Physiological Psychology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Physiological Psychology explores the intricate relationship between the brain, nervous system, and behavior. The course delves into how biological processes such as neural communication, hormonal regulation, and neurotransmitter function influence emotions, learning, memory, perception, motivation, and psychological disorders. By examining the physiological bases of cognitive and behavioral functions, students gain insight into how genetic, biochemical, and neural mechanisms contribute to normal and abnormal psychological phenomena. The course integrates foundational neuroscience concepts with psychological theory, emphasizing the application of research methods and experimental findings to understand the biological underpinnings of human behavior.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Human Neuropsychology 7th Edition by Bryan Kolb
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84 Chapters
2012 Verified Questions
2012 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Extension: A - The Development of Neuropsychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Descartes was an articulate proponent of _____.
A) monism
B) dualism
C) the cardiac hypothesis
D) nonmaterialism
Answer: B
Q2) The scientific discipline BEST associated with the development of intelligence tests is:
A) neurology.
B) psychosurgery.
C) psychometrics.
D) neuropsychology.
Answer Key
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following supported a cardiac hypothesis of behavior?
A) Plato
B) Galen
C) Aristotle
D) Hippocrates
Answer: C
Page 3
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Chapter 1: Extension: B - The Development of Neuropsychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hughlings - Jackson ___
A)apraxia
B)hierarchical organization
C)fluent aphasia
D)alexia
Answer: B
Q2) neuron hypothesis ___
A)Goltz
B)Ramón y Cajal
C)Hughlings-Jackson
D)Golgi
Answer: B
Q3) Discuss the ways statistics are useful in dealing with individual differences in neuropsychological experiments.
Answer: Statistics have allowed for seeing patterns of abilities in large samples, as in the use of frequency distributions. Such summaries of data led to the discovery of the normal distributions of abilities and allow for the more accurate quantification of individual differences in ability associated with brain dysfunction in various specific brain regions.
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Chapter 1: Extension: C - The Development of Neuropsychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cranioscopy was used for which purpose?
A) to surgically remove parts of the cerebral cortex
B) to excise subdural hematomas from the meninges of the brain
C) to measure the bumps and depressions of the skull
D) to observe the anatomical structures of an individual in a manner similar to the CAT scanner
Answer: C
Q2) Who first presented compelling evidence that the nervous system is composed of individual cells and is not a "nerve net"?
A) Golgi
B) Hughlings-Jackson
C) Ramón y Cajal
D) Goltz
Answer: C
Q3) According to Descartes, which human brain structure was the locus of the mind?
A) the prefrontal lobe
B) the pineal body
C) the medial forebrain bundle
D) the cerebellum
Answer: B
Page 5
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Chapter 2: Extension: A - Research on the Origins of the
Human Brain and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following evolutionary sequences is correct, based on the phylogenetic lineage described in the textbook?
A) striate cortex, large temporal lobes, large parietal lobes, large frontal lobes
B) large temporal lobes, large parietal lobes, large frontal lobes, striate cortex
C) striate cortex, large temporal lobes, large frontal lobes, large parietal lobes
D) large temporal lobes, striate cortex, large frontal lobes, large parietal lobes
Q2) I made simple stone tools. I am about 2 million years old. Louis Leakey found me in the Olduvai Gorge. My name is _____.
A) Australopithecus.
B) Homo erectus.
C) Homo habilis.
D) Homo sapiens.
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Chapter 2: Extension: B - Research on the Origins of the
Human Brain and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) both alleles' traits are expressed completely ___
A)dominant allele
B)recessive allele
C)codominance
D)X chromosome
Q2) H. habilis ___
A)toolmakers
B)appeared in the past 200,000 years
C)larger brain and migrated to Europe and Asia
D)smaller brain but probably used tools
Q3) Place approximate dates of emergence on the following: H. habilis, H. erectus, H. sapiens, cave paintings, agriculture, and reading and writing.
Q4) Distinguish between a genotype and phenotype.
Q5) Discuss some of the drawbacks to the idea that a correlation between brain size and intelligence is all one really needs to consider when trying to determine differences in intelligence in different species.
Q6) What are three types of animal studies that have made significant contributions to our understanding of the brain and behavior?
Page 7
Q7) What are the main differences between H. erectus and Australopithecus?
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Chapter 2: Extension: C - Research on the Origins of the
Human Brain and Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The MOST appropriate alternative for neoteny is_____.
A) chimpanzees
B) Louis Leakey
C) human adults, young chimps
D) southern ape
Q2) Which is NOT a type of research that is currently being performed to reconstruct the story of human evolution?
A) qualitative
B) behavioral
C) archaeological
D) epigenetics
Q3) The MOST appropriate alternative for Homo habilis is _____.
A) chimpanzees
B) Louis Leakey
C) human adults, young chimps
D) southern ape
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Chapter 3: Extension: A - Nervous System Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brain originates from a single cell termed a _____.
A) blast cell
B) neuron
C) mother cell
D) neural stem cell
Q2) Maps of the cortex based on the appearance of different cell types are termed _____ maps.
A) projection
B) cytoarchitectonic
C) functional
D) anatomical
Q3) Tract is to nerve as:
A) PNS is to CNS.
B) CNS is to PNS.
C) ANS is to PNS.
D) cranial nerves are to spinal nerves.
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Chapter 3: Extension: B - Nervous System Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Purkinje cell ___
A)axon bundle in the CNS
B)groups of cell bodies in the CNS
C)netlike
D)cerebellum
Q2) afferent ___
A)carries messages toward a given structure
B)on the same side
C)carries messages from a given structure
D)on the opposite side
Q3) Hughlings - Jackson ___
A)functional organization of the precentral gyrus
B)cytoarchitectonic map of human cortex
C)functional associations of dorsal and ventral roots r
D)function of the reticular formation
Q4) Brodmann ___
A)functional organization of the precentral gyrus
B)cytoarchitectonic map of human cortex
C)functional associations of dorsal and ventral roots r
D)function of the reticular formation
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Chapter 3: Extension: C - Nervous System Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The frontal lobes are formed from the _____.
A) prosencephalon
B) rhombencephalon
C) telencephalon
D) myelencephalon
Q2) Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by the _____.
A) oligodendroglia cells
B) Schwann cells
C) astrocytes
D) ependymal cells
Q3) Purkinje cells are located in the _____
A) reticular formation
B) cerebellum
C) corpus callosum
D) septum
Q4) Which type of cell is responsible for axonal insulation within the brain?
A) astrocytes
B) ependymal cells
C) Schwann cells
D) oligodendroglia cells
11
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Chapter 4: Extension: A - the Structure and Electrical
Activity of Neurons
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Sample Questions
Q1) Exocytosis is the process by which:
A) old neural cells are replaced with newly generated neurons.
B) cellular constituents are transferred from dendrites to axons of neurons.
C) proteins are taken up by neural cells from the extracellular environment.
D) proteins are released by cells into the extracellular environment.
Q2) It is currently held that humans have about _____ active genes.
A) 20,000-25,000
B) 8000-9000
C) 100,000-200,000
D) 2000-3000
Q3) Newly synthesized proteins are integrated into a membrane and "addressed" by the: A) Nissl substance.
B) Golgi apparatus.
C) lipofuscin granules.
D) mitochondria.
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Chapter 4: Extension: B - the Structure and Electrical
Activity of Neurons
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Sample Questions
Q1) microtubules ___
A)energy source
B)protein transport
C)degrades foreign substances
D)protein formation
Q2) Describe the interaction between concentration and voltage gradients in the establishment of the membrane potential.
