is thought to be mediated by the release of A) histamine.
B) endorphins.
C) cholecystokinin.
D) glutamine.
Q3) Which treatment is helpful in neuropathic pain but not used for acute pain?
A) Narcotic analgesics
B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and aspirin
C) Anticonvulsants
D) Nonnarcotic analgesics
Q4) One of the most common causes of acute pain is
A) headache.
B) fibromyalgia.
C) malignancy.
D) trigeminal neuralgia.
Page 49
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lithium is used to manage mania because it
A) inhibits norepinephrine and serotonin activity in the brain.
B) is a CNS sedative.
C) is converted to catecholamines within the brain.
D) blocks D receptors in the brain.
Q2) Which symptoms would support a diagnosis of major depressive disorder? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diminished interest or pleasure
B) Incomprehensible speech
C) Altered reality
D) Psychomotor agitation or retardation
E) Appetite disturbance
Q3) ________ is a term used to describe a serious and debilitating mental state.
A) Psychosis
B) Schizophrenia
C) Major depressive disorder
D) Dysthymia
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Q1) Persistent,intrusive,uncontrollable thoughts that an individual recognizes as a product of his or her own mind are called
A) compulsions.
B) delusions.
C) obsessions.
D) hallucinations.
Q2) Individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder
A) are not aware that obsessive thoughts are from their own brains.
B) may become highly anxious if prevented from performing rituals.
C) have disordered thinking and poor reality orientation.
D) have a severe, unmanageable psychotic illness.
Q3) An anxiety disorder that is precipitated by a traumatic event is known as A) generalized anxiety disorder.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) panic disorder.
D) phobia.
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The electrolyte that must be present in cellular cytoplasm for muscle contraction to occur is
A) potassium.
B) sodium.
C) magnesium.
D) calcium.
Q2) The neurotransmitter released from the a-motor neuron at the motor end-plate is A) norepinephrine.
B) epinephrine.
C) serotonin.
D) acetylcholine.
Q3) When oxygen for muscle activity from the respiratory vascular systems is insufficient for muscle activity,the body breaks down glucose,which results in A) hypoglycemia.
B) lactic acid buildup in muscle.
C) a large energy source.
D) exhaustion.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common type of osteomyelitis is A) hematogenous.
B) contiguous focus.
C) Brodie abscess.
D) direct invasion.
Q2) Characteristics of scoliosis include (Select all that apply.)
A) involvement of lateral curvature of the spine.
B) increase during periods of rapid growth.
C) more common in boys.
D) identifiable by uneven shoulders or scapular prominence.
E) possibility of leading to respiratory complications.
Q3) The person at highest risk of a greenstick fracture from falling off a tall ladder is age
A) 68.
B) 44.
C) 8.
D) 23.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although skin manifestations may occur in numerous locations,the classic presentation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)includes
A) lesions affecting the palms of hands and the soles of feet.
B) dry, scaly patches in the antecubital area and behind the knees.
C) cracked, scaly areas in the webs of fingers.
D) a butterfly pattern rash on the face across the bridge of the nose.
Q2) Prosthetic joint infection is most often because of A) defective replacement material.
B) injury to the joint.
C) hematogenous transfer.
D) arthritis.
Q3) A clinical finding consistent with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis would be A) systemic manifestations of inflammation.
B) localized pain in weight-bearing joints.
C) reduced excretion of uric acid by the kidney.
D) firm, crystallized nodules or "tophi" at the affected joints.
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most common,benign form of skin cancer?
A) Basal
B) Squamous
C) Melanoma
D) Actinic keratosis
Q2) Onycholysis is characterized by
A) silvery plaques on the skin.
B) itching, oozing rash.
C) destruction of the nails.
D) whitish coating on the tongue.
Q3) It is true that vitiligo
A) occurs as a result of a genetic lack of melanin production.
B) is a depigmented patch of skin.
C) occurs most commonly in light-skinned individuals.
D) is a warning sign for malignant melanoma.
Q4) The cancer considered to be the most malignant is A) hyperkeratosis.
B) basal cell carcinoma.
C) squamous cell carcinoma.
D) melanoma.
55
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrical injury may cause extensive damage to low-resistance tissues,particularly A) bone and muscle.
B) nerves and blood vessels.
C) epidermis.
D) dermis and subcutaneous tissue.
Q2) A necessary intervention when managing burns associated with automobile airbag injury include
A) irrigation with water.
B) application of steroid cream.
C) IV infusion of antibiotics.
D) debridement of skin.
Q3) It is true that covering a burn with cool wet sheets
A) promotes comfort.
B) facilitates healing.
C) prevents fluid loss.
D) promotes hypothermia.
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