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Physiological Psychology Exam Review - 2676 Verified Questions

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Physiological Psychology Exam Review

Course Introduction

Physiological Psychology explores the biological foundations of behavior, emphasizing the relationship between the brain, nervous system, and psychological processes. The course covers the structure and function of neurons, neural communication, and the organization of the nervous system. Key topics include the physiological bases of sensation, perception, learning, memory, emotion, motivation, and mental disorders. Through examining how hormones, neurotransmitters, and brain structures influence behavior, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how physiological mechanisms underlie psychological phenomena and contribute to individual differences in behavior and cognition.

Recommended Textbook

Biopsychology 9th Edition by John P.J.

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18 Chapters

2676 Verified Questions

2676 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter

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Sample Questions

Q1) Scientists study past ice ages, evolution, neural inhibition, gravity, evaporation, and thinking by

A) neuroscience.

B) scientific inference.

C) generalization.

D) operational sets.

E) direct observation.

Answer: B

Q2) A term that refers to higher intellectual processes such as thought, memory, and attention is

A) "cognition."

B) "motivation."

C) "emotions."

D) "prosody."

E) "IQ."

Answer: A

Q3) The __________ effect refers to the fact that a copulating male that becomes incapable of continuing to copulate with one sex partner can often recommence copulating with a new sex partner.

Answer: Coolidge

Page 3

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Chapter 2: Evolution, Genetics, and Experience: Thinking About the Biology of Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the study of heritability estimates, increasing the genetic diversity of the subjects without introducing other changes would likely

A) decrease the heritability estimate.

B) confound the experiment.

C) increase the accuracy of the heritability estimate.

D) reduce the accuracy of the heritability estimate.

E) increase the heritability estimate.

Answer: E

Q2) Which of the following disorders was discovered by Asbjörn Fölling, a Norwegian dentist?

A) schizophrenia

B) Korsakoff's syndrome

C) phenylketonuria

D) Parkinsonism

E) Down syndrome

Answer: C

Q3) Social dominance plays a role in evolution because dominant animals tend to produce more __________.

Answer: offspring

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Chapter 3: The Anatomy of the Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The caudal part of the forebrain is the A) telencephalon.

B) diencephalon.

C) myelencephalon.

D) reticular formation.

E) midbrain.

Answer: B

Q2) The dura mater, arachnoid membrane, and pia mater are A) neurons.

B) neuroglia.

C) parts of the autonomic nervous system.

D) meninges.

E) myelin.

Answer: D

Q3) Compare Golgi and Nissl neuroanatomical stains, emphasizing the strengths and weaknesses of each.

Answer: 25% for describing Golgi staining

25% for describing Nissl staining

50% for comparing the strengths and weaknesses of the two stains

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Neural Conduction and Synaptic Transmission

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Sample Questions

Q1) Endorphins are

A) neuropeptides.

B) monoamines.

C) cholinergic.

D) adrenergic.

E) serotonergic.

Q2) A ligand of acetylcholine is a substance that

A) binds to acetylcholine.

B) stimulates acetylcholine's synthesis.

C) facilitates acetylcholine's release.

D) degrades acetylcholine.

E) inhibits acetylcholine.

Q3) Discuss three ways that drugs produce agonistic effects and three ways that they produce antagonistic effects. Provide specific examples.

Q4) The end of the rising phase of an action potential occurs when the A) sodium channels close.

B) sodium channels open.

C) potassium channels open.

D) potassium channels close.

E) both A and D

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Chapter 5: The Research Methods of Biopsychology

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a commonly used measure of the sexual receptivity of female rats?

A) postejaculatory interval

B) mount frequency

C) lordosis quotient

D) number of intromissions to ejaculation

E) number of ejaculations to intromission

Q2) If you were startled by a loud noise, there would be an increase in your skin's conductance of electricity. This response is called

A) a skin conductance response.

B) an EKG.

C) a skin conductance level.

D) an average evoked potential.

E) a P300 wave.

Q3) Most radial arm mazes have

A) 8 or more arms radiating out from a central starting area.

B) 8 or more arms radiating out from a central goal area.

C) 8 arms that continuously revolve.

D) no goal areas.

E) no starting area.

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Chapter 6: The Visual System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The existence of complementary color afterimages supports

A) the opponent-process theory.

B) the component theory.

C) the trichromatic theory.

D) a hierarchical model.

E) spatial-frequency theory.

Q2) In humans, about __________% of retinal ganglion cell axons become part of the retina-geniculate pathways.

Q3) Binocular disparity

A) is an important depth-perception cue.

B) is usually corrected by surgery.

C) is usually corrected by glasses.

D) results from neural convergence.

E) is mediated by the lateral geniculate.

Q4) The absorption spectrum of rhodopsin closely corresponds to the A) scotopic spectral sensitivity curve.

B) colors of the rainbow.

