Physiological Psychology Exam Questions - 2012 Verified Questions

Physiological Psychology Exam

Questions

Course Introduction

Physiological Psychology explores the intricate relationship between biological processes and behavior, focusing on how the brain, nervous system, hormones, and genetics influence thoughts, emotions, and actions. Students will examine foundational concepts such as neural communication, brain structure and function, sensory systems, motor control, and the biological bases of learning, memory, emotion, and mental disorders. The course integrates current scientific findings and methodologies, providing insight into experimental research techniques and how physiological mechanisms underpin various psychological phenomena.

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Fundamentals of Human Neuropsychology 7th Edition by Bryan Kolb

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Extension: A - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) The corpus callosum is the largest of the brain's:

A) subcortical nuclei.

B) commissures.

C) cortical lobes.

D) sensory nerves

Answer: B

Q2) Apraxia is the inability to:

A) learn a new motor skill.

B) produce articulate speech.

C) make sequences of movements.

D) combine sensory stimuli into a coherent perception.

Answer: C

Q3) Neuropsychology uses information from many disciplines. Which discipline is NOT one of those?

A) ethology

B) pharmacology

C) biophysics

D) mycology

Answer: D

Page 3

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Chapter 1: Extension: B - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) What does it mean for the cortex to be organized topographically?

Answer: It means that a mapping of specific areas of the cortex is possible for information from or being sent to a particular body region. Such a mapping on the cortex represents a specific spatial transformation of the topography of the body surface.

Q2) Hodgkin and Huxley ___

A)chemical neurotransmission

B)electrical stimulation of muscle contractions

C)ionic conduction of nerve impulse

D)synapse

Answer: C

Q3) Of what historical significance were the experiments of Fritsch and Hitzig?

Answer: Their studies demonstrated that the cerebral cortex is electrically excitable and that such electrical stimulation in different cortical areas produced movements in specific body regions contralateral to the hemisphere stimulated. This demonstrated topographical organization of the motor cortex.

Q4) Distinguish between sulci and gyri in the cerebral cortex.

Answer: Gyri are folds or bumps in the cortex, while sulci are creases or indentations in the cortex.

Page 4

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Chapter 1: Extension: C - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) Who thought that mental processes came from the heart, not the brain?

A) Plato

B) Aristotle

C) Hippocrates

D) Galen

Answer: B

Q2) Gall and Spurzheim were the first to propose the general theory that _____.

A) different parts of the brain had different functions

B) brains were composed of individual units called neurons

C) people use only a small fraction of their brains

D) head circumference is positively correlated with intelligence

Answer: A

Q3) According to Descartes, which human brain structure was the locus of the mind?

A) the prefrontal lobe

B) the pineal body

C) the medial forebrain bundle

D) the cerebellum

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Extension: A - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) The human genome is comprised of:

A) about 20,000 genes.

B) about 200,000 genes.

C) about 2 million genes.

D) about 23 genes.

Q2) Choose the correct ordering of encephalization quotients for the following list of species (from highest to lowest).

A) chimpanzee, human, monkey, cat

B) human, monkey, chimpanzee, cat

C) human, chimpanzee, monkey, cat

D) human, cat, chimpanzee, monkey

Q3) Relative to animals with poor vision, animals that have high - acuity color vision and good depth perception would be expected to have:

A) a relative expansion of the occipital cortex.

B) a relative expansion of the frontal cortex.

C) a relative shrinkage of the occipital cortex.

D) no differences in cortical structure.

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Page 6

Chapter 2: Extension: B - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) Why might IQ tests be considered superficial or narrow measures of intelligence?

Q2) Distinguish between autosomes and chromosome 23.

Q3) both alleles' traits are expressed completely ___

A)dominant allele

B)recessive allele

C)codominance

D)X chromosome

Q4) How does the field of human neuropsychology benefit from the study of nonhuman animals?

Q5) Discuss some of the drawbacks to the idea that a correlation between brain size and intelligence is all one really needs to consider when trying to determine differences in intelligence in different species.

Q6) What is meant by the term "encephalization quotient"? How is it calculated? What is the approximate value for humans?

Q7) agriculture ___

A)30,000 years ago

B)15,000 years ago

C)7000 years ago

D)2 million years ago

7

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Chapter 2: Extension: C - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) The theory that the genus Homo (human) began in Africa is based primarily on data from which of the following?

A) the fossil record

B) tools presently used in various locations around the world

C) the DNA of extinct hominids

D) historical records

Q2) Animals are used in neuropsychological research for all of the following reasons EXCEPT _____.

A) to show the need to understand basic brain mechanisms

B) to show the usefulness of designing animal models of human neurological disorders

C) to describe the ontogenetic development of the brain

D) to describe evolutionary and genetic influences on brain development

Q3) According to research by Hodos and Campbell, humans have inherited a complex striate cortex from which mammalian ancestor?

A) the bush baby

B) the opossum

C) the tree shrew

D) the rhesus monkey

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Chapter 3: Extension: A - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) The CLARITY technique can be used to determine:

A) causes of disease symptoms found in brains of deceased persons.

B) the colors of different neurons.

C) the thickness of myelin on axons.

D) causes of disease symptoms found in live patients.

Q2) Maps of the cortex based on the appearance of different cell types are termed _____ maps.

A) projection

B) cytoarchitectonic

C) functional

D) anatomical

Q3) The organizational principle of the spinal cord, whereby the dorsal portion is sensory in function while the ventral portion is motor, is known as _____.

A) parallel processing

B) a dermatomal arrangement

C) bilateral symmetry

D) the Bell-Magendie law

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9

Chapter 3: Extension: B - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) contralateral ___

A)carries messages toward a given structure

B)on the same side

C)carries messages from a given structure

D)on the opposite side

Q2) top ___

A)anterior

B)dorsal

C)posterior

D)ventral

Q3) Describe the process by which a stem cell becomes a neuron or glial cell.

Q4) Identify the structures in the limbic lobe, and discuss the history of theorizing regarding their functions.

Q5) basal ganglia ___

A)interhemispheric connections

B)controlling movements and associative learning

C)personal memory formation

D)sensory relay

Q6) Diagram the functional divisions of the human nervous system.

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Q7) List three components of the limbic system and a function ascribed to each one.

Chapter 3: Extension: C - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) Match each of the given terms that is used when mapping the nervous system with the term that is its opposite: ventral-_____; medial-_____; ipsilateral-_____.

A) lateral; coronal; caudal

B) dorsal; lateral; contralateral

C) caudal; dorsal; dorsolateral

D) anterior; rostral; coronal

Q2) Experimental stimulation of which section of the brainstem produces a state of "general arousal" or "consciousness"?

A) the medulla

B) the pons

C) the reticular system

D) the periaqueductal gray

Q3) The _____ is a major way station between the sensory organs and the neocortex.

A) cerebellum

B) amygdala

C) thalamus

D) putamen

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11

Chapter 4: Extension: A - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) The two factors that determine nerve impulse speed in the axon are:

A) axon diameter and myelination.

B) axon length and myelination.

C) nodes of Ranvier and myelination.

D) axon diameter and the availability of Na⁺ ions.

Q2) Under resting conditions, the opening of Na⁺ channels results in a(n) _____ of Na⁺ ions.

A) efflux

B) influx

C) reflux

D) discharge

Q3) A characteristic resting potential in a neuron would be about _____ mV.

