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Physiological Psychology explores the intricate relationship between the brain, nervous system, and behavior. This course examines how biological processes such as neural function, sensory systems, neurotransmitters, and hormonal influences affect perception, emotion, learning, memory, cognition, and mental disorders. Students will gain an understanding of the methods used in physiological psychology, including brain imaging and electrophysiology, while analyzing case studies and experimental findings that reveal how physiological processes underlie psychological phenomena.
Recommended Textbook
An Introduction to Brain and Behavior 5th Edition by Bryan Kolb
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1844 Verified Questions
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Q1) Define common ancestor and how this applies to Darwin's theory of evolution.
Answer: A common ancestor refers to a hypothetical organism from which two or more different species are believed to have evolved. In the context of Darwin's theory of evolution, the concept of a common ancestor is central to the idea that all living organisms are related and share a common ancestry. Darwin proposed that over long periods of time, species have evolved from common ancestors through a process of descent with modification, driven by natural selection. This means that different species share common traits and characteristics because they inherited them from a common ancestor, and as they adapted to different environments, they evolved into distinct species. The concept of a common ancestor provides a framework for understanding the interconnectedness of all life on Earth and the diversity of species that have emerged through the process of evolution.
Q2) What is materialism and how has it influenced the study of neuroscience?
Answer: no answer
Q3) What is epigenetics and why is it an important topic to study?
Answer: no answer
Q4) What are memes and how do they influence our evolution?
Answer: no answer
Page 3
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Q1) The human cerebellum contains about ____ as many neurons as the cerebrum.
A) half
B) one third
C) four times
D) twice
Answer: C
Q2) The correct order of the evolution of nervous systems from simple to complex is:
A) nerve net,segmentation,ganglia,spinal cord,brain.
B) spinal cord,nerve net,brain,ganglia,segmentation.
C) brain,spinal cord,nerve net,segmentation,ganglia.
D) ganglia,nerve net,segmentation,brain,spinal cord.
Answer: A
Q3) Humans are unique in that they have the:
A) largest brain of any animal species.
B) most complex spinal cord of any animal species.
C) largest brain to body size ratio of any living animal.
D) most advanced nervous system of any living animal.
Answer: C
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Q1) Differentiate between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
Answer: The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are two branches of the autonomic nervous system, which controls involuntary bodily functions such as heart rate, digestion, and respiratory rate.
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the body's "fight or flight" response. When activated, it increases heart rate, dilates the airways, and redirects blood flow to the muscles, preparing the body for physical activity. This response is triggered in times of stress or danger.
On the other hand, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for the body's "rest and digest" response. When activated, it slows down heart rate, constricts the airways, and stimulates digestion. This response helps the body to relax and recover after a stressful situation.
In summary, the sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for action and stress, while the parasympathetic nervous system promotes relaxation and recovery. These two systems work in balance to maintain homeostasis in the body.
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Q1) Cognition is usually attributed to:
A) the limbic cortex.
B) the cingulate cortex.
C) the neocortex.
D) the parahippocampal cortex.
Q2) Structures atop the brain or a structure within the brain are_____:
A) lateral.
B) ventral.
C) medial.
D) dorsal.
Q3) Removal of the amygdala in cats leads to:
A) changes in temperature regulation.
B) sleep disruption.
C) emotional changes.
D) motor disruption.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT part of the forebrain?
A) the cortex
B) the tectum
C) the basal ganglia
D) the limbic system
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Q1) What are three major types of neurons? How are they functionally different?
Q2) What role do Golgi bodies play inside of neurons?
Q3) What are the major functions of Schwann cells? How do they assist in the recovery from nerve damage?
Q4) What are the major functions of ependymal cells?
Q5) List the internal components of a cell.
Q6) What is Down syndrome,and what are its genetic determinants?
Q7) Differentiate between Santiago Ramón y Cajal's and Camillo Golgi's views on brain cell functioning.
Q8) How does genetic engineering help us understand the human condition?
Q9) List the functions of the cell nucleus.
Q10) What is phenotypic plasticity?
Q11) What are the differences between knock-in and knockout mice?
Q12) List the types of genetic engineering.
Q13) Differentiate between dominant and recessive genes. Page 7
Q14) What functions do proteins contribute to cell function?
Q15) What is selective breeding,and how can it be used to select for specific traits? Give an example.