Q3) Since ions are so small, why do they need special pores or channels to get through the neuronal membrane?
Q4) DNA ___
A)contains degrading enzymes; stores and moves wastes
B)contains genetic code for proteins
C)protein molecule assembly site
D)builds proteins
Q5) Compare and contrast graded potentials with action potentials.
Q6) Identify the main function for each of the following: mitochondria, tubules, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body, and lysosomes.
Page 13
Q7) Draw a simple diagram of a phospholipid bilayer, with "heads" and "tails" properly oriented.
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Chapter 4: Extension: C - the Structure and Electrical
Activity of Neurons
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Sample Questions
Q1) The resting charge in neurons is about _____.
A) +60 mV relative to the outside
B) -70 mV relative to the inside
C) +30 mV relative to the inside
D) -70 mV relative to the outside
Q2) The "power plants" of the cell, which provide most of the energy for cell functions, are the _____.
A) Golgi bodies
B) endoplasmic reticula
C) mitochondria
D) lysosomes
Q3) The flow of information through a neuron _____.
A) starts with the dendrites and ends with the terminal button
B) starts with the axon and ends with the dendrites
C) starts with the terminal button and ends with the dendrites
D) starts with the dendrites and ends with the axon
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Chapter 5: Extension: A - Communication Between Neurons
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some peptide neurotransmitters are made in the:
A) axon terminals.
B) mitochondria.
C) endoplasmic reticulum.
D) nucleus.
Q2) The cell bodies of the neurons of the major activating systems are located in the:
A) basal ganglia.
B) diencephalon.
C) frontal cortex.
D) brainstem.
Q3) Type II synapses are most often found on: A) muscle fibers.
B) dendritic spines.
C) astrocytes.
D) neuronal cell bodies.
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Chapter 5: Extension: B - Communication Between Neurons
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Sample Questions
Q1) locus coeruleus ___
A)norepinephrine
B)serotonin
C)dopamine
Q2) Identify, in correct order, the four steps in synaptic transmission.
Q3) acetylcholine ___
A)Viagra
B)Alzheimer's disease
C)Parkinson's disease
D)opium
Q4) glycine ___
A) if the substance is a classical neurotransmitter or
B) if it is a neuroactive peptide.
Q5) storage granules ___
A)vesicle clusters
B)postsynaptic potentials
C)neurotransmitter release
D)neurotransmitter molecule containers
Q6) Draw a representative neuron in the central nervous system, and identify the possible types of synapses that could occur on it.
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Chapter 5: Extension: C - Communication Between Neurons
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effects of the opiate drugs are MOST closely matched by _____.
A) acetylcholine
B) met-enkephalin
C) dopamine
D) histamine
Q2) The substance that Otto Loewi found to accelerate the heart was later identified as _____.
A) glutamate
B) acetylcholine
C) epinephrine
D) Vagusstoff
Q3) Which type of postsynaptic receptor does NOT contain a pore and acts indirectly?
A) holotropic
B) ionotropic
C) second messenger
D) metabotropic
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Chapter 6: Extension: A - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drug that is _____ is more readily absorbed from the stomach than one that is
A) weakly basic; weakly acidic
B) weakly acidic; weakly basic
C) insoluble; soluble
D) digestible; indigestible
Q2) Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) is an agonist of which endogenous neurotransmitter?
A) GABA
B) glutamate
C) dopamine
D) anandamide
Q3) Isbell et al. reported that research participants who drank alcohol steadily for 20 days showed _____ degrees of intoxication _____ blood alcohol levels due to _____.
A) increasing; but not; sensitization
B) increasing; and; sensitization
C) decreasing; and; tolerance
D) decreasing; but not; sensitization
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Chapter 6: Extension: B - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) heroin ___
A)adenosine agonist
B)opioid agonist
C)opioid antagonist
D)dopamine agonist
Q2) nalorphine ___
A)NMDA receptor
B)heroin antagonist
C)anandamide
D)liver enzymes
Q3) naloxone ___
A)adenosine agonist
B)opioid agonist
C)opioid antagonist
D)dopamine agonist
Q4) Why must certain chemicals be transported to neurons within the brain? How is this accomplished?
Q5) Identify the barriers that an injected drug must cross to reach the brain.
Q7) What is the blood-brain barrier? Page 19
Q6) Compare and contrast the actions of neurotransmitters and hormones.
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Chapter 6: Extension: C - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which kind of tolerance causes the body to create more enzymes to break a drug down?
A) learned
B) cellular
C) metabolic
D) desensitization
Q2) The substance MPTP, which caused "instant Parkinson's disease," was a selective neurotoxin that killed cells in the _____.
A) basal ganglia
B) amygdala
C) substantia nigra
D) motor cortex
Q3) Cannabis seems to act on receptors for the neurotransmitter _____.
A) psilocybin
B) serotonin
C) anandamide
D) glycine
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Page 21
Chapter 7: Extension: A - Imaging the Brains Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The basis for many dynamic imaging systems is that active brain regions _____.
A) are warmer than less active brain regions
B) consume more glucose than less active regions
C) have more dendrites than less active regions
D) move slightly more than less active regions.
Q2) Which of the following techniques provides the MOST specific spatial and temporal information about the relationship between neural function and behavior?
A) positron emission tomography
B) functional magnetic resonance imaging
C) computed tomography
D) single-cell recording
Answer Key
Q3) The fMRI technique makes use of activity - dependent changes in:
A) blood oxygen levels.
B) radioactive decay.
C) glucose accumulation.
D) myelin density.
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Chapter 7: Extension: B - Imaging the Brains Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) theta rhythm ___
A)aroused state
B)relaxed state
C)drowsy state
D)deep sleep
Q2) Describe the relative advantages of CT, PET, and MRI scans for medical applications.
Q3) What are the relative advantages and disadvantages of single - cell and electroencephalographic recording techniques?
Q4) alpha rhythm ___
A)aroused state
B)relaxed state
C)drowsy state
D)deep sleep
Q5) Describe how transcranial magnetic stimulation can affect neuronal function.
Q6) MRS ___
A)detects neurotransmitter molecules
B)detects subatomic particle annihilation events
C)detects induced magnetic fields from neural activity
D)detects energy emitted by spinning hydrogen ions
Page 23
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Chapter 7: Extension: C - Imaging the Brains Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a method of enhancing conventional X - ray radiography by taking advantage of the fact that X - rays are not absorbed by air?
A) pneumoencephalography
B) computerized tomography
C) positron emission tomography
D) magnetic resonance imaging
Q2) Which method induces changes in electrical activity in the brain?
A) electrical recording
B) brain stimulation
C) X-ray imaging
D) dynamic imaging
Q3) The generators for the EEG are pyramidal neurons in layers _____ of the cerebral cortex.
A) I and II
B) III and IV
C) V and VI
D) I and VI.
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Chapter 8: Extension: A - Organization of the Sensory Systems
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Q1) The peak of the traveling wave in the basilar membrane varies with the _____ of the sound.
A) intensity
B) location
C) frequency
D) duration
Q2) The axon terminal from LGN neurons project primarily to layer(s) _____ of area 17.
A) IV
B) II, III
C) V
D) VI
Q3) The output fibers forming the optic nerve from the retina are axons of:
A) bipolar neurons.
B) retinal ganglion cells.
C) rods.
D) cones.