A) -30

B) 0

C) -70

D) 50

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Chapter 4: Extension: B - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) messenger RNA ___

A)energy source

B)protein transport

C)degrades foreign substances

D)protein formation

Q2) endoplasmic reticulum ___

A)contains degrading enzymes; stores and moves wastes

B)contains genetic code for proteins

C)protein molecule assembly site

D)builds proteins

Q3) You are working with a squid giant axon with a resting potential of -70 mV. What would the voltage change look like if (a) the axon is bathed in tetrodotoxin and (b) the axon is bathed in TEA? In both cases supra - threshold current is applied to the axon, enough to cause an action potential in a sea water-only bath.

Q4) Draw a diagram of an action potential, labeling each phase. Include the resting membrane potential, the threshold potential, and hyperpolarization.

Q5) How is the action potential propagated along the axon in unmyelinated axons? How is it propagated in myelinated axons?

Page 13

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Chapter 4: Extension: C - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) Tubules are primarily concerned with _____.

A) protein transport

B) degradation of foreign substances

C) providing energy to the cell

D) transcribing base-pair sequences from nuclear DNA

Q2) _____ embedded in the cell membrane act as gates and transportation systems that allow selected substances to pass through the membrane.

A) Ion channels

B) Proteins

C) Lipids

D) Enzymes

Q3) Which ion form is the most appropriate match for potassium ion?

A) Cl^-

B) A^-

C) Na⁺

D) K⁺

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Chapter 5: Extension: A - Communication Between Neurons

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Q1) Activation of ionotropic receptors is MOST closely associated with:

A) rapid changes in membrane voltage.

B) G-protein activation.

C) synaptic remodeling.

D) changes in gene expression.

Q2) Which of the following statements MOST accurately represents current theory regarding the localization of neurotransmitters within a neuron?

A) A given neuron contains only one particular neurotransmitter.

B) A given neuron contains only one class of neurotransmitter.

C) A given neuron can contain more than one type of neurotransmitter.

D) A given neuron can produce only one type of postsynaptic effect.

Q3) Some peptide neurotransmitters are made in the:

A) axon terminals.

B) mitochondria.

C) endoplasmic reticulum.

D) nucleus.

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Chapter 5: Extension: B - Communication Between Neurons

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Q1) raphe nucleus ___

A)norepinephrine

B)serotonin

C)dopamine

Q2) Describe the organization and function of the Renshaw loop.

Q3) acetylcholine ___

A)Viagra

B)Alzheimer's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)opium

Q4) What is the role of the serotonin neurotransmitter system in the regulation of bodily function?

Answer Key

Q5) insulin ___

A) if the substance is a classical neurotransmitter or B) if it is a neuroactive peptide.

Q6) Identify the four dominant neurotransmitters in the four major activating systems.

Q7) What are the four criteria for identifying a substance as a neurotransmitter?

Q8) Identify, in correct order, the four steps in synaptic transmission.

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Chapter 5: Extension: C - Communication Between

Neurons

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Q1) The substance that Otto Loewi found to accelerate the heart was later identified as _____.

A) glutamate

B) acetylcholine

C) epinephrine

D) Vagusstoff

Q2) The effects of the opiate drugs are MOST closely matched by _____.

A) acetylcholine

B) met-enkephalin

C) dopamine

D) histamine

Q3) Synapses where an axon releases a neurotransmitter directly into the blood are called _____ synapses.

A) axomuscular

B) axosomatic

C) axoextracellular

D) axosecretory

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Page 17

Chapter 6: Extension: A - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a stimulant?

A) LSD

B) caffeine

C) cocaine

D) amphetamine

Q2) A GABA antagonist would be likely to produce:

A) decreased anxiety and activity.

B) increased anxiety and activity.

C) respiratory depression.

D) visual hallucinations.

Q3) Nicotine acts primarily on _____ receptors.

A) dopamine

B) acetylcholine

C) GABA

D) histamine

Q4) A typical function of homeostatic hormones is:

A) activating sexual behaviors.

B) dealing with stressful psychological events.

C) controlling blood-sugar levels.

D) instructing the body to develop as a male or female.

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Chapter 6: Extension: B - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) metabolic tolerance ___

A)NMDA receptor

B)heroin antagonist

C)anandamide

D)liver enzymes

Q2) chlorpromazine ___

A)GABA

B)serotonin

C)acetylcholine

D)dopamine

Q3) Compare and contrast the actions of neurotransmitters and hormones.

Q4) MPTP ___

A)vomit response

B)Parkinson's disease

C)benzodiazepine

D)blood-brain barrier

Q5) How do drugs such as Prozac affect serotonin levels at brain synapses?

Q7) What is the evidence that the dopamine system is involved in drug addiction? Page 19

Q6) What are the mechanisms by which excessive glutamate release is thought to injure neurons?

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Chapter 6: Extension: C - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) Which statement is NOT true of antidepressant drugs?

A) They have selective and very specific actions on the brain.

B) They improve chemical transmission in noradrenaline and histamine synapses.

C) It takes several weeks for their users to exhibit antidepressant effects.

D) Their use can result in increased anxiety and memory impairment.

Q2) The drug Prozac interferes rather specifically with the reuptake of _____.

A) serotonin

B) glutamate

C) dopamine

D) acetylcholine

Q3) Cannabis seems to act on receptors for the neurotransmitter _____.

A) psilocybin

B) serotonin

C) anandamide

D) glycine

Q4) Which types of drug passes into the bloodstream from the intestines?

A) drugs that are weak acids

B) drugs that are hydrophilic

C) drugs that are inhaled

D) drugs that are weak bases

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Chapter 7: Extension: A - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) The signal measured in a PET scan is generated by:

A) blood oxygen levels.

B) magnetic fields.

C) radioactive decay.

D) transmembrane ion flux.

Q2) The readiness potential is associated with activity in the _____ indicating _____.

A) motor cortex; an impending movement

B) visual cortex; an impending movement

C) somatosensory cortex; stimulus expectancy

D) frontal cortex; stimulus expectancy

Q3) Which of the following techniques is currently used in the treatment of the tremors and rigidity associated with Parkinson's disease?

A) superficial brain stimulation

B) deep brain stimulation

C) temporal brain stimulation

D) psychotherapy

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Chapter 7: Extension: B - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) What has been found with using fNIRS to monitor the brain activity of newborns while listening to familiar and unfamiliar languages?

Q2) MRS ___

A)detects neurotransmitter molecules

B)detects subatomic particle annihilation events

C)detects induced magnetic fields from neural activity

D)detects energy emitted by spinning hydrogen ions

Q3) delta rhythm ___

A)aroused state

B)relaxed state

C)drowsy state

D)deep sleep

Q4) How have noninvasive imaging techniques made possible the compilation of multimodal brain atlases?

Answer Key

Q5) electroencephalography ___

A)sum of graded potentials of cortical neurons

B)stimulus-linked brainwave

C)individual action potentials

D)SQUID

23

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Chapter 7: Extension: C - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) Which is a major advantage of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)?

A) It provides the highest resolution of all the imaging techniques.

B) It can image the biochemical status of the brain.

C) It provides great clarity in distinguishing between different types of brain tissue and cerebrospinal fluid.

D) It can detect relative amounts of a given neural transmitter.

Q2) The _____ technique provides excellent resolution but can only be applied with humans in exceptional circumstances.