Q16) What is Huntington disease,and what are its genetic determinants?
Q17) What are the major functions of astroglia?
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a pyramidal cell?
A) long axon
B) pyramid-shaped body
C) two sets of dendrites
D) one set of dendrites
Q2) The place in a cell where protein packages are wrapped and shipped is called:
A) endoplasmic reticulum.
B) mitochondrion.
C) Golgi body.
D) lysosome.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an interneuron?
A) Purkinje cell
B) stellate cell
C) pyramidal cell
D) Schwann cell
Q4) Protein molecules can:
A) act as a gate.
B) act as a pump.
C) change shape.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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Transmit Information? Part A
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Q1) What is back propagation,and how is it linked with neuroplasticity?
Q2) Differentiate between a diffusion and a concentration gradient.
Q3) What processes are involved in initiating an action potential?
Q4) What are temporal and spatial summation?
Q5) What is the difference between depolarization and hyperpolarization?
Q6) What processes participate in maintaining the resting potential?
Q7) What are the two primary reasons refractory periods are important for the conduction of nerve impulses?
Q8) How does the nerve impulse travel from the axon hillock to the end of the axon without degrading in magnitude?
Q9) How does the sodium-potassium pump work?
Q10) What are voltage-sensitive ion channels?
Q11) What is the patch technique?

Page 10
Q12) What are nodes of Ranvier,and what role do they play in the conduction of nerve impulses?
Q13) What is a voltmeter?
Q14) What is a graded potential?
Q15) What is multiple sclerosis (MS)? What are some of the identified risk factors for MS?
Q16) Differentiate between absolute and relative refractory periods.
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Q1) Alex is 53 years old and has had weakness in his throat and chest for a few months.Now,he is also starting to have general weakness in his arms and legs.The weakness in his legs has gotten so bad that yesterday he fell down when walking across his living room.Alex appears to be showing early signs of:
A) Parkinson disease.
B) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig's disease).
C) Huntington disease.
D) Alzheimer disease.
Q2) Saltatory conduction refers to:
A) sodium concentration in the extracellular fluid.
B) action potentials that are facilitated by sodium.
C) action potentials jumping from one node to the next.
D) the leakage of the sodium channels that require the existence of a sodium-potassium pump.
Q3) A change in the resting potential from -70 mV to -73 mV is called:
A) depolarization.
B) hyperpolarization.
C) graded excitatory potential.
D) nothing,as these changes occur spontaneously.
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Q1) _____ is part of a class of lipid transmitters called endocannabinoids that can influence appetite,pain,sleep,mood,and stress.
A) CB<sub>1</sub>
B) Anandamide
C) Glycine
D) Met-enkephalin
Q2) _____ are a class of neurotransmitters that can act as hormones for fertility,childbirth,and lactation.
A) Peptides
B) Amines
C) Transmitter gases
D) None of the answers is correct.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a classification type of neurotransmitter?
A) small molecule
B) nucleic acid
C) gaseous
D) peptide
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Q1) What are the four main amino acid transmitters and what are their functions?
Q2) Define habituation.What is the synaptic basis of the habituation response?
Q3) What are second messengers? What role do they play in neural transmission?
Q4) What are the three ways a synapse can change in order to accommodate learning?
Q5) What behaviors are associated with the serotonergic system?
Q6) What are the different ways in which a neurotransmitter could become deactivated?
Q7) What are transmitter-activated receptors?
Q8) What are the four major classes of neurotransmitters?
Q9) How did chemical transmitters originate?
Q10) Define sensitization.What is the synaptic basis of sensitization?
Q11) What neurotransmitter system is used in the somatic nervous system (SNS)? How does it activate lead to depolarization?
Q12) What are the differences between excitatory and inhibitory synapses?
Q13) What is the difference between ionotropic and metabotropic receptors? Page 14
Q14) What is the difference between axoaxonic and axosynaptic synapses?
Q15) What is a neurotransmitter?
Q16) What is the function of storage granules?
Q17) List four peptide transmitters.
Q18) Describe the synthesis of the amine neurotransmitters.
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Q1) Define homeostasis and give examples of homeostatic hormones.
Q2) What is the organizational hypothesis?
Q3) What evidence suggests that changes in cognitive behavior are a result of gonadal hormones?