C) absorption spectrum of cones.

D) photopic vision of humans.

E) photopic vision of fish.

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Chapter 7: Mechanisms of Perception

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Sample Questions

Q1) The conventional view that all tastes are encoded by various combinations of activity in five primary taste receptors has a problem:

A) No receptors have been discovered for salty and sour.

B) Evidence suggests that there may be more than five primary tastes.

C) Many tastes cannot be created from combinations of the five current primaries.

D) Thirty receptors have been discovered for bitter.

E) all of the above

Q2) Severe chronic pain in the absence of a recognizable pain stimulus is classified as A) psychophysiological.

B) analgesic.

C) neuropathic.

D) pheromonal.

E) psychophysical.

Q3) The three ossicles transmit auditory vibrations from the ear drum to the __________ window.

Q4) The spinothalamic, spinoreticular, and spinotectal somatosensory tracts are all part of the __________ system.

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Chapter 8: The Sensorimotor System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Discuss three principles of sensorimotor function.

Q2) One fMRI study indicated that the central sensorimotor programs for signing one's name are stored in

A) primary motor cortex.

B) secondary motor cortex.

C) association cortex.

D) spinal interneuronal pools.

E) descending motor pathways.

Q3) In general, the dorsolateral corticospinal tract controls the muscles of the A) thighs.

B) body core.

C) hands and feet.

D) proximal limbs.

E) legs.

Q4) The number of motor neurons in a motor unit is __________.

Q5) Discuss the concept of central sensorimotor programs. Describe and discuss three of their important features.

Q6) The patellar tendon reflex is an example of a __________ reflex.

Q7) The __________ constitutes about 10% of the brains total mass but includes over half its neurons.

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Chapter 9: Development of the Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cell adhesion molecules are thought to mediate

A) differentiation.

B) aggregation.

C) proliferation.

D) sprouting.

E) cell death.

Q2) The process of the growth of a fertilized egg into a mature nervous system is called

A) neural growth.

B) neuroplasticity.

C) neurodevelopment.

D) psychological development.

E) rewiring.

Q3) Several studies have shown that early music training increases the size of the A) auditory cortex that responds to complex musical tones.

B) right hemisphere.

C) auditory cortex that responds to pure tones.

D) brain.

E) auditory cortex.

Q4) Describe Williams syndrome and its genetic and neural correlates.

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Chapter 10: Brain Damage and Neuroplasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Metastasis is a term that refers

A) specifically to malignant tumors.

B) to tumors that have spread from the lungs to the brain.

C) to infiltrating tumors.

D) to the spread of disease from one organ to another.

E) to tumors and other growths that are attracted to neural tissue.

Q2) Most of the early drug treatments for Alzheimer's disease were

A) cholinergic agonists.

B) cholinergic antagonists.

C) dopamine agonists.

D) serotonin agonists.

E) noradrenergic antagonists.

Q3) A tumor is

A) a neoplasm.

B) cluster of cells that grows independently of the rest of the body.

C) an aneurysm.

D) a thrombus.

E) both A and B

Q4) Compare and contrast Parkinson's disease and Huntington's disease.

Q5) The __________ phenomenon is a model of epileptogenesis.

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Learning, Memory, and Amnesia

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Sample Questions

Q1) Posttraumatic amnesia for events that occur in the period after a concussive blow to the head is called __________ amnesia.

Q2) In searching for the neural bases of LTP, many researchers assume that separate mechanisms account for

A) maintenance and extinction.

B) maintenance, reinforcement, and forgetting.

C) expression and induction.

D) induction, maintenance, and expression.

E) learning, memory, and motivation.

Q3) The up-the-nose case of N.A. had a major impact on theories of amnesia because

A) he died soon after his accident, and this enabled his physician to perform a postmortem examination of his hippocampus.

B) a CT scan revealed the full extent of his lesion in the hippocampus.

C) the foil penetrated the CA1 subfield of the hippocampus.

D) by chance, his hippocampal lesion was bilaterally symmetrical.

E) none of the above

Q4) The __________ is thought to play a role in working memory and memory for temporal order.

Q5) Approximately __________% of people experience infantile amnesia.

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Chapter 12: Hunger, Eating, and Health

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Sample Questions

Q1) As a person puts on weight, there is

A) greater caloric restriction.

B) an increase in the efficiency of energy use.

C) a decrease in the efficiency of energy use.

D) a decrease in diet-induced thermogenesis.

E) less sensory-specific satiety.

Q2) Insulin promotes the

A) use of glucose as a metabolic fuel.

B) conversion of glucose to fat.

C) conversion of glycogen to glucose.

D) both A and B

E) both B and C

Q3) According to Woods, the cephalic phase is a period during which

A) physiological changes occur that tend to minimize the homeostasis-disturbing effects of the expected meal.

B) the effects of energy deficits are minimized.