A) ERP

B) single-cell recording

C) EEG

D) EKG

Q3) Which method can detect neurotransmitter - related molecules?

A) CT

B) MRS

C) NRI

D) MEG

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Chapter 8: Extension: A - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) The axon terminal from LGN neurons project primarily to layer(s) _____ of area 17.

A) IV

B) II, III

C) V

D) VI

Q2) Which of the following relays in the auditory system is the MOST peripheral (closest to the ear)?

A) the primary auditory cortex

B) the inferior colliculus

C) the medial geniculate

D) the cochlear nucleus

Q3) The eardrum marks the boundary between the:

A) outer and middle ear.

B) middle and inner ear.

C) semicircular canals and cochlea.

D) outer ear and the stirrup.

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Chapter 8: Extension: B - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) free nerve endings ___

A)balance

B)proprioception

C)nociception

D)hapsis

Q2) otolith organs ___

A)balance

B)proprioception

C)nociception

D)hapsis

Q3) vision ___

A)lateral geniculate nucleus

B)dorsomedial nucleus

C)ventral posteromedial nucleus

D)ventrolateral nucleus

Q4) What functional properties are shared by all sensory systems?

Answer Key

Q5) Compare stimulus frequency and intensity as used by the visual and auditory systems to create perceptions.

Page 26

Q6) What is a homunculus?

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Chapter 8: Extension: C - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) The axons of ganglion cells form the _____ nerve.

A) auditory

B) olfactory

C) optic

D) sciatic

Q2) The map on which the relative sensitivity of body parts are represented by size is called:

A) a vestibular system.

B) a Müller-Lyer illusion.

C) a homunculus.

D) the central organization of sensory systems.

Q3) Pitch is MOST closely related to _____.

A) loudness

B) frequency

C) location

D) timbre

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Chapter 9: Extension: A - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) There are about _____ pathways that originate in the brainstem and project to the spinal cord.

A) 4

B) 16

C) 26

D) 62

Q2) Disruption of movement sequences, in the absence of muscle weakness, would follow lesions of the:

A) prefrontal cortex.

B) premotor cortex.

C) primary motor cortex.

D) reticular activating system.

Q3) The basal ganglia receive neural inputs from two main sources. These sources are the:

A) cerebellum and thalamus.

B) neocortex and substantia nigra.

C) neocortex and cerebellum.

D) limbic cortex and thalamus.

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Chapter 9: Extension: B - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) Michael Graziano ___

A)ethological categories of movement

B)cerebellum and timing of movements

C)movement direction-sensitive motor neurons

D)electrical mapping of motor cortex

Q2) Wilder Penfield ___

A)ethological categories of movement

B)cerebellum and timing of movements

C)movement direction-sensitive motor neurons

D)electrical mapping of motor cortex

Q3) Differentiate between the "direct" and "indirect" pathways in the basal ganglia.

Q4) primary motor cortex ___

A)generation of specific movements

B)planning of movement

C)source of sensory information

D)sequencing of movement

Q5) Describe how motor cortex and corresponding parietal cortex topograghical regions produce movement.

Q6) What are ethological categories of movement, as defined by Graziano? How are they represented in the brain?

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Chapter 9: Extension: C - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) Damage to neural circuits in the _____ is responsible for the symptoms of Huntington's disease.

A) substantia nigra

B) caudate putamen

C) motor cortex

D) cerebellum

Q2) Which of these neurons project to muscles?

A) extensor neurons

B) interneurons

C) corticospinal neurons

D) pyramidal neurons

Answer Key

Q3) Axons of the _____ motor pathway cross over to the opposite side of the spinal cord at the level of the pyramids of the brainstem.

A) corticobulbar

B) ventral corticospinal

C) lateral corticospinal

D) anterior spinothalamic

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Chapter 10: Extension: A - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) Which of the following behaviors or physiological abilities is not observed in lowdecerebrate animals?

A) tail lashing

B) swallowing

C) thermoregulation

D) active sleep

Q2) Neurons that have dendritic spines are typically:

A) excitatory.

B) inhibitory.

C) modulatory.

D) excitatory, inhibitory, and modulatory.

Q3) On the basis of patterns of neural connectivity, Felleman and van Essen have proposed that brain function is:

A) vertically integrated.

B) hierarchical and reflexive.

C) distributed and hierarchical.

D) reflexive and distributed.

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Chapter 10: Extension: B - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) Luria

A)cortical stimulation

B)hierarchical model

C)cortical maps

D)cortical modules

Q2) Compare the behavioral capacities of high - and low - decerebrate animals.

Q3) Describe a cortical column or module.

Q4) Contrast Luria's model of cortical function with that of Felleman and van Essen.

Answer Key

Q5) What is meant by the binding problem? What is a proposed solution?

Q6) Felleman and van Essen ___

A)decerebrate animals

B)sensory and motor unit theory

C)distributed hierarchy theory

D)behavior of the mesencephalic child

Q7) barrels ___

A)color perception in V1

B)whisker (vibrissa) perception

C)ocular dominance

D)visual perception in V2

Page 33

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Chapter 10: Extension: C - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) Excessive tone in the _____ muscles is called decerebrate rigidity.

A) flexor

B) extensor

C) smooth

D) antigravity

Q2) "Blobs" in the cerebral cortex have a role in _____.

A) color perception

B) visual tracking

C) the location of visual objects

D) achromatic contrast processing

Q3) The paralimbic cortex is primarily concerned with _____.

A) visuomotor guidance

B) emotional responsivity

C) kinesthesis

D) memory formation

Q4) In Luria's theory of cortical function, the frontal lobe is viewed as the _____.

A) reentry point

B) motor unit

C) sensory register

D) movement lexicon

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Chapter 11: Extension: A - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Sample Questions

Q1) The largest functional differences are found between _____ rather than _____.

A) cerebral sites; cerebral sides

B) cerebral sides; cerebral sites

C) cortical layers; cortical columns

D) genders; age groups

Q2) Specialization models of hemispheric function posit:

A) overlapping information-processing roles for each hemisphere.

B) identical information-processing roles for each hemisphere.

C) nonoverlapping information-processing roles for each hemisphere.

D) shifting information-processing roles for the two hemispheres.

Q3) When viewing chimeric stimuli, the commissurotomy patients studied by Levy and coworkers tended to recognize _____.

A) both faces, as do normal subjects

B) the face flashed to the right visual field only

C) the face flashed to the left visual field only

D) neither face

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Chapter 11: Extension: B - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Discuss how damage to Broca's area in a normal, right - handed individual could differentially affect reading aloud and singing "Happy Birthday."

Q2) Why has it been so difficult for neuropsychologists to discover the functions of the right hemisphere?

Q3) What might be the functional significance of the increased dendritic branching observed in the left hemisphere language areas relative to analogous areas in the right hemisphere?

Q4) What are some of the effects observed with electrical stimulation of the brain in conscious patients?

Q5) Explain how cerebral functions differ more by "site" than by "side."

Q6) Using an example from the text or lecture, and describe a double dissociation of function.

Q7) understanding backward speech ___

A) if there is typically a right-ear advantage

B) if there is typically a left-ear advantage

C) if there is no ear advantage.

Q8) What are some of the complications facing researchers on the laterality of function? Answer Key

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Chapter 11: Extension: C - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) If the left carotid artery is injected with an anesthetic drug, within a few seconds:

A) the arm and the leg on the same side will fall to the bed with flacid paralysis.

