

Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Physiological Psychology explores the intricate relationship between the brain, nervous system, and behavior. This course delves into the biological foundations of psychological processes, covering topics such as neural communication, brain structure and function, neuroplasticity, sensation and perception, motivation, emotion, and the physiological underpinnings of learning and memory. Students will examine how hormonal, genetic, and neurochemical factors influence behavior, as well as the impact of brain injuries and disorders on psychological functioning, providing a comprehensive understanding of the biological basis of mental processes and behavior.
Recommended Textbook
Vanders Human Physiology 15th Edition by Eric P. Widmaier Dr
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Q1) What is the location of the internal pacemaker that sets biological rhythms?
A)Suprachiasmatic nucleus of the brain
B)Ventricles of the heart
C)Endocrine gland in the gonads
D)Photoreceptors of the eye
E)The adrenal glands
Answer: A
Q2) If a person begins to sweat upon entering a hot room but continued sweating is able to keep the body temperature stable,which of these best describes her condition?
A)She is in an equilibrium state.
B)She is not using energy to maintain a constant temperature.
C)She is in a steady state.
D)She is using a positive feedback mechanism.
E)Two of the choices are correct.
Answer: C
Q3) The number of distinct cell types in the human body is about twenty.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

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Q1) The atomic number of an element is given by the number of electrons in the atom.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Carbohydrates are stored in animal cells in the form of
A)cellulose.
B)starch.
C)triacylglycerol.
D)glycogen.
E)protein.
Answer: D
Q3) What is the term describing the covalent bond formed between two amino acids?
A)Glycosidic bond
B)Peptide bond
C)Phosphodiester bond
D)Ester bond
E)Hydrolytic bond
Answer: B
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Q1) During anaerobic glycolysis,a net of two molecules of ATP are generated for each molecule of glucose broken down.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Ammonia is
A)a waste product of fatty acid metabolism.
B)exhaled by the lungs into the air.
C)processed by the liver to form urea,a less toxic compound.
D)a waste product of fatty acid metabolism and is excreted by the kidneys into urine.
E)a polypeptide containing many amino acids.
Answer: C
Q3) Coenzymes are organic cofactors.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) In most of the cells in the body there is an electrical difference such that the inside of cells is positive with respect to the outside.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In general,polar molecules diffuse more rapidly across cell membranes than do nonpolar molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of cellular transport involves the cytosolic protein clathrin?
A)Exocytosis
B)Receptor-mediated endocytosis
C)Primary active transport
D)Secondary active transport
E)Pinocytosis
Q4) Most cells can perform pinocytosis,but only a few kinds can perform phagocytosis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The process whereby repeated exposure to a hormone can cause a decrease in the number of receptors for that hormone is called
A)competition.
B)inhibition.
C)down-regulation.
D)antagonism.
E)saturation.
Q2) What second messenger most directly causes calcium ions to be released from intracellular stores?
A)Diacylglycerol
B)Adenylyl cyclase
C)inositol trisphosphate
D)Phospholipase A
E)Phospholipase C
Q3) Which is NOT typically a step in the cAMP second-messenger system?
A)A first messenger binds to a transmembrane receptor.
B)There is dissociation of G-protein subunits.
C)An activated G-protein subunit phosphorylates cAMP-dependent protein kinase.
D)Adenylyl cyclase converts ATP into cAMP.
E)Active cAMP-dependent protein kinase phosphorylates cell proteins.
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Q1) A postsynaptic neuron has an RMP of -70mV and a typical threshold of -55mV. It has three presynaptic inputs-from neurons X,Y,and Z.Stimulation of neuron X causes the postsynaptic neuron to depolarize by 0.5 mV. When X and Y are stimulated simultaneously,the postsynaptic neuron depolarizes by 1 mV. If X fires 10 times and Y fires 10 times the result will be
A)a subthreshold summation.
B)presynaptic inhibition.
C)threshold is reached and an AP is fired.
D)many APs are fired.
E)the membrane depolarizes.
Q2) Which of the following enzymes is important for the metabolism of catecholamines?