Q4) What is the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia? What evidence supports the dopamine hypothesis?
Q5) List three drugs used for the treatment of depression and describe how they work (i.e. ,what neurotransmitter systems are involved).
Q6) Describe the disinhibition theory of alcohol use.
Q7) What is the difference between substance abuse and substance dependence?
Q8) Give example of three different psychedelic drugs,and describe the neurotransmitters and receptors involved in creating the effects.
Q9) What negative effects on the nervous system have been associated with monosodium glutamate (MSG)?
Q10) Differentiate between agonists and antagonists.
Page 16
Q11) Describe the incentive-sensitization theory of addiction.
Q12) What is behavioral myopia?
Q13) Define and differentiate between metabolic tolerance and cellular tolerance.
Q14) Briefly describe the blood-brain barrier.
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Q1) Curare acts as a(n):
A) acetylcholine agonist.
B) acetylcholine antagonist.
C) serotonin antagonist.
D) dopamine antagonist.
Q2) Enkephalins and dynorphins are examples of:
A) opioid analgesics.
B) amphetamines.
C) endorphins.
D) antipsychotics.
Q3) _____ has been shown to be effective in treating nausea,lack of appetite,glaucoma,and chronic pain.
A) Marijuana
B) Cocaine
C) Methamphetamine
D) Heroin
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Q1) Describe the differences in patterns of EEG activity when a person is in an awake or excited state compared to a relaxed state with eyes closed.
Q2) What is diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)? What is it used to study?
Q3) What is a magnetoencephalogram (MEG)? How is it similar to an electroencephalogram and event-related potentials?
Q4) How does a CT scan work?
Q5) What is an EEG? What are the features of the brain revealed by an EEG?
Q6) Differentiate extracellular from intracellular recording.
Q7) What is microdialysis? What does it study?
Q8) What is near-infrared spectroscopy? Why is it useful?
Q9) What are spatial and temporal resolutions? Why are these concepts important for brain imaging?
Q10) What is a stereotaxic apparatus? What is it used for?
Q11) What three tests make use of a hidden platform in a swimming pool to examine memory in rats?
Q12) What are event-related potentials? Page 19
Q14) What are the differences between an MRI and an fMRI?
Q15) What is a PET scan? What are its advantages over other imaging methods?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epigenetics is:
A) the same as gene expression.
B) the study of the change in gene expression caused by experience.
C) the study of gene alteration.
D) the alteration of DNA sequences.
Q2) Deep brain stimulation has been used as a treatment for:
A) Parkinson disease.
B) Huntington disease.
C) schizophrenia.
D) both Parkinson disease and obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Q3) Lashley made lesions on the cortex of rats in his search for the location of memory.He found that:
A) memory resided in the hippocampus.
B) small lesions to the temporal lobes produced memory loss.
C) memory is distributed throughout the brain and not located in any single place.
D) None of the answers is correct.
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Q1) How are the brains of individuals who have schizophrenia different from the brains of individuals who do not have schizophrenia?
Q2) List the changes to the brain that occur as a result of complex environment exposure.
Q3) Describe Piaget's four stages of development.
Q4) Describe the process of myelination and its relationship to neural development.
Q5) Define the term critical period and its relation to development.
Q6) What effects might caffeine and nicotine have on the developing brain?
Q7) From what does the nervous system develop? What is the subventricular zone?
Q8) Describe the development of the frontal lobes.What factors have been shown to slow frontal lobe development?
Q9) Differentiate between cell adhesion molecules and tropic molecules.
Q10) What is imprinting? What brain structures are related to imprinting?
Q11) What brain regions demonstrate increased activation for second languages?
Q13) Differentiate between a zygote,an embryo,and a fetus. Page 22
Q12) What function do radial glial cells play in development?
Q14) What are neurotrophic factors (give examples)? What role do they play in the development of the nervous system?
Q15) What is SIDS? What role does serotonin play in SIDS?
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Q1) If you want to stimulate the production of progenitor cells in a stem cell culture,you should add the compound:
A) nerve growth factor.
B) fibroblast growth factor.
C) epidermal growth factor.
D) testosterone.
Q2) Masculinization refers to the effects of:
A) testosterone on brain cells.
B) too little estrogen on female embryos.
C) testosterone on female embryos.
D) too little estrogen on brain cells.