B) speech will probably be interrupted.

C) speech will invariably be interrupted.

D) the arm and leg on the same side will be hypertonic.

Q2) Kimura found evidence for a relationship between speech and hand movements when she observed that right - handed individuals:

A) gestured more with their right hands while speaking.

B) rubbed their noses more with their right hands while speaking.

C) gestured more with their left hands while speaking.

D) rubbed their noses more with their left hands while speaking.

Q3) Blindfolded subjects typically do better with the right hand at _____.

A) object recognition of nonsense shapes

B) Braille reading

C) object recognition of nonsense shapes and Braille reading

D) neither object recognition of nonsense shapes nor Braille reading

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Chapter 12: Extension: A - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Females show greater sensitivity to sensory stimuli, with the exception of:

A) smell.

B) taste.

C) vision.

D) pain.

Q2) Anatomical asymmetries, including those of the brain:

A) are present before birth.

B) emerge at puberty.

C) emerge in adulthood.

D) decrease during development.

Answer Key

Q3) On the average, women demonstrate a level of verbal fluency that is:

A) equivalent to that of men.

B) worse than that of men.

C) better than that of men.

D) slower to develop than that of men.

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Chapter 12: Extension: B - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) What is the evidence for cerebral lateralization in birds and nonhuman primates?

Answer Key

Q2) Describe the laterality of nonhearing people.

Q3) What are the basic ideas in the Geschwind-Galaburda theory concerning the development of cerebral asymmetry?

Q4) larger splenium of corpus callosum ___

A) if it is truer for males than for females

B) if it is truer for females than for males

C) if there is no reliable sex difference.

Q5) Explain how Annett's theory of handedness predicts that the population consists of 12.5% left - handed people.

Q6) What factors may account for the greater incidence of left - handedness in mentally disabled children?

Q7) At least five cognitive abilities show sex - related differences. Name four.

Q8) What is the significance of a larger corpus callosum for cerebral asymmetry?

Q9) What explanations may account for the larger cross - sectional areas of the corpus callosum in left - handed individuals?

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Q10) What explanations have been offered for the apparent anomalies in the cerebral lateralization of Genie?

Chapter 12: Extension: C - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) In the brains of chimpanzees there are:

A) humanlike asymmetries in Broca's area and the planum temporale.

B) no anatomical asymmetries.

C) only asymmetries in Broca's area.

D) only asymmetries in the planum temporale.

Answer Key

Q2) Which variables have been related to the size of the corpus callosum?

A) handedness and sex

B) IQ and foot size

C) height and head circumference

D) education level and culture

Q3) According to Collins and Kimura, men outperform women at _____.

A) visual recognition memory

B) computation

C) mental rotation

D) fine motor skills

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Chapter 13: Extension: A - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) The primary visual cortex is associated with which of the following anatomical landmarks?

A) the lingual gyrus

B) the central sulcus

C) the calcarine sulcus

D) the occipital fissure

Q2) In the Milner - Goodale model, which of the following visual areas projects directly to the parietal visual areas?

A) V1

B) V5

C) V2

D) V4

Q3) Complete unilateral destruction of the left occipital lobe would result in:

A) left visual field hemianopia.

B) right visual field hemianopia.

C) right monocular blindness.

D) left monocular blindness.

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Chapter 13: Extension: B - The Occipital Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) simultagnosia ___

A)inability to recognize faces

B)inability to recognize objects

C)inability to see more than one object at a time

D)inability to see due to naturally occurring lack of photoreceptors

Q2) Characterize the dorsal stream and the ventral stream in the Milner-Goodale model of cortical organization.

Q3) associative agnosia ___

A)right medial occipitotemporal damage, including at the fusiform and lingual gyri

B)bilateral damage below the calcarine fissure at the temporal junction

C)anterior temporal lobe damage

D)bilateral lateral occipital lobe damage

Q4) Describe the functional aspects associated with the structural organization of the primary visual cortex according to cortical layers, blobs, and interblobs.

Q5) Describe the organization of the representation of the visual world in the visual cortex, with respect to the calcarine sulcus.

Q6) Describe examples of how "our brains are organized around vision."

Q7) Why are small scotomas often unnoticed by persons with them?

Page 43

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Chapter 13: Extension: C - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) A visual defect called _____ indicates damage to one optic tract, a lateral geniculate body, or area V1 of one occipital lobe.

A) bitemporal hemianopia

B) homonymous hemianopia

C) color blindness

D) small scotoma

Q2) The regions of cytochrome - rich areas in the occipital lobe are referred to as _____.

A) lamina

B) striations

C) blobs or stripes

D) layers

Q3) Which visual function is a function of the dorsal stream regions?

A) body analysis

B) object-directed grasping

C) analysis of landmarks

D) analysis of biological motion

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Chapter 14: Extension: A - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) Cortical regions immediately posterior to the central sulcus are largely involved in:

A) controlling the level of cognitive arousal.

B) integrating visual perceptions with motion.

C) processing motor commands.

D) processing somatosensory information.

Q2) In von Economo's mapping system, area PE MOST closely corresponds to Brodmann area(s) _____.

A) 1, 2, and 3

B) 5 and 7

C) 39

D) 40 and 43

Q3) Sensory feedback that indicates the actual outcome of intended movements is known as the _____ copy.

A) afference

B) efference

C) effervescent

D) reentrant

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Chapter 14: Extension: B - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) simultaneous extinction ___

A)indifference to illness

B)ability to point to touched area despite lack of conscious perception of the touch

C)finger clumsiness due to lost sensory feedback

D)failure to perceive one of two similar stimuli presented simultaneously

Q2) dyscalculia ___

A)inability to recognize objects by touch

B)inability to name and locate body parts

C)lack of awareness of one's own illness

D)inability to do arithmetic

Q3) Weigl's sorting test ___

A) if the percentage of subjects showing the symptom is greater following left parietal lobe damage

B) if the percentage of subjects showing the symptom is greater following right parietal lobe damage.

Q4) How did the experiments by Andersen and colleagues suggest a role for the posterior parietal cortex in thought and intention?

Q5) Describe the two stages of recovery of contralateral neglect.

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Chapter 14: Extension: C - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) Which is NOT one of the classic symptoms of Gerstmann syndrome?

A) finger agnosia

B) apraxia

C) agraphia

D) acalculia

Q2) In Brodmann's mapping system, areas 5 and 7 correspond to von Economo's area

A) PE

B) PF

C) PG

D) PH

Q3) Contralateral neglect is commonly found after damage to _____.

A) areas PE and PG in the left hemisphere

B) area PG in the right hemisphere

C) area PE

D) areas PE and PF

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Chapter 15: Extension: A - The Temporal Lobes

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Q1) Neurons in the posterior superior temporal sulcus (STS) are likely to be active when a person:

A) readies a response to be performed in the near future.

B) interacts with a computer touch screen.

C) falls asleep in class and then wakes up suddenly.

D) watches and anticipates the actions of a classmate.

Q2) Brain scans of subjects watching a section of a movie suggest that neurons within the temporal lobe:

A) respond in a stereotypical manner to naturalistic audiovisual stimuli.

B) respond in a highly individual manner to naturalistic audiovisual stimuli.

C) are insensitive to naturalistic audiovisual stimuli.