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Chapter 8: Extension: B - Organization of the Sensory Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) visual cortex ___
A)orientation of head
B)voluntary eye movements
C)pupil size
D)pattern perception
Q2) free nerve endings ___
A)balance
B)proprioception
C)nociception
D)hapsis
Q3) frontal eye fields ___
A)orientation of head
B)voluntary eye movements
C)pupil size
D)pattern perception
Q4) pretectum ___
A)orientation of head
B)voluntary eye movements
C)pupil size
D)pattern perception
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Chapter 8: Extension: C - Organization of the Sensory Systems
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Q1) Neural _____ modify messages between the sensory receptors and the brain. A) receptive fields
B) relays
C) potentials
D) discharges
Q2) New research indicates that the experience of tasting a flavor is likely to be the result of neurons that respond:
A) to both olfaction and taste.
B) primarily to olfaction.
C) primarily to taste.
D) to both taste and the appearance of food.
Q3) The retina is to seeing as the _____ is to hearing.
A) round window
B) ear drum
C) organ of Corti
D) cochlea
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Page 27
Chapter 9: Extension: A - Organization of the Motor System
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Q1) Karl and Whishaw (2013) concluded that reaching for an object involves: _____ pathway(s) from _____ to _____.
A) a single; M1; the spinal cord
B) several; the basal ganglia; V1
C) two; V1; the parietal cortex and M1
D) a single; V1; M1
Q2) Neurons that respond both when the subject performs an action and when the subject observes the action being performed are called _____ neurons.
A) Renshaw
B) bipolar
C) mirror
D) copycat
Q3) Disruption of movement sequences, in the absence of muscle weakness, would follow lesions of the:
A) prefrontal cortex.
B) premotor cortex.
C) primary motor cortex.
D) reticular activating system.
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Chapter 9: Extension: B - Organization of the Motor System
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Q1) lateral corticospinal tract ___
A)synapse directly on muscles
B)control of body midline muscles
C)control of facial muscles
D)control of limbs and digits
Q2) posterior cortex ___
A)generation of specific movements
B)planning of movement
C)source of sensory information
D)sequencing of movement
Q3) Describe how motor cortex and corresponding parietal cortex topograghical regions produce movement.
Q4) Identify the four general regions of the neocortex thought to produce most voluntary movement.
Q5) Apostolos Georgopoulos ___
A)ethological categories of movement
B)cerebellum and timing of movements
C)movement direction-sensitive motor neurons
D)electrical mapping of motor cortex
Q6) Describe the feedback circuit that allows the cerebellum to correct movements.
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Chapter 9: Extension: C - Organization of the Motor System
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Q1) The planning of motor movements seems to be the primary responsibility of neural circuits in the _____.
A) premotor cortex
B) primary motor cortex
C) posterior cortex
D) prefrontal cortex
Q2) "Mirror neurons" got their name because they discharge:
A) only when a monkey sees another monkey or human make a movement.
B) when a monkey makes a movement or sees another monkey or person make that movement.
C) only when a monkey can see itself making a movement.
D) contralateral to the side of the body that makes the movement.
Q3) The lexicon of elementary hand and mouth motor movements is contained in the _____.
A) premotor cortex
B) posterior cortex
C) primary motor cortex
D) prefrontal cortex
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Chapter 10: Extension: A - Principles of Neurocortical Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The simplest functional unit of the cortex is hypothesized to be the: A) circuit.
B) layer.
C) column.
D) blob.
Q2) Jerison has suggested that there exists a positive correlation between the number of cortical maps and:
A) an organism's ability to navigate new spatial environments.
B) an animal's capacity for voluntary movements.
C) the complexity of emotional perception.
D) the complexity of sensorimotor perception.
Q3) Uncontrolled rage or laughter would signal a possible lesion in the area of the: A) amygdala.
B) cerebellum.
C) hypothalamus.
D) medulla.
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Chapter 10: Extension: B - Principles of Neurocortical Function
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Q1) What evidence suggests that the basic neural circuitry for walking includes spinal cord reflexes?
Q2) List the major differences between pyramidal cells and aspiny neurons.
Q3) Name the functional characteristics of the inputs to each of the six neocortical layers.
Q4) Zeki ___
A)cortical stimulation
B)hierarchical model
C)cortical maps
D)cortical modules
Q5) What are the behavioral similarities and differences between normal infants and mesencephalic infants, such as those examined by Gamper and Brackbill?
Q6) caudomedial auditory belt area ___
A)auditory and visual
B)auditory and somatosensory
C)auditory, visual, and somatosensory
Q7) Contrast Luria's model of cortical function with that of Felleman and van Essen.
Answer Key
Q8) What are cortical blobs? What are cortical barrels? Page 32
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Chapter 10: Extension: C - Principles of Neurocortical Function
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Q1) _____ are reciprocal feedback loops that play some role in amplifying or modulating cortical activity.
A) Ventral loops
B) Lateral loops
C) Cortical loops
D) Subcortical loops
Q2) The individual who first studied the development of myelin in the cortex was _____.
A) Bard
B) Gamper
C) Flechsig
D) Luria
Q3) Comparing Felleman and van Essen's distributed hierarchical model to Luria's simple serial hierarchical model of cortical processing, Luria's model suggests:
A) areas at each level are interconnected with one another.
B) the pattern of forward and backward connections determines hierarchical position.
C) some connections skip levels.
D) connectivity in sensory cortex is only from primary to secondary to tertiary.
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Page 34
Chapter 11: Extension: A - Cerebral Asymmetry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following tests shows a left - ear advantage?
A) backward speech
B) environmental sounds
C) difficult rhythms
D) vowels
Q2) Electric stimulation of the right temporal lobe cortex of a conscious patient can
A) produce localized movements
B) initiate déjà vu experiences
C) accelerate production of speech
D) increase the patient's IQ score
Q3) Which of the following factors does not usually influence laterality of function in humans?
A) genetics
B) gender
C) handedness
D) height
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Chapter 11: Extension: B - Cerebral Asymmetry
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Q1) What techniques permit the study of cerebral asymmetries in neurologically intact, or normal, individuals?
Q2) Doreen Kimura ___
A)planum temporale asymmetry
B)behavior of commissurotomy patients
C)brain stimulation of conscious patients
D)auditory system asymmetry
Q3) Explain how cerebral functions differ more by "site" than by "side."
Q4) Roger Sperry ___
A)planum temporale asymmetry
B)behavior of commissurotomy patients
C)brain stimulation of conscious patients
D)auditory system asymmetry
Q5) complex pitch perception ___
A) if there is typically a right-ear advantage
B) if there is typically a left-ear advantage
C) if there is no ear advantage.
Q6) Describe the effects of the amobarbital test administered to the left carotid artery in a right - handed patient with no history of brain damage.
Page 36
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Chapter 11: Extension: C - Cerebral Asymmetry
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Q1) Blindfolded subjects typically do better with the right hand at _____.
A) object recognition of nonsense shapes
B) Braille reading
C) object recognition of nonsense shapes and Braille reading
D) neither object recognition of nonsense shapes nor Braille reading
Q2) Kimura found evidence for a relationship between speech and hand movements when she observed that right - handed individuals:
A) gestured more with their right hands while speaking.
B) rubbed their noses more with their right hands while speaking.
C) gestured more with their left hands while speaking.
D) rubbed their noses more with their left hands while speaking.
Q3) Which of the following usually shows a right - ear advantage?
A) perceiving environmental sounds
B) perceiving rhythms
C) understanding backward speech
D) learning new memories
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Chapter 12: Extension: A - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry
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Q1) Map reading abilities in men would be expected to be best in the _____ when testosterone levels are _____.