A)Tyrosine hydroxylase
B)Acetylcholinesterase
C)Superoxide dismutase
D)Trypsin
E)Adenylyl cyclase
Q3) Catecholamines are the most abundant neurotransmitters in the CNS.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) To see an object,for example a cat,and know that it is a cat that you have seen before,your brain receives and associates the visual input.Which brain areas are involved?
A)Auditory cortex
B)Somatosensory cortex
C)Visual cortex
D)Occipital lobe association area
E)Parietal lobe association area
Q2) Which of the following correctly pairs a chemical with its associated taste modality?
A)Poisonous alkaloids,sour
B)Acids,bitter
C)Sugars,salty
D)Glutamate,umami
E)Lipids,sweet
Q3) The optic nerves from each eye cross at the optic chiasm,so all visual information from the right eye is received by the left side of the brain.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following statements regarding higher brain functions is true?
A)A person with damage only to Broca's area of the brain will understand spoken or written speech but will have difficulty speaking.
B)A person with damage only to Wernicke's area of the brain will have motor aphasia.
C)A person with damage only to Wernicke's area of the brain will lose the ability to recognize faces.
D)Both "a person with damage only to Broca's area of the brain will understand spoken or written speech but will have difficulty speaking" and "a person with damage only to Wernicke's area of the brain will have motor aphasia" are true.
E)Both "a person with damage only to Broca's area of the brain will understand spoken or written speech but will have difficulty speaking" and "a person with damage only to Wernicke's area of the brain will lose the ability to recognize faces" are true.
Q2) Sleep-wake cycles are produced by interactions of nuclei in the brainstem.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which is a TRUE statement about excitation-contraction coupling?
A)In skeletal muscle cells,it requires the influx of extracellular calcium ion.
B)In smooth muscle cells,it must be preceded by an action potential in the cell membrane.
C)In all kinds of muscle it requires the entry of calcium from the extracellular fluid.
D)Calcium-induced calcium release plays a role in cardiac muscle cells,as well as in some smooth muscle cells.
E)In skeletal muscle cells,excitation-contraction coupling begins when an action potential propagates along the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane.
Q2) In cardiac muscle cells,the release of Ca² through L-type Ca² channels depolarizes the sarcoplasmic reticulum and inhibits the release of any additional Ca² necessary for excitation-contraction coupling.
A)True
B)False
Q3) More myoglobin is typically found in type 2X skeletal muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Stimulation of a Golgi tendon organ causes a reflex contraction of the muscle whose tension the receptor is monitoring.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A young man is having trouble maintaining his posture after drinking too much at a party.The afferent pathways of the postural reflexes most likely affected in this man is the
A)cerebellum.
B)vestibular apparatus.
C)muscle spindles and temperature receptors.
D)nociceptors and chemoreceptors.
E)the somatosensory cortex.
Q3) Stretch reflexes
A)occur only in the legs.
B)inhibit antagonistic muscles.
C)mediate flexor activation and withdrawal from a painful stimulus.
D)are initiated by stimulation of Golgi tendon organs.
E)are initiated by stretching of extrafusal muscle fibers.
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Q1) Insulin is important for growth both before and after birth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which is a result of an absence of thyroid hormones during fetal development?
A)Acromegaly
B)Cushing's syndrome
C)Congenital hypothyroidism (cretinism)
D)Graves' disease
E)Addison's disease
Q3) Baby Sylvia is born with a thyroid deficiency.Which of the following can we expect for Sylvia if it goes untreated?
A)Gigantism
B)Acromegaly
C)Growth rate will be faster than normal.
D)Growth rate will be slower than normal.
E)Body temperature will be above normal.
Q4) Growth hormone secretion is stimulated by exercise.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Increased concentrations of plasma proteins,increased venous pressure,and lymphatic obstruction all tend to cause tissue edema.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a patient with decreased production of plasma proteins,which of the following would be TRUE?
A)More fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the osmotic pressure.
B)Less fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the osmotic pressure.
C)More fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the hydrostatic pressure.
D)Less fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the hydrostatic pressure.