D) distinguish between the good, the bad, and the ugly among us.

Q3) Which of the following is an example of temporal lobe cross - modal matching?

A) perceiving both the form and color of an object simultaneously

B) using the left hemisphere and the right hemisphere simultaneously to perceive a voice

C) making an association between the vocal characteristics and the face of a well-known pop singer

D) distinguishing among melodies played in the Lydian, Aeolian, and Locrian scales

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Page 48

Chapter 15: Extension: B - The Temporal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Distinguish between loudness and timbre.

Q2) insula ___

A)fearful states

B)visual input

C)social cognition

D)taste perception

Q3) amygdala ___

A)fearful states

B)visual input

C)social cognition

D)taste perception

Q4) How would you know a temporal lobe personality if you met one?

Q5) superior temporal sulcus ___

A)fearful states

B)visual input

C)social cognition

D)taste perception

Q6) Your patient has a lesion of the left temporal lobe and complains that people "talk too fast." Explain.

Q7) What are three basic functions of the temporal lobe?

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Chapter 15: Extension: C - The Temporal Lobes

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Q1) The temporal lobes are involved in each of these EXCEPT:

A) processing auditory input.

B) visual object recognition.

C) memory functions.

D) identifying tactile information.

Q2) Difficulty in understanding words is a common symptom of damage to _____.

A) the hippocampus

B) areas 41 and 42

C) area 22 on the left side

D) the insula on the left side

Q3) Damage to the superior temporal sulcus is often associated with a deficit in _____.

A) perceiving speech

B) perceiving biological motion

C) anterograde amnesia

D) interpreting auditory information

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Chapter 16: Extension: A - The Frontal Lobes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Following damage to the left supplementary speech area and medial frontal cortex, subjects would have great problems:

A) producing grammatically correct speech.

B) speaking with normal prosody.

C) speaking spontaneously.

D) speaking when prompted.

Q2) According to a study by Hsu and colleagues, decision - making tasks that are high in ambiguity activate the:

A) orbitofrontal cortex and amygdala.

B) dorsolateral prefrontal cortex and amygdala.

C) superior temporal sulcus and hypothalamus.

D) orbitofrontal cortex and hippocampus.

Q3) Teuber has proposed that the reason the world does not appear to move when we voluntarily move our eyes is because of a(n) _____ that is produced along with the signal that actually produces the eye movement.

A) intentional saccade

B) inhibitory impulse

C) involuntary nystagmus

D) corollary discharge

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Chapter 16: Extension: B - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) Describe the neural networks that support successful performance of Bechara and Damasio's gambling task.

Q2) What are the effects of left or right unilateral frontal lesions on verbal fluency, design copying, and understanding the meaning of proverbs?

Q3) Describe some data which suggest that the frontal cortex is important in shortterm memory.

Q4) Define the following terms: prefrontal cortex, frontal eye fields, corollary discharge. How are the last two related?

Q5) Relate the effects of frontal - lobe lesions on the Wisconsin Card - Sorting Test (WCST) to the effects of such lesions on social behavior.

Q6) poor voluntary control of gaze ___

A)Broca's area

B)the orbital cortex

C)the primary motor cortex

D)frontal eye fields

Q7) Compare and contrast the effects of temporal and frontal lobe lesions on tests of recency memory.

Q8) Name four cognitive skills impaired by dorsolateral frontal cortex damage.

Page 52

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Chapter 16: Extension: C - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) Impaired _____ discrimination is found with damage to the orbital area of the frontal lobe.

A) visual

B) olfactory

C) auditory

D) taste

Q2) Which frontal region is MOST closely associated with Broca's aphasia?

A) the orbital prefrontal

B) area 4

C) area 11

D) area 44

Q3) Defective performance in _____ is more likely following left, rather than right, frontal - lobe damage.

A) verbal fluency

B) block construction

C) time orientation

D) design copying

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Chapter 17: Extension: A - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) Similar to the function of the corpus callosum, the anterior commissure connects parts of various brain regions, including all of the following EXCEPT the:

A) amygdala.

B) hippocampus.

C) anterior temporal lobe.

D) paralimbic cortex.

Q2) If a familiar object were placed out of sight in the left hand of a commissurotomy patient, that person:

A) would fail to recognize the object.

B) could identify it verbally, if prompted.

C) could point to a matching object only with his or her right hand.

D) could point to a matching object only with his or her left hand.

Q3) The lesion MOST associated with hemispatial neglect is the:

A) gray matter of the right posterior parietal cortex.

B) gray matter of the left posterior parietal cortex.

C) white matter of the right posterior parietal cortex

D) white matter of the left posterior parietal cortex.

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Chapter 17: Extension: B - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) Identify the three major types of fiber pathways found in the neocortex.

Q2) Sperry ___

A)constructed animal models of disconnection syndromes

B)hypothetized conduction aphasia

C)studied "split-brain" patients

D)defined disconnection syndromes

Q3) alexia ___

A)lack of sense of smell

B)inability to make coordinated voluntary movements

C)difficulty copying geometric designs

D)inability to read

Q4) Mishkin ___

A)constructed animal models of disconnection syndromes

B)hypothetized conduction aphasia

C)studied "split-brain" patients

D)defined disconnection syndromes

Q5) Why do the authors suggest that disconnection hypotheses are applicable in brain dysfunction?

55

Q6) Explain why a split - brain patient will have difficulty copying a geometric design with his right hand.

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Chapter 17: Extension: C - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) The anterior portion of the corpus callosum is called the _____.

A) splenium

B) uncinate

C) rostrum

D) genu

Q2) The _____ lobe has the fewest interhemispheric connections.

A) parietal

B) occipital

C) temporal

D) frontal

Q3) Downer's experiment with monkeys involved lesions to the _____.

A) amygdala

B) visual cortex

C) hippocampal commissure

D) prefrontal cortex

Q4) Which of the following fiber pathways is considered a commissural pathway?

A) corpus callosum

B) amygdalar commissure

C) fornix

D) internal capsule

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Chapter 18: Extension: A - Learning and Memory

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Q1) According to Harris, short - term memory for somatosensory stimuli was disrupted by transcranial magnetic stimulation only if the TMS was applied:

A) within 600 seconds of stimulus presentation.

B) within 600 milliseconds of stimulus presentation.

C) after 900 milliseconds following stimulus presentation.

D) in conjunction with electroconvulsive therapy.

Q2) An amnesic subject who earnestly tells stories about his past that are demonstrably untrue is showing the symptom known as:

A) fugue state.

B) anterograde amnesia.

C) confabulation.

D) reconsolidation.

Q3) According to the HERA model, the right prefrontal cortex is particularly involved in _____, whereas the role of the left prefrontal cortex is primarily involved in _____.

A) episodic memory encoding; episodic memory retrieval

B) semantic memory encoding; semantic memory retrieval

C) implicit memory encoding; explicit memory encoding

D) episodic memory retrieval; episodic memory encoding

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Chapter 18: Extension: B - Learning and Memory

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Q1) Describe the general course of Alzheimer's disease in terms of memory difficulties and related affected brain regions.

Q2) Distinguish between episodic and semantic memory, and give an example of each.

Q3) What are the neural pathways that differentiate fear conditioning and classical conditioning?

Q4) What is the reasoning behind the recommendation that students can improve their exam scores if they study by writing out the material to be learned?