A) evening; high
B) morning; high
C) evening; low
D) morning; low
Q2) Adjusted for body weight, male brains have_____ than female brains.
A) more cortical gyri
B) larger language areas
C) smaller cerebral ventricle
D) more neurons
Q3) Using writing as the criterion, approximately _____ % of the population appears to be left - handed.
A) 6
B) 16
C) 2
D) 10
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Chapter 12: Extension: B - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry
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Q1) susceptibility to apraxia following left frontal lesions ___
A) if it is truer for males than for females
B) if it is truer for females than for males
C) if there is no reliable sex difference.
Q2) What is the significance of a larger corpus callosum for cerebral asymmetry?
Q3) larger splenium of corpus callosum ___
A) if it is truer for males than for females
B) if it is truer for females than for males
C) if there is no reliable sex difference.
Q4) What explanations may account for the larger cross - sectional areas of the corpus callosum in left - handed individuals?
Q5) At least five cognitive abilities show sex - related differences. Name four.
Q6) What factors may account for the greater incidence of left - handedness in mentally disabled children?
Q7) How may hormonal effects during the fetal period contribute to the later development of male-female differences in cognitive performance?
Q8) Explain how Annett's theory of handedness predicts that the population consists of 12.5% left - handed people.
Q9) Describe the laterality of nonhearing people.
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Chapter 12: Extension: C - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry
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Q1) In men, compared with women, apraxia is more likely to be caused by damage to the _____ of the brain.
A) frontal left hemisphere
B) posterior left hemisphere
C) frontal right hemisphere
D) cingulate areas on both sides
Q2) Lateralization of functions in the two hemispheres becomes evident at ____ years of age and is substantial by _____ years of age.
A) 5; 13
B) 2; 5
C) 5; 6
D) 2; 6
Q3) Left - hemisphere dominance for song is:
A) characteristic of all songbirds.
B) surprisingly not characteristic of any songbirds.
C) characteristic of only some songbirds.
D) not seen in any animals because cerebral asymmetry is found only in humans.
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Chapter 13: Extension: A - The Occipital Lobes
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Q1) Cytochrome oxidase rich areas of V1 are called _____.
A) stripes
B) holes
C) blobs
D) barrels
Q2) Visual object recognition is most specifically a function of processing in the _____ stream.
A) dorsal
B) ventral
C) lateral
D) middle
Q3) In the Milner - Goodale model, which of the following visual areas projects directly to the parietal visual areas?
A) V1
B) V5
C) V2
D) V4
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Chapter 13: Extension: B - The Occipital Lobes
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Q1) associative agnosia ___
A)right medial occipitotemporal damage, including at the fusiform and lingual gyri
B)bilateral damage below the calcarine fissure at the temporal junction
C)anterior temporal lobe damage
D)bilateral lateral occipital lobe damage
Q2) Why may faces be "special" in terms of brain processing? Hint: you may wish to consider the evolution of brain and behavior in social primates. Answer Key
Q3) Why are small scotomas often unnoticed by persons with them?
Q4) Characterize the dorsal stream and the ventral stream in the Milner-Goodale model of cortical organization.
Q5) blind spot ___
A)inability to recognize faces
B)inability to recognize objects
C)inability to see more than one object at a time
D)inability to see due to naturally occurring lack of photoreceptors
Q6) What brain pathways may underlie blindsight?
Q7) Describe examples of how "our brains are organized around vision."
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Chapter 13: Extension: C - The Occipital Lobes
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Q1) The regions of cytochrome - rich areas in the occipital lobe are referred to as
A) lamina
B) striations
C) blobs or stripes
D) layers
Q2) A patient such as D.B., who is able to point accurately to locations that he does not report seeing, is demonstrating _____.
A) visual agnosia
B) cortical blindness
C) scintillating scotoma
D) nystagmus
Q3) Which region of the brain is associated with object analysis?
A) the lateral occipital
B) the superior temporal sulcus
C) the lateral intraparietal sulcus
D) the ventral intraparietal sulcus
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Chapter 14: Extension: A - The Parietal Lobes
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Q1) Patients with left parietal lesions typically have difficulty distinguishing between:
A) up and down.
B) right and wrong.
C) red and green.
D) left and right.
Q2) The supramarginal gyrus and angular gyrus make up the:
A) superior parietal lobe.
B) inferior parietal lobe.
C) primary somatosensory cortex.
D) postcentral gyrus.
Q3) Which of the following is more likely to be seen in subjects with left parietal lobe lesions?
A) paper cutting disability
B) more mistakes in Weigl's sorting test
C) unilateral neglect
D) cube counting errors
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Chapter 14: Extension: B - The Parietal Lobes
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Q1) anosognosia ___
A)inability to recognize objects by touch
B)inability to name and locate body parts
C)lack of awareness of one's own illness
D)inability to do arithmetic
Q2) Brodmann 1, 2, 3, 43 ___
A)greatly expanded in the human brain
B)anterior zone of parietal lobe
C)secondary somatosensory cortex
D)ventral border of the lateral parietal lobe
Q3) What are the three main symptoms originally described by Balint in 1909 that led to the concept of Balint's syndrome?
Q4) contralateral neglect ___
A)areas PF and PG of the left hemisphere
B)area PG of the right hemisphere
C)area PE
D)contralateral areas 1, 2, and 3
Q5) Discuss the significance of the expansion of the polymodal areas of PG and STS in humans.
Q6) What is the difference between astereognosis and simultaneous extinction?
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Chapter 14: Extension: C - The Parietal Lobes
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Q1) A patient shaves only one side of his face, reads only half of compound words, and dresses and uses only half of his body. Collectively, this patient is exhibiting symptoms of
A) topographic disability
B) anosagnosia
C) constructional apraxia
D) contralateral neglect
Q2) Apraxia is commonly found after damage to _____.
A) area PE
B) areas PF and PG in the left hemisphere
C) the cingulate gyrus
D) area PG in the right hemisphere
Q3) The close anatomical relationship between the parietal lobe and the prefrontal cortex is thought to be related to _____.
A) the elaboration of motor programs
B) grammatical constructions
C) spatially guided behavior
D) dissociation
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Chapter 15: Extension: A - The Temporal Lobes
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of temporal lobe cross - modal matching?
A) perceiving both the form and color of an object simultaneously
B) using the left hemisphere and the right hemisphere simultaneously to perceive a voice
C) making an association between the vocal characteristics and the face of a well-known pop singer
D) distinguishing among melodies played in the Lydian, Aeolian, and Locrian scales
Q2) Individual speech sounds are composed of characteristic groups of frequencies known as:
A) phonemes.
B) spectrograms
C) formants.
D) morphemes.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT thought to be a function of the temporal lobes?
A) processing of auditory input
B) control of visual tracking
C) visual object recognition
D) long-term memory formation
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Chapter 15: Extension: B - The Temporal Lobes
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Q1) Dichotic words or melodies ___
A)verbal memory
B)language comprehension
C)nonverbal memory
D)auditory processing
Q2) perception of facial features_____
A)parahippocampal place area
B)Heschl's gyrus
C)fusiform gyrus
D)Heschl's gyrus.
Q3) Identify the five projection pathways of neuronal connections in the temporal lobe of the monkey.
Q4) What are three ways in which speech differs from other auditory input?
Q5) Distinguish between loudness and timbre.
Q6) Wechsler Memory Scale ___
A)verbal memory
B)language comprehension
C)nonverbal memory
D)auditory processing
Q7) How would you know a temporal lobe personality if you met one?