Q3) Sympathetic stimulation of cardiac muscle cells produces stronger and faster contractions because proteins that pump Ca² out of the cell are inhibited,which reduces Ca² concentration in the sarcoplasm.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The process of ventilation includes both the transport of gases by bulk flow and the diffusion of gases into and out of the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A clinical sign of obstructive lung disease would be a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio,where "FVC" is "forced" VC.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Deoxyhemoglobin binds bicarbonate ion better than oxyhemoglobin does.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which is normally TRUE about the intrapleural pressure?
A)It is lower than alveolar pressure.
B)It is between +5 and +10 mmHg above atmospheric pressure at functional residual capacity.
C)It alternates between being less than,and greater than,atmospheric pressure.
D)During a passive exhale,it increases to a value above atmospheric pressure.
E)It is always the same as atmospheric pressure during a passive exhale.
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Q1) Which correctly describes a basic renal process?
A)Fluid is filtered from Bowman's capsule into the glomerulus.
B)Substances are secreted from the tubule into the peritubular capillaries.
C)Substances are reabsorbed from the peritubular capillaries into the tubular lumen.
D)Substances are actively secreted from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's capsule.
E)Fluid moves by bulk flow from glomerular capillaries into Bowman's space.
Q2) A man with hypertension takes a diuretic that is not potassium-sparing,and he does not increase his ingestion of potassium.Which of the following side-effects would the drug be most likely to cause?
A)Increased blood volume
B)Depolarized neuronal cell membranes
C)Hyperkalemia
D)Cardiac arrhythmia
E)All of these side effects would occur.
Q3) Cardiac arrhythmias may be a clinical sign of either K depletion or excess.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following pathways is activated during the cephalic phase of gastrointestinal control?
A)Sympathetic nerves to enteric nervous system
B)Secretion of cholecystokinin
C)Secretion of secretin
D)Parasympathetic nerves to enteric nervous system
E)Short reflexes between the small intestine and stomach
Q2) The primary kind of motility in the small intestine during digestion of a meal is A)peristalsis.
B)segmentation.
C)receptive relaxation.
D)migrating motility complex.
E)mass movement.
Q3) Bile is synthesized and secreted by the A)gallbladder.
B)gastric mucosa.
C)pancreas.
D)duodenum.
E)liver.
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Q1) The calorigenic effect of thyroid hormones refers to their effect in increasing the rate at which the body synthesizes protein and fat.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Receptors for the regulation of body temperature are heat and cold receptors in the skin,the CNS,and internal organs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If more calories are ingested in food than are expended by metabolism
A)a person will gain weight.
B)a person will lose weight.
C)a person will stay the same weight because the excess energy is destroyed.
D)whether weight is gained or lost depends upon whether the calories are in the form of proteins,carbohydrates,or fat.
Q4) One consequence of insulin deficiency is the decreased ability of the brain to take up blood glucose,a condition that can lead to brain dysfunction and death.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The blastocyst implants in the uterus on about the ________ day of the 28-day menstrual cycle.At this time,the endometrium is ________ and progesterone levels are ________.
A)21st;thick and secretory;high
B)28th;thick and secretory;low
C)14th;thick and secretory;low
D)28th;thin and proliferating;high
E)21st;thin and proliferating;low
Q2) Which is TRUE about the maturation of ovarian follicles?
A)Granulosa cells produce androgens,which stimulates follicle maturation.
B)Theca cells produce estrogen,which is converted to the androgens that stimulate follicle maturation.
C)On day 1 of the cycle,growing follicles have both FSH and LH receptors on granulosa cells.
D)Growing follicles produce estrogen,which further stimulates follicle maturation.
E)Follicle maturation is stimulated when FSH binds to theca cells and LH binds to granulosa cells.
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Q1) Helper T cells are important only for cell-mediated immune responses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding the lymphoid organs is NOT true?
A)The primary lymphoid organs are the bone marrow and thymus.
B)The thymus secretes protein hormones,collectively called thymopoietins.
C)Large numbers of macrophages and lymphocytes are found in the lymph nodes and spleen.
D)The tonsils contain lymphocytes,macrophages,and dendritic cells that respond to microbes in food.
E)Once a lymphocyte reaches a secondary lymphoid organ,it remains there for its lifetime.
Q3) Adaptive immune responses differ from innate immune responses in that the former are mediated by lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Antibody production remains unaffected in a patient with advanced AIDS.
A)True
B)False
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