Q5) Comment on the hypothesis that damage to the diencephalon is simply a deconnection of the hippocampal circuitry and that is the explanation of diencephalic amnesia.

Q6) Characterize the differences between left and right temporal lobe damage with respect to amnesic symptoms.

Q7) Within the proposed anatomical model for explicit memory, different components may have different roles. Comment on the possible roles in explicit memory for each of the following: the amygdala, hippocampus, and perirhinal cortex.

Q8) What is system consolidation? What is its relation to memory reconsolidation?

Q9) Discuss the relationship of emotional memories with explicit and implicit memories. To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.

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Chapter 18: Extension: C - Learning and Memory

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Q1) Both Ammon's horn and the dentate gyrus are components of which brain structure that is crucial to learning and memory?

A) the amygdala

B) the hypothalamus

C) the cerebellum

D) the hippocampus

Q2) "HERA" stands for _____.

A) high emotional retrograde amnesia

B) hippocampal-entorhinal retrograde amnesia

C) hemispheric encoding and retrieval asymmetry

D) hologram encoding retrieval assessment

Q3) Which is NOT a part of explicit memory functioning?

A) semantic memory

B) bottom-up processing

C) intentional remembering

D) episodic memory

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Chapter 19: Extension: A - Language

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Q1) One fact emerging from the study of brain and language is that grammar is intimately connected with:

A) proper tagging of categories with phonemic tags.

B) automatic cognitive processes in the temporal lobe.

C) the use of verbs.

D) noun storage in the frontal lobe.

Q2) The fundamental sounds in a language are called: A) morphemes.

B) lexicals.

C) phonemes.

D) vowels.

Q3) Dronkers and colleagues conclude that apraxia of speech is caused by damage to: A) Broca's area.

B) the insula.

C) the cerebellum.

D) the frontal lobe.

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Chapter 19: Extension: B - Language

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Q1) Discuss theories of language evolution that emphasize changes to the vocal tract with those that focus on the brain.

Q2) What are the four separate abilities necessary for language?

Q3) What is "Yerkish"? Is it really a language? If so, why? If not, why not?

Q4) About how long ago did human language develop? Gather the evidence for your answer.

Q5) How does the dual - route theory account for deep and surface dyslexia subtypes? Answer Key

Q6) With regards to the dual language model, compare and contrast the roles of the dorsal and ventral language pathways

Q7) retrieval of meaningful cue - related information ___

A)left inferofrontal cortex

B)left inferotemporal cortex

C)Broca's area

D)left visual cortex

Q8) alexia ___

A)unintended word production

B)word-finding deficit

C)muscular incoordination

D)reading deficit

62

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Chapter 19: Extension: C - Language

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Q1) The conclusion that the same brain areas are involved in both speech and signing is based primarily on:

A) observations that signers are usually right-handed too.

B) fMRI data on signing and speech.

C) observations that aphasia in signers usually involves the right hemisphere.

D) EEG data of brain activity.

Q2) The ability to _____ is least important for language formation.

A) categorize

B) form sounds

C) sequence behaviors

D) label categories

Q3) According to Dronkers et al., damage to which language structure in the cerebral cortex leads to apraxia of speech (difficulty in producing sequences of speech sounds)?

A) insula

B) Broca's area

C) superior temporal gyrus

D) Heschl's gyrus

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Chapter 20: Extension: A - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) The somatic marker hypothesis stresses the importance of emotional expression in: A) reasoning processes.

B) habit learning.

C) fear conditioning.

D) reflex formation.

Q2) The frontoparietal mirror neuron network has been proposed by Uddin and colleagues to play an important role in the:

A) ability to distinguish between animate and inanimate objects.

B) ability to understand the intentions of others in terms of one's own sense of self.

C) tendency to see faces in nonliving objects such as cloud formations.

D) synchronization, or mirroring, of neural activity between the left and right hemispheres.

Answer Key

Q3) The first major theory in the neurology of emotions was that of:

A) Klüver and Bucy.

B) Hess.

C) Papez.

D) Olds.

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Chapter 20: Extension: B - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) Goltz ___

A)emotions relation to logical thinking

B)rage responses in decorticate dogs

C)behavioral effects of hypothalamic stimulation in cats

D)behavioral effects of temporal lobe lesions in monkeys

Q2) Describe the changes in social behaviors in monkeys with frontal cortex lesions.

Q3) Describe the four behavioral components of emotion, as described by the text.

Q4) Antonio Damasio ___

A)cognitive-emotional interaction theory

B)cognitive asymmetry of emotion

C)somatic marker hypothesis

D)left-hemisphere cognitive interpreter

Q5) What are the key neural structures in the original (1937) Papez circuit? What structures have been added in the more current "limbic circuit of emotion"?

Q6) Joseph LeDoux ___

A)cognitive-emotional interaction theory

B)cognitive asymmetry of emotion

C)somatic marker hypothesis

D)left-hemisphere cognitive interpreter

Q7) What are the major symptoms of the Klüver-Bucy syndrome?

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Chapter 20: Extension: C - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) A bilateral anterior temporal lobectomy in monkeys (and in at least one human case) produces a syndrome that includes _____.

A) amnesia

B) lack of sexual desire

C) tameness

D) aggression

Q2) Which is most likely to be seen following left - hemisphere damage in humans?

A) increased spontaneous speech

B) impaired mimicry of emotional states

C) catastrophic reactions

D) facial expressions of emotion

Q3) Philip Bard, working with animals with selective brain damage, emphasized the importance of the _____ in the production of emotional responses.

A) limbic lobe

B) frontal lobe

C) diencephalon

D) orbitofrontal cortex

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66

Chapter 21: Extension: A - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) The ability to use self - movement cues to judge speed, time, and travel direction is essential for the form of navigation known as:

A) route following.

B) place learning.

C) piloting.

D) dead reckoning.

Q2) O'Keefe and Nadel have proposed that the ability to form cognitive maps is dependent upon the:

A) hippocampus.

B) parietal lobes.

C) frontal lobes.

D) amygdala.

Q3) A neuron that reliably reacts with a burst of activity at regular intervals as an animal moves through the environment would BEST be classified as a:

A) grid cell.

B) place cell.

C) response cell.

D) head-direction cell

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Chapter 21: Extension: B - Spatial Behavior

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Sample Questions

Q1) Distinguish between the two types of topographic disorientation.

Q2) Distinguish between egocentric disorientation and heading orientation.

Q3) What evidence exists that neurogenesis may play an important role in spatial memory ability?

Q4) egocentric disorientation ___

A)inability to determine a direction of movement

B)inability to use prominent environmental features for orientation

C)difficulty perceiving the relative location of objects with respect to self

D)inability to remember topographic relations among landmarks

Q5) In what ways do the spatial abilities of males and females differ?

Q6) topographic disorientation ___

A)inability to determine a direction of movement

B)inability to use prominent environmental features for orientation

C)difficulty perceiving the relative location of objects with respect to self

D)inability to remember topographic relations among landmarks

Q7) Discuss the role of the parietal lobe in spatial discriminations.

Q8) What evidence exists that the role of the hippocampus in spatial navigation should be interpreted in the broader context of its role in memory?

Q9) Distinguish between place cells and head - direction cells.

Q10) Why is the Morris water maze so useful in studying spatial behavior? Page 68

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Chapter 21: Extension: C - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) Research by Maguire and others suggests that females are more likely to use _____ in navigation than are males.