Q3) In rats _____ has (have)been shown to lead to enhanced motor and cognitive skills and recovery from brain injury.
A) an injection of growth hormones
B) a low-fat diet
C) tactile stimulation
D) high dosages of vitamin C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate between the functions of blob and interblob regions of visual cortex?
Q2) What is optic ataxia?
Q3) Describe how on-center and off-center cells enable us to see edges and shapes in our visual world.
Q4) To what stimulus does a simple cortical cell respond?
Q5) What is color constancy and why is it important? What brain region is responsible for coding color constancy?
Q6) To what stimulus does a hypercomplex cell respond?
Q7) To what stimulus does a complex cortical cell respond?
Q8) What are the symptoms of visual-form agnosia?
Q9) Describe the tectopulvinar system.
Q10) To what types of visual features do neurons in the temporal cortex respond?
Q11) What is the difference between the dorsal and ventral visual streams?
Q12) What is a receptive field?

Page 25
Q13) What is the difference between magnocellular cells and parvocellular cells? Specifically,what types of visual signals do they carry,and where do their inputs come
Q14) What is an on-center off-surround cell?
Q15) What are ocular dominance columns?
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Q1) Retinal ganglion cells form the:
A) fovea.
B) optic disc.
C) lateral geniculate nucleus.
D) optic nerve.
Q2) A second main visual pathway (in addition to the geniculostriate system)is organized as follows:
A) retina,lateral geniculate nucleus,superior colliculus,pulvinar,striate cortex,other visual areas.
B) retina,superior colliculus,pulvinar,striate cortex,other visual areas.
C) retina,superior colliculus,pulvinar,other visual areas.
D) retina,pulvinar,superior colliculus,other visual areas.
Q3) The colored part of the eye is called the:
A) iris.
B) lens.
C) cornea.
D) sclera.
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Q1) What speech area did Penfield map in the human brain? How are these regions influenced by electrical stimulation?
Q2) How do humans localize the source of high-frequency and low-frequency sounds in the environment? Which brain regions are involved?
Q3) Differentiate between the dorsal and ventral streams of auditory processing.
Q4) What decibel (dB)levels are safe for human hearing? What decibel levels can cause hearing damage?
Q5) Which two brain areas are most important for birdsong and what roles do they play?
Q6) Define perfect pitch.What is its probable origin?
Q7) List the variables that affect birdsong.
Q8) What is a cochlear implant and how does it work?
Q9) Frequency and amplitude are equivalent to what properties in sound perception?
Q10) What is the difference between Heschl's gyrus and the planum temporale?
Q11) What are the three main physical properties of sound waves and how do they influence auditory perception?
Q12) Differentiate between receptive aphasia and expressive aphasia. Page 28
Q13) What is prosody and what brain regions control it?
Q14) Differentiate between the roles of the outer and inner hair cells in the ear.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stirrup sits against the:
A) eardrum.
B) oval window.
C) round window.
D) cochlea.
Q2) Subsong refers to:
A) songs that are not completely learned.
B) noises that would be like babbling in humans.
C) songs that are below the perceived human auditory threshold.
D) syrinx movements not accompanied by sound.
Q3) The recognition of objects by sound is accomplished by the:
A) dorsal auditory pathway.
B) ventral auditory pathway.
C) anterior auditory pathway.
D) lateral auditory pathway.
Q4) Complex tones are:
A) low-frequency tones.
B) high-frequency tones.
C) a combination of frequencies.
D) half tones.
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Stimulation and Produce Movement? Part A
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Q1) What is phantom limb pain? What does existence of phantom limb pain tell us about the organization of the somatosensory system?
Q2) What are the effects of deafferentation?
Q3) How does the motor cortex change in response to damage?
Q4) What are the three major classes of somatosensory receptors? What role does each of these classes of receptors play in somatosensation?
Q5) What are the symptoms of Tourette syndrome?
Q6) Compare and contrast the roles of the prefrontal cortex,the premotor cortex,and the primary motor cortex in the control of movement.
Q7) Describe the role of the cerebellum in motor learning based on sensory feedback.
Q8) Differentiate between rapidly adapting and slowly adapting receptors.
Q9) Differentiate between paraplegia and quadriplegia,including the regions of the spinal cord that are involved.
Q10) What are the components of the vestibular system? What is the role of the vestibular system in somatosensation?