C) the set-point is calibrated.

D) hunger starts to dissipate.

E) satiety starts to dissipate.

Q4) In our culture, most anorexics and bulimics have a history of strict __________.

Page 14

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Chapter 13: Hormones and Sex

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Sample Questions

Q1) When she matures, a genetic female fetus injected with testosterone in its third month of development could very well have

A) no internal reproductive ducts.

B) both male and female internal reproductive ducts.

C) male internal reproductive ducts, but no female ducts.

D) two complete sets of female internal reproductive ducts.

E) copious quantities of Müllerian-inhibiting substance.

Q2) People who are sexually attracted to members of either sex are A) hypersexual.

B) heterosexual.

C) homosexual.

D) bisexual.

E) transsexual.

Q3) Thyrotropin is released by the

A) thyroid gland.

B) hypothalamus.

C) anterior pituitary.

D) posterior pituitary.

E) adrenal cortex.

Q4) The most prevalent __________ is estradiol.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Sleep, Dreaming, and Circadian Rhythms

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Sample Questions

Q1) Interest in the efficiency of polyphasic sleep was stimulated by stories of A) Leonardo da Vinci.

B) Michelangelo.

C) Titian.

D) Hebb.

E) Picasso.

Q2) The effects of the carousel apparatus are difficult to interpret because

A) it can deprive rats of only a small amount of sleep.

B) the volunteers have to sleep in wet pajamas.

C) in addition to producing sleep deprivation, it produces confounding stress.

D) it prevents microsleeps.

E) the yoked control subjects experience much more stress than do the experimental subjects.

Q3) REMs are associated with

A) initial stage 1 EEG.

B) increased EMG activity in the core muscles.

C) stage 4 EEG.

D) emergent stage 1 EEG.

E) the first-night phenomenon.

Q4) __________ circadian cycles are those without zeitgebers.

Page 16

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Chapter 15: Drug Addiction and the Brains Reward Circuits

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Sample Questions

Q1) There is a growing appreciation that drug addiction is a specific expression of a more general behavioral problem: The inability to

A) cope with dopamine release.

B) refrain from a behavior despite its adverse effects.

C) refrain from anhedonia.

D) cope with positive incentives.

E) engage in striatal control.

Q2) After the termination of exposure to some drugs, there are withdrawal effects that are usually

A) similar to the initial effects of the drug.

B) opposite to the initial effects of the drug.

C) similar to the initial effects of the drug, but much more severe.

D) similar to the initial effects of the drug, but much less severe.

E) no longer than a few minutes in duration.

Q3) The substantia nigra is

A) in the mesencephalon.

B) part of the striatum.

C) one of the largest tracts of the brain stem.

D) in the telencephalon.

E) serotonergic.

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Chapter 16: Lateralization, Language, and the Split Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) The study of lateralization of function has focused on the right hemisphere because

A) most people are right-handed.

B) most people are dextrals.

C) the right hemisphere is dominant.

D) the special abilities of the left hemisphere have been more apparent.

E) both A and B

Q2) Apraxic patients display

A) muscle weakness on the left side of the body.

B) muscle weakness on the right side of the body.

C) abnormal spinal reflexes.

D) a serious disturbance of motor coordination.

E) none of the above

Q3) The Wernicke-Geschwind model is a

A) serial model.

B) parallel model.

C) holistic, nonlocalizationist model.

D) both A and C

E) both B and C

Q4) Roger __________ won a Nobel Prize for his studies of split-brain patients.

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Chapter 17: Biopsychology of Emotion, Stress, and Health

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe five different types of aggressive and defensive behavior in rats and the situations in which they occur. Why is it important to make these distinctions?

Q2) Which of the following is testosterone dependent in mice and many other mammalian species?

A) defensive attack

B) predatory aggression

C) social aggression

D) freezing

E) flight

Q3) Because it is difficult to determine for certain whether a person who has been accused of breaking the law is innocent or guilty, many studies of lie detection use the A) guilty-knowledge technique.

B) control-question technique.

C) mock-crime procedure.

D) all of the above

E) both A and B

Q4) Lie detection is also known as __________.

Q5) Unlike false smiles, Duchenne smiles always involve the __________ muscles.

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Chapter 18: Biopsychology of Psychiatric Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Phobic disorders, panic disorders, and obsessive compulsive disorders are all categories of

A) schizophrenia.

B) depression.

C) anxiety disorder.

D) mania.

E) unipolar affective disorder.

Q2) Fluoxetine is marketed under the name

A) Prozac.

B) Lithium.

C) Imipramine.

D) Iproniazid.

E) Paxil.

Q3) Haloperidol is a potent

A) neuroleptic.

B) D2 receptor ligand.

C) antischizophrenic drug.

D) all of the above

E) both A and C

Q4) Fluoxetine, or __________, is an SSRI.

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