A) common sense

B) landmarks

C) dead reckoning

D) compasses

Q2) Goldman - Rakic and coworkers found that there is a spatial impairment in the visual detection deficits observed in monkeys with _____ lobe lesions.

A) parietal

B) frontal

C) temporal

D) occipital

Q3) Which is NOT a brain region where place cells have been found to exist?

A) the entorhinal cortex

B) the dentate gyrus

C) the subiculum

D) the hippocampus

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Page 70

Chapter 22: Extension: A - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) In conjunction searches, it is as if a mental spotlight scans from one location to another, searching for a particular combination of sensory information. This is an example of:

A) parallel processing.

B) serial processing.

C) contralateral neglect.

D) remedial processing.

Q2) Frontal lobe neglect differs from parietal lobe neglect, because it is directed only to the region of the perception of _____ space.

A) distant

B) virtual

C) grasping

D) adaptive

Q3) Searching for a street sign in order to make a turn is an example of a(n) _____ process.

A) bottom-up

B) top-down

C) conscious

D) unconscious

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Page 71

Chapter 22: Extension: B - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) attention in area TE ___

A)Treisman

B)Moran and Desimone

C)Kahneman

D)Posner and Petersen

Q2) feature maps ___

A)Treisman

B)Moran and Desimone

C)Kahneman

D)Posner and Petersen

Q3) both selective and divided attention

A)area V4

B)anterior cingulate

C)areas V3 and TE

D)parietal cortex

Q4) What is different about Posner and Petersen's "dual executive system" in the frontal lobes?

Q5) Regarding the cerebral source of consciousness, discuss which brain regions have been identified as crucial to conscious behavior.

Q6) Cite evidence that attention is not a "thing in a place" in the brain.

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Chapter 22: Extension: C - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) Regarding attention, an example of an automatic process would be:

A) driving a five-speed (automatic shift) car

B) searching for a street sign

C) learning to play piano by ear

D) learning to read braille

Q2) In Treisman's theory, attention is a cognitive process that serves to _____.

A) embed aspects of the visual world in long-term storage

B) determine the color of visual objects

C) select and integrate features in maps

D) place stimuli in object files

Q3) Temporary reductions in the field defect present in patients with contralateral neglect were observed by Rossetti after the use of _____.

A) aids to memory, such as taking notes on the location of objects

B) increased rewards for such reductions

C) prisms that shifted the visual field to the right

D) Contralateral neglect is impervious to attempts to reduce it.

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Chapter 23: Extension: A - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Migrating neuroblasts are guided by:

A) electrical gradients.

B) radial glial cells.

C) internal maps.

D) neurogenesis.

Q2) Which of the following would appear earliest in the developmental sequence?

A) synaptogenesis

B) migration

C) differentiation

D) functional validation

Q3) In terms of escaping with minimal effects of brain damage on language, the BEST age to incur the damage would be:

A) before 1 year of age.

B) between 1 and 5 years of age.

C) between 6 and 10 years of age.

D) after 10 years of age.

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Chapter 23: Extension: B - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) What are the three critical age divisions related to the effects of brain lesions on cognitive abilities, and how do they differ?

Q2) Rasmussen and Milner ___

A)speech lateralization

B)ocular dominance columns

C)myelination index

D)cognitive development

Q3) What is the Kennard principle? Explain why it is good news for infants who suffer early damage.

Q4) Identify the five phases of synapse formation in the cerebral cortex of primates as proposed by Bourgeois.

Q5) anencephaly ___

A)aborted cell migration of gray matter

B)absence of cerebral hemispheres, diencephalon, and midbrain

C)failure to form sulci and gyri

D)single undifferentiated hemisphere

Q6) What are three ways to examine the relationship between neural function and behavioral changes in development? Make sure to mention potential advantages and/or disadvantages of each.

Page 75

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Chapter 23: Extension: C - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) The development of axons can be disrupted by _____.

A) genetics

B) cell body rotation

C) dendritic arborization

D) dystonia

Q2) The results of Bachevalier and Mishkin's studies in infant monkeys suggest that the most severe autistic behavior occurs for lesions in which location?

A) area TE

B) the medial temporal area

C) the amygdala and entorhinal cortex

D) the parahippocampal gyrus and hippocampus

Q3) Studies demonstrate that parietal regions controlling spatial and language abilities mature at which age?

A) 7 to 10 years

B) 11 to 13 years

C) 3 to 5 years

D) 14 to 17 years

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Chapter 24: Extension: A - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Females with fragile - X syndrome have _____ severe symptoms than males because they have _____ X chromosome(s).

A) less; one

B) less; two

C) more; one

D) more; two

Q2) A less severe form of autism is termed:

A) savant syndrome.

B) Down's syndrome.

C) Asperger's syndrome.

D) hyperlexia.

Q3) Many more boys than girls are diagnosed as having: A) cerebral palsy.

B) ADHD

C) hydrocephalus.

D) acquired dyslexia

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Chapter 24: Extension: B - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) How would you counsel the parents of a child with mild learning disabilities, which are, in all likelihood, due to some genetic cause?

Q2) Why do stimulants such as amphetamines sometimes improve the performance of cognitive skills in learning - disabled children?

Q3) autism ___

A)precocious reading

B)ACID

C)isolated cognitive skills

D)extreme social withdrawal

Q4) What are some early signs that a child may have an autism spectrum disorder?

Q5) What is the ACID profile? What does it show regarding learning - disabled children?

Q6) Distinguish between graphemic and phonological reading. Give an example of each.

Q7) What is the birthday effect?

Q8) savant ___

A)precocious reading

B)ACID

C)isolated cognitive skills

D)extreme social withdrawal

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Chapter 24: Extension: C - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) _____ is treated by the insertion into one lateral ventricle of a valve and a tube that passes into a jugular vein to drain into the cardiac atrium.

A) Cerebral palsy

B) Hyperlexia

C) Fragile-X syndrome

D) Hydrocephalus

Q2) _____ is the most common behavioral disturbance in children; it is characterized in part by impulsive behavior.

A) Hyperactivity

B) Autism

C) Fetal alcohol syndrome

D) Cerebral palsy

Q3) Boys are NOT diagnosed more with _____ than girls.

A) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder

B) fragile-X syndrome

C) autism

D) acquired dyslexia

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Chapter 25: Extension: A - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) Ischemia often results in a sequence of events that include the entry of toxic levels of _____ into the affected neurons.

A) sodium

B) blood

C) calcium

D) glutamate

Q2) Based on the predictions from the work of Jacobs et al., which of the following occupations would you NOT expect to correlate with an increase in the size of the associated brain region?

A) typist; finger representation

B) tap dancer; foot representation

C) clarinet player; musical scale representation

D) singer; language representation

Q3) The variable NOT influencing recovery from brain damage is:

A) handedness.

B) intelligence.

C) attitude.

D) stress.

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Chapter 25: Extension: B - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is LTP?

Q2) Pantev et al. ___

A)musical scale in musicians

B)grasp techniques

C)human synapse

D)focal hand dystonia

Q3) What is the relationship between age at time of brain injury and recovery? What is disheartening about Teuber's analysis of this relationship?

Q4) What evidence is there that the response to adapting prisms causes actual synaptic changes in the brain?

Q5) What is the sequence of recovery (four stages) seen by Twitchell in braindamaged patients?