Q11) Discuss the hierarchical organization of movement control.
Q12) What kinds of movement problems arise following damage to premotor cortex? Page 31
Q13) Describe the organization of somatosensory cortex in areas 1,2,and 3.
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Stimulation and Produce Movement? Part C
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Q1) Hapsis is the perception of:
A) fine touch.
B) the location of one's body in space.
C) pain.
D) chemical irritants.
Q2) Neurons in area 3b of the primary somatosensory cortex are responsive to:
A) muscle sense.
B) slow-responding skin receptors.
C) fast-responding skin receptors.
D) pressure.
Q3) The ability to discriminate the distance between two points on the skin is MOST sensitive in:
A) hairy skin.
B) glabrous skin.
C) smooth skin.
D) epidermal skin.
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Q1) Cats are NOT able to detect:
A) saltiness.
B) sweetness.
C) bitterness.
D) sourness.
Q2) Which of the following neurotransmitters is the MOST likely source of reward in brain self-stimulation experiments?
A) serotonin
B) dopamine
C) acetylcholine
D) noradrenaline
Q3) Eating behavior in the fly is controlled by:
A) blood-sugar levels.
B) signals from the intestine.
C) signals from the esophagus.
D) signals from the stomach.
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Q1) Differentiate between generalized anxiety disorder,panic disorder,and phobias.
Q2) What are the effects of dorsolateral frontal-cortex lesions on motivated behavior in humans?
Q3) What is the concept of preparedness? Give a specific example of preparedness.
Q4) Compare and contrast regulatory and nonregulatory behaviors.List some specific examples of each.
Q5) What is the function of the amygdala in the experience of emotion?
Q6) What is a frontal lobotomy? What effects did this surgical procedure have on behavior?
Q7) Describe the role of the hypothalamus in initiating and stopping eating.
Q8) How does the hypothalamus influence sexual behavior?
Q9) What are the effects of amygdala lesions?
Q10) Describe the gustatory pathway from the taste receptors to the primary gustatory cortex.
35
Q11) What are the effects of hypothalamic stimulation on behavior? Is the behavior context dependent?
Q12) List the hormones (and their functions)that are produced by the anterior pituitary
Q13) What is the somatic marker hypothesis? What evidence supports this hypothesis?
Q14) Differentiate between the activating versus organizing effects of sex hormones.
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Q1) John is participating in a sleep study.While examining John's EEG pattern,the researcher notices that the waves are extremely regular,with a frequency of 7 to 11 Hz.Based on this observation the researcher can conclude that:
A) John is still wide awake and alert.
B) John is asleep.
C) John is dreaming.
D) John is awake but relaxed,with his eyes closed.
Q2) The data collected when subjects are awakened at various times suggest that _____ is the deepest sleep.
A) stage 1
B) stage 2
C) stage 3
D) stage 4
Q3) Daily fluctuations in the rhythmical movement of plant leaves come from:
A) temperature changes.
B) conditions within the plant.
C) sunlight changes.
D) changes in the electromagnetic field.
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Q1) What evidence supports the notion that memories are consolidated during sleep?
Q2) What is the reticular activating system,and what are its functions in relation to sleep and wakefulness?
Q3) What is a circadian rhythm? Give an example.
Q4) What are the main causes of insomnia?
Q5) List the most common Zeitgebers.Which is the most powerful for humans?
Q6) What is a free-running rhythm? Give an example.
Q7) What is restless legs syndrome?
Q8) Differentiate between alpha,beta,and delta brain rhythms.
Q9) What are Zeitgebers,and how do they affect biological rhythms? Give an example.
Q10) What are the symptoms of seasonal affective disorder? What is the main treatment?
Q11) Why does jet lag occur? Why is jet lag worse flying east than west?
Q12) Describe the coping hypothesis of dreams.
Q13) What cortical changes occur to the electroencephalogram when you awaken? What neurotransmitters are involved?
Q14) Differentiate between circannual,circadian,ultradian,and infradian rhythms.Give an Page 38
Q15) What is the genetic contribution to rhythmicity?
Q16) What is narcolepsy? How is it treated?
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an example of implicit memory?
A) You have not been on a bicycle for almost 10 years,but you can still ride one.
B) You have learned to associate a tone with a puff of air to your eye that causes an eye blink.