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Chapter 15: Extension: C - The Temporal Lobes
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Q1) Liegeois - Chauvel and colleagues found that damage to the superior temporal gyrus leads to:
A) an inability to discriminate melodies.
B) an inability to recognize familiar faces.
C) apperceptive visual agnosia.
D) color blindness.
Q2) Damage to the superior temporal sulcus is often associated with a deficit in _____.
A) perceiving speech
B) perceiving biological motion
C) anterograde amnesia
D) interpreting auditory information
Q3) Peretz and Zatorre (2005) demonstrated that there is a difference in size in which brain structure between musicians and nonmusicians?
A) the superior temporal gyrus
B) Heschl's gyrus
C) the angular gyrus
D) the parahippocampal formation
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Chapter 16: Extension: A - The Frontal Lobes
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Q1) Patients with damage to the prefrontal cortex are likely to:
A) be distracted by external cues.
B) have impaired declarative memory.
C) have difficulty sequencing finger movements.
D) depend on internal cues to guide behavior.
Q2) The principal location of frontal - lobe damage that results in perseveration on the Wisconsin card - sorting test appears to be:
A) area 11.
B) area 9.
C) area 47.
D) the frontal eye fields.
Q3) The area that has been proposed as crucial for the programming of movement sequences is the:
A) premotor cortex.
B) orbital cortex.
C) primary motor cortex.
D) red nucleus.
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Chapter 16: Extension: B - The Frontal Lobes
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Q1) Define the following terms: prefrontal cortex, frontal eye fields, corollary discharge. How are the last two related?
Q2) Compare and contrast the effects of temporal and frontal lobe lesions on tests of recency memory.
Q3) What are two possible interpretations of Passingham's findings concerning area 46 lesions in monkeys?
Q4) Name four cognitive skills impaired by dorsolateral frontal cortex damage.
Q5) What is the "problem" for which the concept of corollary discharge is the "answer"?
Q6) How would you answer someone who asked, "Are the frontal lobes in primates the site of advanced mammalian behavior"?
Q7) convergent thinking ___
A)Wisconsin Card-Sorting test
B)standard IQ test
C)Word-Fluency test
D)delayed nonmatching to sample
Q8) What are the general effects of frontal lesions on divergent thinking? On convergent thinking?
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Chapter 16: Extension: C - The Frontal Lobes
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Q1) The dorsomedial nucleus of the thalamus projects to the region of the frontal lobe called the _____.
A) Broca's area
B) frontal eye field
C) prefrontal cortex
D) premotor cortex
Q2) The orbitofrontal cortex is another name for the _____.
A) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
B) inferior prefrontal cortex
C) medial frontal cortex
D) frontal eye field
Q3) Disturbances in _____ typically occur only after bilateral frontal - lobe damage.
A) verbal fluency
B) time orientation
C) understanding proverbs
D) verbal learning
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Chapter 17: Extension: A - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes
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Q1) Mishkin and his colleagues have extended the study of cortical disconnection to:
A) animal models using monkeys.
B) human split-brain subjects.
C) animal models using rats and mice.
D) computer simulations of behavior.
Q2) Most projections of the corpus callosum are:
A) organized topographically and project ipsilaterally.
B) diffusely distributed and project contralaterally.
C) organized topographically and project contralaterally.
D) organized homotopically and project subcortically.
Q3) In cases of agenesis of the corpus callosum, which of the following structures would you expect to be larger than normal?
A) the hippocampal commissure
B) the visual cortex (area 17)
C) the anterior commissure
D) fornix
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Chapter 17: Extension: B - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes
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Q1) How would Liepmann account for apraxia of the left hand only? (Hint: a diagram may prove useful.)
Q2) Explain the effects of early musical training on brain connectivity.
Q3) Speculate in an informed manner as to why the corpus callosum evolved. (Not all mammals have one, by the way-marsupials do not have a corpus callosum.)
Q4) What is the proposed relationship between disconnection syndromes and the phenomenon of contralateral neglect?
Q5) Sperry ___
A)constructed animal models of disconnection syndromes
B)hypothetized conduction aphasia
C)studied "split-brain" patients
D)defined disconnection syndromes
Q6) What is meant by the term topographic with respect to callosal organization?
Q7) Explain why a split - brain patient will have difficulty copying a geometric design with his right hand.
Q8) Identify the three major types of fiber pathways found in the neocortex.
Q9) What is the "zipper hypothesis"?
Q10) Could one reproduce Downer's experiment with commissurotomy patients? If no, Page 54
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Chapter 17: Extension: C - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes
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Q1) The anterior portion of the corpus callosum is called the _____.
A) splenium
B) uncinate
C) rostrum
D) genu
Q2) The incidence rate of agenesis of the corpus callosum is:
A) 1 per 100,000.
B) 5 per 1000.
C) 5 per 100,000.
D) 1 per 1000.
Q3) Preilowski (1975) performed an experiment in which he required commissurized patients to draw a diagonal line using the popular children's toy Etch A Sketch. What was being tested in this experiment?
A) artistic abilities
B) the ability to use both hands in concert
C) divergent thinking
D) spatial abilities
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Chapter 18: Extension: A - Learning and Memory
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Q1) "Delay cells" in the prefrontal cortex described by Fuster and Goldman - Rakic are active during:
A) fear conditioning.
B) mirror-tracing tasks.
C) tactile working memory tasks.
D) visuospatial working memory tasks.
Q2) H.M. became amnesic as a result of:
A) surgery for epilepsy.
B) a brain infection.
C) an automobile accident.
D) bilateral ischemic strokes.
Q3) Enhanced neural activity during the delay phase of a task requiring short - term memory for the location of a stimulus in space would MOST likely be observed in the: A) primary visual cortex.
B) orbitofrontal cortex.
C) frontal eye fields.
D) superior temporal cortex.
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Chapter 18: Extension: B - Learning and Memory
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Q1) What is the reasoning behind the recommendation that students can improve their exam scores if they study by writing out the material to be learned?
Q2) Distinguish between episodic and semantic memory, and give an example of each.
Q3) dentate gyrus ___
A)location of granule cells
B)neocortex-hippocampus pathway
C)location of pyramidal cells
D)hippocampus-thalamus pathway
Q4) What is the evidence for a neural mechanism for working memory in the frontal cortex?
Q5) Characterize the differences between left and right temporal lobe damage with respect to amnesic symptoms.
Q6) diencephalon ___
A)episodic memory
B)confabulation
C)emotional coloring
D)recognition memory
Q7) In what ways is H.M.'s amnesic condition similar to that of a patient with Korsakoff's syndrome? In what ways is it different?
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Chapter 18: Extension: C - Learning and Memory
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Q1) Which question would be most difficult for H.M. to answer correctly?
A) What was your mother's maiden name?
B) How many days are there in 3 weeks?
C) Did you have any visitors the day before yesterday?
D) What is the sum of 6 plus 12?
Q2) H.M.'s performance on the mirror - drawing task demonstrates his ability to display
A) implicit memory formation
B) anterograde amnesia
C) logical reasoning
D) priming
Q3) The _____ connects the hippocampus with the posterior neocortex.
A) perforant pathway
B) fimbria fornix
C) hippocampal commissure
D) stria terminalis
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Chapter 19: Extension: A - Language
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Q1) A patient who can comprehend speech, produce meaningful speech, and repeat speech but has great difficulty in finding the names of objects likely has sustained damage to the:
A) posterior parietal lobe.
B) inferior frontal lobe.
C) inferior temporal lobe.
D) superior temporal lobe.