Q6) Why did a brain - injured motorcycle racer show drastic improvement in both attitude and recovery after he was given a large tricycle on which to ride around?

Q7) Why do the authors of the textbook call compensation the "problem of the threelegged cat"?

Q8) What is kindling in the brain?

Q9) What evidence is there that sensory maps can be modified by experience? Page 81

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Chapter 25: Extension: C - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which factor decreases cell proliferation in hippocampal granule cells?

A) adrenalectomy

B) reduced daylight

C) running-wheel activity

D) adrenal steroids

Q2) The phenomenon of long - term potentiation involves measuring the size of the _____ following high - frequency stimulation.

A) nerve impulse

B) EPSP

C) dendritic tree

D) absolute refractory period

Q3) Which type of therapy for brain injury involves stimulating the production of new neurons in the brain?

A) constraint-induced movement therapy

B) community neurorehabilitation

C) stem-cell induction

D) pharmacological therapy

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Page 83

Chapter 26: Extension: A - Neurological Disorders

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Sample Questions

Q1) Thrombosis and embolism are both types of:

A) angioma.

B) ischemia.

C) aneurysm.

D) cerebral hemorrhage.

Q2) The MOST benign type of brain tumor is:

A) meningioma.

B) metastatic tumor.

C) medulloblastoma.

D) glioblastoma.

Q3) Meningitis is a type of:

A) bacterial infection.

B) mycotic infection.

C) parasitic infestation.

D) pantropic viral infection.

Q4) Contrecoup damage is the result of:

A) closed-head injuries.

B) open-head injuries.

C) infections.

D) aneurysms.

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Chapter 26: Extension: B - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) Identify the types of primary - brain injury that can occur with closed - head injuries.

Q2) Define the following: glioma, meningioma, and glioblastoma. Discuss them in terms of malignancy.

Q3) What is the difference between an angioma and an aneurysm?

Q4) sleep apnea ___

A)unilateral section of spinal cord

B)not breathing during sleep

C)extensor plantar response

D)emotional excitement

Q5) migraine stroke ___

A)abnormal blood vessels

B)accumulation of fluid

C)transient ischemia

D)blood trapped under skull

Q6) tardive dyskinesia ___

A)slow, persistent movements

B)involuntary jerky movements

C)muscle tone absent

D)muscular rigidity

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Chapter 26: Extension: C - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) A(n) _____ is a massive bleeding into the substance of the brain that is most often caused by hypertension.

A) migraine stroke

B) angioma

C) cerebral hemorrhage

D) aneurysm

Q2) _____ is a periodic cessation of respiration in sleep caused by a collapse of the oropharynx.

A) Obstructive sleep apnea

B) Central sleep apnea

C) Periodic sleep apnea

D) SIDS

Answer Key

Q3) Identify the sleep disorder that is characterized by various unpleasant sensations in the legs, including pain, crawling, tingling, and pulling.

A) central sleep apnea

B) Willis-Ekbom disease

C) cataplexy

D) sleep paralysis

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Chapter 27: Extension: A - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) On the basis of genetics and neural changes, Alzheimer's disease appears to be MOST closely related to:

A) schizophrenia.

B) Huntington's disease.

C) Down syndrome.

D) Tourette's syndrome.

Q2) The drugs that are most effective in the treatment of Tourette's syndrome suggest that there may be an abnormality in the _____ neurotransmitter system in these patients.

A) serotonin

B) GABA

C) dopamine

D) acetylcholine

Q3) Exactly _____ percent of the offspring of an individual with Huntington's disease will develop the disease (if they live long enough).

A) 25

B) 50

C) 33

D) 100

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Page 87

Chapter 27: Extension: B - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) Under what conditions would you favor psychosurgery for agitated schizophrenics?

Q2) What are the symptoms and underlying brain changes in Parkinson's disease?

Q3) Morrison ___

A)modern psychosurgery

B)cognitive behavioral therapy

C)Parkinson's disease

D)bipolar disorder

Q4) festination ___

A)Alzheimer's disease

B)Huntington's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)Tourette's syndrome

Q5) Distinguish between type I and type II schizophrenia, according to the text.

Q6) Sacks ___

A)modern psychosurgery

B)cognitive behavioral therapy

C)Parkinson's disease

D)bipolar disorder

Q7) What are the symptoms and underlying brain changes in Huntington's chorea?

Q8) What are the main anatomical correlates of Alzheimer's disease?

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Chapter 27: Extension: C - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) The positive symptoms of Parkinson's disease include all of the following EXCEPT

A) tremor at rest

B) disorders of posture

C) muscular rigidity

D) involuntary movements

Q2) Which region shows a decrease in blood flow and metabolism in depressed patients?

A) the amygdala

B) the medial thalamus

C) the ventromedial prefrontal area

D) the orbital prefrontal area

Q3) Which is TRUE regarding BDNF?

A) It is upregulated by antidepressant medication.

B) It is underregulated by stress hormones.

C) It disrupts networks involving parietal and medial temporal regions.

D) It decreases glutamate uptake sites in the cingulate cortex.

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Page 89

Chapter 28: Extension: A - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with closed - head brain injury goes to see a neuropsychologist. To assess the nature and extent of disability, the doctor has the patient undergo:

A) functional imaging.

B) the Wechsler Memory Scale.

C) a thorough neuropsychological assessment.

D) composite test batteries.

Q2) Which is NOT a goal of assessment in clinical neuropsychology?

A) diagnosing the presence or absence of brain damage

B) facilitating patient care

C) identifying unusual brain organization

D) classifying disorders.

Q3) Prior to the development of brain imaging tests such as MRI and PET, neuropsychologists relied primarily on _____ to provide information regarding localization of cerebral damage.

A) formal tests such as the Halstead-Wepman Aphasia Screening Test

B) behavioral tests

C) x-rays of the skull

D) cognitive assessments

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Chapter 28: Extension: B - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) What is the "problem of effort"? Why does it pose difficulty for neuropsychologists?

Answer Key

Q2) self - control ___

A)finger tapping

B)consonant trigrams test

C)Wide Range Achievement Test

D)cow-and-circle test

Q3) memory ___

A)finger tapping

B)consonant trigrams test

C)Wide Range Achievement Test

D)cow-and-circle test

Q4) Why is neuropsychological testing particularly useful in cases of closed - head injuries?

Q5) Discuss how right - versus left - hemisphere damage would likely affect performance and verbal scores on the Weschler Scales.

Q6) Identify two of the tests for intellectual and conceptual functions in the Boston Process Approach.

Q7) Name three difficulties with cutoff scores in neuropsychological test batteries.

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Chapter 28: Extension: C - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) The emergence of _____ in the 1990s produced a dramatic change in the theoretical understanding of brain and cognition.

A) better cut-off scores

B) more sophisticated test batteries

C) cognitive neuroscience

D) problem-solving tests

Q2) During the Wisconsin Card - Sorting Test, Stroop Test, and Chicago Word - Fluency Test, imaging has shown that subjects demonstrate activation in the _____.

A) amygdala

B) frontal lobe

C) temporal lobe

D) hippocampus

Q3) Cernich and colleagues developed a new battery of test designed for _____ in regards to concussions in sports.

A) surveillance and management

B) diagnosis and rehabilitation

C) identifying hemispheric asymmetries

D) evaluation of diffuse versus focal injury

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