C) You figured out a word in your crossword puzzle more quickly because you overheard someone say the word this morning at work,even though you do not remember actually hearing it.
D) You remember the day that your coach taught you how to properly catch a baseball.
Q2) Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF):
A) increases the number of new neurons.
B) increases myelination.
C) increases the size of axons.
D) increases the number of dendrites and synapses.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of explicit learning?
A) Pavlov's classical conditioning
B) Thorndike's instrumental learning
C) Skinner's operant learning
D) None of the answers is correct.
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Q1) Richard's left arm was amputated 3 years ago after a workplace injury.Even though the limb is gone,Richard sometimes feels like he still has a left arm.In addition,when Richard shaves the left side of his face,it feels as though someone is touching his missing left arm.What mechanisms explain this strange phenomenon?
Q2) Differentiate between Pavlovian and instrumental conditioning.
Q3) What is Korsakoff syndrome? What is its primary cause?
Q4) What evidence supports the idea that the hippocampus is critical for spatial memory?
Q5) List H.M.'s memory deficits and his maintained memory systems following his neurosurgery.
Q6) Define drug-induced behavioral sensitization.Give an example.
Q7) Why are fear and eyeblink conditioning paradigms used for studying the brain?
Q8) What role do the frontal lobes play in memory? What happens following frontal lobe damage?
Q9) List and describe five of the guiding principles of brain plasticity mentioned in your text.
Q10) What are autobiographical memories? What brain regions are thought to underlie autobiographical memories?
Q11) What role do NMDA and AMPA receptors play in long-term potentiation (LTP)? Page 41
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Q1) In a study by Newsome and associates,monkeys were trained to discriminate directions of motion while researchers recorded from single neurons in area V5 that were sensitive to a specific direction of motion.According to the results of this experiment,which of the following options would result in the highest firing rate in a V5 neuron?
A) random dot movement
B) no dot movement
C) semicoordinated dot movement
D) The firing rate of the neuron would be the same in all conditions.
Q2) A person who once had knowledge about certain objects now loses visual knowledge of those objects and also other objects when his _____ is destroyed.
A) parietal cortex.
B) temporal cortex.
C) frontal cortex.
D) occipital cortex.
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Q1) What is a psychological construct? Why is it difficult to study psychological constructs in the brain?
Q2) What is the neural basis of consciousness? Why is consciousness so hard to study?
Q3) Why was Alex the parrot so unusual?
Q4) What have studies in split-brain patients taught us about language?
Q5) Describe the symptoms you would observe in a patient with a lesion to the temporal association cortex.
Q6) List the tasks that are better performed by females than males.
Q7) What is synesthesia? Give examples of some documented types of synesthesia.
Q8) What brain regions contribute to the control of attention?
Q9) Describe the anatomical asymmetries in the human brain.
Q10) Describe the Wisconsin Card Sorting Test.What does it measure? What types of brain lesions impair performance on this test?
Q11) What are cell assemblies? Why did Hebb think that they were so important?
Q12) What is contralateral neglect? What are its primary symptoms?
Q13) Describe the tasks that the right side of the brain does better than the left.
Q14) Differentiate between divergent and convergent intelligence.What brain regions are Page 44
associated with each of them?
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Q1) Compare and contrast the symptoms of focal and generalized seizures.
Q2) What are the symptoms and causes of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? What brain regions does it affect?
Q3) What are the symptoms and causes of phenylketonuria?
Q4) What is electroconvulsive therapy? Why is it used? How does it affect the brain?
Q5) What kinds of neurosurgeries have been used in treating Parkinson disease?
Q6) What is the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis? What role does it play in depression?
Q7) List at least five factors that may lead to the onset of seizures.
Q8) What processes following an ischemic stroke result in further brain damage?
Q9) What is the MOST common form of brain damage in people under 40?
Q10) What two kinds of behavioral effects result from traumatic brain injuries?
Q11) Differentiate between coup and contrecoup effects during a traumatic brain injury.Give an example.
Q12) What can happen if a person has multiple concussions throughout life?
Q13) What neurotransmitters appear to be involved in depression?
Q14) How is the brain of a person with schizophrenia different from the brain of a person Page 46
without it?
Q15) What is magnetic resonance spectroscopy? How is it used to diagnose traumatic brain injury?
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