Q2) The most appropriate diagnosis for a 10 - year - old child who continually makes mistakes in reading aloud, such that semantically related words are substituted for the printed word (e.g., "puppy" is read as "dog" and "woman" is read as "mother"), would be:
A) attentional dyslexia.
B) word aphasia.
C) phonological dyslexia.
D) deep dyslexia.
Q3) Aphasias are most commonly seen following blockage of the _____ cerebral artery.
A) right-posterior
B) left-anterior
C) left-middle
D) right-middle
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Chapter 19: Extension: B - Language
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Q1) With regards to the dual language model, compare and contrast the roles of the dorsal and ventral language pathways
Q2) Describe how the evolution of the vocal tract has resulted in a much greater ability on the part of humans, compared with apes, to produce speech sounds.
Q3) How does the dual - route theory account for deep and surface dyslexia subtypes?
Answer Key
Q4) passive viewing of words ___
A)left inferofrontal cortex
B)left inferotemporal cortex
C)Broca's area
D)left visual cortex
Q5) alexia ___
A)unintended word production
B)word-finding deficit
C)muscular incoordination
D)reading deficit
Q6) Distinguish, on the basis of the type of language errors produced, among fluent aphasia, nonfluent aphasia, and word deafness.
Q7) Explain the simplicity of the Wernicke - Geschwind model?
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Chapter 19: Extension: C - Language
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Q1) Which neurosurgeon is responsible for mapping the language areas of the human cortex through the use of electrical stimulation given to patients before surgery?
A) Wernicke
B) Damasio
C) Penfield
D) Geschwind
Q2) The ability to _____ is least important for language formation.
A) categorize
B) form sounds
C) sequence behaviors
D) label categories
Q3) An imaging study done by Damasio et al. (1996) demonstrated that:
A) both temporal lobes are functionally symmetrical in nonhuman animals.
B) phylogenetically the temporal lobe was the last part of the brain to develop.
C) temporal lobe seizures actually begin in the basal ganglia.
D) there are separate regions in the temporal lobe for the storage of different categories of information.
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Chapter 20: Extension: A - Emotion and the Social Brain
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Q1) Studies of social cognition have revealed which of the following with respect to amygdala function?
A) Bilateral amygdala lesions lead to deficits in processing negative emotions.
B) Right hemisphere unilateral amygdala lesions lead to deficits in processing positive emotions.
C) Left hemisphere unilateral amygdala lesions lead to deficits in processing positive emotions.
D) Bilateral amygdala lesions lead to deficits in processing positive emotions.
Q2) The observation that people with spinal injuries report reduced experiences of emotion has been taken to support the:
A) Cannon-Bard theory.
B) cognitive-emotional interaction theory.
C) left-hemisphere interpreter theory.
D) somatic marker hypothesis.
Q3) A normal subject would show a left - ear advantage when listening to:
A) the sounds of a crying baby.
B) a narrated fairy tale.
C) Morse code.
D) the sounds of a crying baby, a narrated fairy tale, and Morse code.
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Chapter 20: Extension: B - Emotion and the Social Brain
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Q1) frequency of aprosodia ___
A) if the behavior listed is more likely to be impaired by left-hemisphere lesions
B) if it is more likely to be impaired by right-hemisphere lesions.
Q2) You are giving a lecture to an introductory class in neuropsychology. How do you define emotion for your students?
Q3) Identify five (or more) characteristics of the temporal - lobe personality.
Q4) What are the major symptoms of the Klüver-Bucy syndrome?
Q5) Describe the four behavioral components of emotion, as described by the text.
Q6) What are the key neural structures in the original (1937) Papez circuit? What structures have been added in the more current "limbic circuit of emotion"?
Q7) Joseph LeDoux ___
A)cognitive-emotional interaction theory
B)cognitive asymmetry of emotion
C)somatic marker hypothesis
D)left-hemisphere cognitive interpreter
Q8) How might social and emotional behaviors differ between a person whose prefrontal cortex had been damaged early in childhood and one who had sustained similar damage in adulthood?
Page 64
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Chapter 20: Extension: C - Emotion and the Social Brain
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Q1) A bilateral anterior temporal lobectomy in monkeys (and in at least one human case) produces a syndrome that includes _____.
A) amnesia
B) lack of sexual desire
C) tameness
D) aggression
Q2) With respect to cognitive control of emotions either up or down regulation, which of the following brain regions have been implicated?
A) the prefrontal cortex and anterior cingulate
B) the hypothalamus and amygdala
C) the medial thalamus and anterior cingulate
D) the hippocampus and prefrontal cortex
Answer Key
Q3) Hypergraphia, hypermoralism, and sense of personal destiny are all characteristics of _____.
A) frontal lobe lesions
B) the "temporal lobe" personality
C) the catastrophic reaction of left-hemisphere damage
D) paranoid schizophrenia
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Chapter 21: Extension: A - Spatial Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the study by Maguire and colleagues, increases in the volume of gray matter in the right posterior hippocampus were positively correlated with the:
A) topographical memory ability of taxi drivers.
B) autobiographical memory ability of taxi drivers.
C) semantic memory of taxi drivers.
D) degree of autonomic arousal while watching Taxi Driver.
Q2) The failure to identify individual landmarks while retaining the ability to identify the classes of objects to which the landmarks belong is an example of:
A) Bálint's syndrome.
B) landmark agnosia.
C) topographic amnesia.
D) egocentric disorientation.
Q3) In the context of spatial behavior, the term "egocentric" refers to the localization of environmental stimuli with reference to:
A) prominent, unchanging landmarks.
B) one's own body.
C) one's sense of self-importance.
D) imagined landmarks.
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Chapter 21: Extension: B - Spatial Behavior
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Q1) Goldman - Rakic ___
A)head-direction cells
B)parietal lobe role in spatial memory
C)frontal lobe role in spatial memory
D)hippocampal place cells
Q2) What is the relationship between hippocampal size and food storing in birds?
Q3) landmark agnosia ___
A)inability to determine a direction of movement
B)inability to use prominent environmental features for orientation
C)difficulty perceiving the relative location of objects with respect to self
D)inability to remember topographic relations among landmarks
Q4) Discuss the role of temporal lobe structures in spatial behavior.
Q5) egocentric disorientation ___
A)inability to determine a direction of movement
B)inability to use prominent environmental features for orientation
C)difficulty perceiving the relative location of objects with respect to self
D)inability to remember topographic relations among landmarks
Q6) Describe the reported interaction between reasoning skills and sex on the performance of tasks requiring spatial skills.
Q7) What are the main symptoms of Bálint's syndrome?
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Chapter 21: Extension: C - Spatial Behavior
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Q1) Moving toward a cue or object (route following) is also called:
A) head direction.
B) cue learning.
C) GPS navigation.
D) topographic learning.
Q2) The studies conducted on food caching in birds demonstrates that:
A) birds with frontal lobe lesions show no difficulty in finding the seeds that they have cached.
B) African and Asian birds are more likely to use dead reckoning to find their cache sites.
C) birds who cache seeds have a larger hippocampus.
D) testosterone is crucial to producing birdsong and also to remembering cache sites.
Q3) Research by Maguire and others suggests that females are more likely to use _____ in navigation than are males.
A) common sense
B) landmarks
C) dead reckoning
D) compasses
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Chapter 22: Extension: A - Attention and Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kolb and Whishaw suggest that when we multitask, we recruit additional resources from which brain region?
A) the parietal cortex
B) the prefrontal cortex
C) the hippocampus
D) the occipital lobe
Q2) If a monkey is required to pay attention to the color and form of a stimulus in particular, Corbetta and colleagues found that _____ cortex(ices) is(are) activated.
A) the parietal
B) the occipitotemporal
C) both the parietal and occipitotemporal
D) neither the parietal nor the occipitotemporal
Q3) Attentional Blink is a phenomenon characterized by the individual failing to detect a second visual stimulus that is presented _____ milliseconds after the first stimulus.
A) 250
B) 500
C) 750
D) 100
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Chapter 22: Extension: B - Attention and Consciousness
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Q1) Define parallel processing and serial processing. Explain how they work together in feature searches.
Q2) Regarding the cerebral source of consciousness, discuss which brain regions have been identified as crucial to conscious behavior.
Q3) What evolutionary advantage might there be for faster detection of sad versus happy faces?
Q4) How do the results of the Corbetta et al. study shed light on the finding that patients with right - posterior parietotemporal lesions show more pronounced contralateral neglect than do patients with left - hemisphere lesions?
Q5) Distinguish between frontal lobe neglect and parietal lobe neglect.
Q6) Why does finding a target with an extra feature take less time than finding one that lacks a common feature?
Q7) What are the paradigms of inattention?
Q8) Describe the role of selective attention in the neural responses of the monkey in the experiment by Moran and Desimone.
Q9) What constitutes a feature?
Q10) Define "bottom - up" processing and "top - down" processing. Give an example of each.
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Chapter 22: Extension: C - Attention and Consciousness
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Q1) A key aspect of the reticular activating system (RAS) is the _____ projection from the locus coeruleus.
A) dopaminergic
B) serotonergic
C) noradrenergic
D) cholinergic
Q2) Summarizing several studies, Corbetta and colleagues found that the parietal cortex is particularly active during tasks that require attention to _____.
A) movement
B) color
C) location
D) distance from the animal
Q3) The _____ works with the executive attentional network to keep unattended stimuli outside of conscious awareness.
A) amygdala
B) superior temporal gyrus
C) posterior parietal cortex
D) fusiform face area
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Chapter 23: Extension: A - Brain Development and Plasticity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neuroimaging studies of children with childhood - onset schizophrenia show a _____ in cortical gray volume.
A) 10 percent decrease
B) 30 percent decrease
C) 10 percent increase
D) 30 percent increase
Q2) A study of Romanian orphans showed that infants adopted at 18 months or older tended to have IQs that were _____ points lower than average.
A) 2
B) 5
C) 15
D) 25
Q3) The two events that take place in the development of a dendrite are _____ and the growth of dendritic spines.
A) synaptic pruning
B) atheosis
C) arborization
D) myelogenesis
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Chapter 23: Extension: B - Brain Development and Plasticity
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Q1) How might the developmental course of myelination be related to the maturation of motor skills?
Q2) holoprosencephaly ___
A)aborted cell migration of gray matter
B)absence of cerebral hemispheres, diencephalon, and midbrain
C)failure to form sulci and gyri
D)single undifferentiated hemisphere
Q3) lissencephaly ___
A)aborted cell migration of gray matter
B)absence of cerebral hemispheres, diencephalon, and midbrain
C)failure to form sulci and gyri
D)single undifferentiated hemisphere
Q4) Why would it be beneficial to provide regular tactile stimulation to an infant who had suffered a cortical lesion?
Q5) Why is cell death such an important part of the development of the brain?
Q6) What is the role of radial glial cells in neuron cell migration?
Q7) What are the three critical age divisions related to the effects of brain lesions on cognitive abilities, and how do they differ?
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Q8) How is the adolescent brain different from that of a child and that of an adult?
Chapter 23: Extension: C - Brain Development and Plasticity
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Q1) Which is the last to occur in the development of the brain?
A) cell maturation
B) cell migration
C) synaptogenesis
D) myelogenesis
Q2) Which disorder is LEAST likely to be seen following left - hemisphere lesions in childhood?
A) acalculia
B) writing disorders
C) mutism
D) articulatory disorders
Q3) Studies demonstrate that parietal regions controlling spatial and language abilities mature at which age?
A) 7 to 10 years
B) 11 to 13 years
C) 3 to 5 years
D) 14 to 17 years
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Chapter 24: Extension: A - Neurodevelopmental Disorders
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Q1) The male - to - female ratio in autism is about:
A) 2 to 1.
B) 3 to 1.
C) 4 to 1.
D) 6 to 1.
Q2) The Geschwind-Galaburda hypothesis suggests that _____ is(are) responsible for an asymmetric development of the cerebral hemispheres in males.
A) abnormal CSF flow patterns
B) early brain trauma
C) fetal testosterone
D) left-handedness
Q3) Because reading is central to success in school _____ is central to the study of neurodevelopmental disorders.
A) strephosymbolia
B) dyslexia
C) learning disabilities
D) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
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Chapter 24: Extension: B - Neurodevelopmental Disorders
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Q1) Distinguish between cerebral palsy and hydrocephalus.
Q2) What is the basic premise of the Geschwind-Galaburda hypothesis? Do you find any flaw in this premise?
Q3) How do the feelings of learning - disabled persons toward school differ from the feelings of nonlearning - disabled persons toward school? Why do you think that may be?
Q4) What are some early signs that a child may have an autism spectrum disorder?
Q5) Bradley and Bryant ___
A)sluggish attention shifting
B)deficiency in phonemic awareness
C)too rapid presentation of sounds
D)cerebral palsy
Q6) What is the birthday effect?
Q7) Ruffino ___
A)sluggish attention shifting
B)deficiency in phonemic awareness
C)too rapid presentation of sounds
D)cerebral palsy
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Q8) What does the research of Tallal suggest is a leading cause of learning disabilities?
Chapter 24: Extension: C - Neurodevelopmental Disorders
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Q1) _____ is a term describing unusual reading ability in otherwise cognitively impaired persons, such as children with autism.
A) Hypsography
B) Hyperlexia
C) Hypergraphia
D) Hypolexia
Q2) Developmentally dyslexic individuals tend to score low on which subtest of the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children?
A) picture completion
B) arithmetic
C) object assembly
D) vocabulary
Q3) Boys are NOT diagnosed more with _____ than girls.
A) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
B) fragile-X syndrome
C) autism
D) acquired dyslexia
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Chapter 25: Extension: A - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of
the Adult Brain
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Q1) _____ reflects brain changes that are necessary to modify neuronal ensembles that are already present.
A) Long-term potentiation
B) Experience-dependent plasticity
C) Kindling
D) Experience-expectant plasticity
Q2) Ramachandran and Hirstein found that following hand amputations the cortical map of the hand could be detected by stroking the:
A) opposite hand.
B) face.
C) ear lobes.
D) arm.
Q3) Teuber found, in his study of brain - damaged vets, that the poorest recovery rates were in those soldiers who suffered:
A) motor deficits.
B) visual field deficits.
C) dysphasia.
D) somatosensory deficits.
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Chapter 25: Extension: B - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain
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Q1) Why did a brain - injured motorcycle racer show drastic improvement in both attitude and recovery after he was given a large tricycle on which to ride around?
Q2) Elbert et al. ___
A)musical scale in musicians
B)grasp techniques
C)human synapse
D)focal hand dystonia
Q3) What is the relationship between age at time of brain injury and recovery? What is disheartening about Teuber's analysis of this relationship?
Q4) Your patient is a well - educated woman of forty - five. She experienced a lefthemisphere stroke three weeks ago that has caused moderate aphasia. What is your counsel for your patient and her family?
Q5) Jacobs et al. ___
A)musical scale in musicians
B)grasp techniques
C)human synapse
D)focal hand dystonia
Q6) What evidence is there that motor maps can be modified by experience?
Page 79
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Chapter 25: Extension: C - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain
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Q1) Which type of therapy for brain injury involves stimulating the production of new neurons in the brain?
A) constraint-induced movement therapy
B) community neurorehabilitation
C) stem-cell induction
D) pharmacological therapy
Q2) _____ is the loss of motor control of one or more digits because of increased muscle tone.
A) Focal hand dystonia
B) Long-term potentiation
C) Metaplasticity
D) Kindling
Q3) Following limb amputations, the original map of the missing limb has been found to _____.
A) disappear slowly over time
B) become relocated to other body regions
C) remain more or less constant
D) appear intact, but in the other hemisphere
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Chapter 26: Extension: A - Neurological Disorders
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Q1) The corpus callosum is particularly vulnerable to damage following:
A) migraine stroke.
B) open-head trauma.
C) closed-head trauma.
D) embolism
Q2) Incidence of traumatic brain injury is highest among:
A) older females.
B) younger females.
C) older males.
D) younger males.
Q3) The MOST frequent cause(s) of cerebral hemorrhage is(are):
A) migraine attacks.
B) hypertension.
C) arteriosclerosis.
D) leukemia.
Q4) The MOST benign type of brain tumor is:
A) meningioma.
B) metastatic tumor.
C) medulloblastoma.
D) glioblastoma.
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Chapter 26: Extension: B - Neurological Disorders
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Q1) hematoma ___
A)abnormal blood vessels
B)accumulation of fluid
C)transient ischemia
D)blood trapped under skull
Q2) sleep apnea ___
A)unilateral section of spinal cord
B)not breathing during sleep
C)extensor plantar response
D)emotional excitement
Q3) How is the length of posttraumatic amnesia used to measure the severity of brain injury? What method might be used if the patient remained unconscious?
Q4) Identify the types of secondary - brain injury that can occur with closed - head injuries.
Q5) How does caffeine, in conjunction with ergotamine compounds, alleviate headaches? What explanation do the authors give for the fact that caffeine can also exacerbate some headaches?
Q6) What is the difference between an angioma and an aneurysm?
Q7) Distinguish among the following: sleep attacks, cataplexy, and sleep paralysis.
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Chapter 26: Extension: C - Neurological Disorders
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Q1) A clot or other plug that is brought through the blood to a point where it blocks a smaller blood vessel is called an _____.
A) embolism
B) aneurysm
C) infarct
D) ischemia
Q2) An individual who sustains a traumatic brain injury will most likely develop a contusion at the point of impact, termed a:
A) contrecoup.
B) coma.
C) coup.
D) hematoma.
Q3) Brain tumors referred to as "encapsulated" are characterized by which of the following?
A) The tumor has not infiltrated the healthy brain tissue.
B) The tumor has produced displacement of brain structures due to compression.
C) The tumor was the result of a metastasis.
D) The tumor resulted from glial cells that infiltrated the brain substance.
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Chapter 27: Extension: A - Psychiatric and Related Disorders
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Q1) The symptoms of schizophrenia suggest that underlying brain abnormalities are likely to be:
A) restricted to areas concerned with language.
B) heterogeneous.
C) in the temporal/parietal area.
D) the same in every patient
Q2) Which is NOT a characteristic of schizophrenia?
A) hallucinations
B) delusions
C) bizarre behaviors
D) mania
Q3) The hormone that appears to be oversecreted in depression is:
A) BDNF.
B) cortisol.
C) testosterone.
D) thyroxine.
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Chapter 27: Extension: B - Psychiatric and Related Disorders
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Q1) Moniz ___
A)modern psychosurgery
B)cognitive behavioral therapy
C)Parkinson's disease
D)bipolar disorder
Q2) What are the five putative causes of Alzheimer's disease, based on the text?
Q3) Name two abnormalities of cellular structure found in the brains of schizophrenic patients.
Q4) Distinguish between Huntington's disease and Parkinson's disease in terms of the neurotransmitter abnormalities suspected to underlie the symptoms for each condition.
Q5) According to the textbook, what three factors make the sensitization model of bipolar disorder intriguing for understanding bipolar disorder?
Q6) Distinguish between type I and type II schizophrenia, according to the text.
Q7) What are the main anatomical correlates of Alzheimer's disease?
Q8) Identify the four neurotransmitters thought to be involved in Huntington's disease. Hyperactivity in which of these is most likely to produce the characteristic abnormal movements?
Page 85
Q9) What are the symptoms and underlying brain changes in Parkinson's disease?
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Chapter 27: Extension: C - Psychiatric and Related Disorders
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Q1) One of the paper - and - pencil tests that reveals deficits in the memories of patients with Tourette's syndrome is the _____ test.
A) Wechsler IQ
B) draw-a-man
C) Rey Complex-Figure
D) backward digits
Q2) The abnormal movements seen in adults with Huntington's disease are thought to be caused by the hyperactivity of neurons secreting _____.
A) dopamine
B) acetylcholine
C) GABA
D) B-APP
Q3) Which region shows a decrease in blood flow and metabolism in depressed patients?
A) the amygdala
B) the medial thalamus
C) the ventromedial prefrontal area
D) the orbital prefrontal area
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Chapter 28: Extension: A - Neuropsychological Assessment
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Q1) The combination of neuropsychological test development and imaging techniques has led to an understanding of the role of the right frontal lobe in:
A) social cognition.
B) visual acuity.
C) verbal memory.
D) spatial memory.
Q2) Which is NOT a goal of assessment in clinical neuropsychology?
A) diagnosing the presence or absence of brain damage
B) facilitating patient care
C) identifying unusual brain organization
D) classifying disorders.
Q3) A patient with closed - head brain injury goes to see a neuropsychologist. To assess the nature and extent of disability, the doctor has the patient undergo:
A) functional imaging.
B) the Wechsler Memory Scale.
C) a thorough neuropsychological assessment.
D) composite test batteries.
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Chapter 28: Extension: B - Neuropsychological Assessment
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Q1) memory ___
A)finger tapping
B)consonant trigrams test
C)Wide Range Achievement Test
D)cow-and-circle test
Q2) Identify four of the tests for memory functions in the Boston Process Approach.
Q3) Identify two of the tests for intellectual and conceptual functions in the Boston Process Approach.
Q4) Name six frequently used categories of neuropsychological testing, as identified by Zillmer and Spiers.
Q5) What are Groth - Marnat's four suggestions for psychologists dealing with managed health care?
Q6) conceptual functions ___
A)Proteus Maze Test
B)Rey Complex-Figure Test
C)automobile puzzle
D)Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test
Q7) In the Boston Process Approach to neuropsychological testing, what tests are used to evaluate self - control and motor functions?
88
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Chapter 28: Extension: C - Neuropsychological Assessment
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Q1) Which is NOT part of the Boston Process Approach?
A) the Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test
B) the Consonant trigrams test
C) the Proteus Maze Test
D) the Luria-Nebraska Battery
Q2) Household income predicts _____.
A) IQ scores
B) achievement scores
C) both IQ scores and achievement scores
D) neither IQ scores nor achievement scores
Q3) The Wechsler scales are used to assess _____.
A) motor performance
B) intelligence
C) epilepsy
D) presence of tumors
Q4) Warrington and her colleagues found that lesions of the _____ hemisphere depress verbal IQs.
A) left
B) right
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