Physiological Chemistry
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Physiological Chemistry is the study of the chemical processes and substances that occur within living organisms, emphasizing how these molecular events underpin biological functions and health. This course integrates fundamental principles of biochemistry with physiological mechanisms, exploring topics such as metabolism, enzymatic activity, molecular signaling, and the chemical composition of cells and tissues. Through an examination of major biomolecules proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids students gain an understanding of how chemical reactions and pathways sustain life, adapt to changing environments, and contribute to homeostasis. The course serves as a foundation for advanced study in medical, biological, and health-related sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 7th Edition by Mary K. Campbell
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Chapter 1: Biochemistry and the Organization of Cells
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Q1) Which of the following is not a subcellular organelle?
A) nucleus
B) mitochondrion
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) cytoskeleton
Answer: D
Q2) The synthesis of urea from ammonium cyanate.
A) was a critical component of the Miller-Urey experiment.
B) requires a protein as a catalyst.
C) helped dispel the vital force theory.
D) supported the vital force theory.
Answer: C
Q3) Which cell component contains many hydrolytic enzymes?
A) Nucleus
B) Lysosome
C) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
D) Chloroplast
E) Mitochondrion
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Water: The Solvent for Biochemical Reactions
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Q1) Bases are
A) proton donors.
B) proton acceptors.
C) hydrogen bond donors.
D) hydrogen bond acceptors.
Answer: B
Q2) Is water an acid or a base?
A) Water is an acid.
B) Water is a base.
C) Water is both an acid and a base.
D) Water is neither an acid nor a base.
Answer: C
Q3) The tendency for an atom to attract electrons to itself in a chemical bond is called A) polarity.
B) electronegativity.
C) hydrophilicity
D) electrophilicity.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Amino Acids and Peptides
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Q1) The peptide bond
A) is planar
B) can be written as a resonance hybrid
C) is the basis of protein structure.
D) all of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Which amino acid has the least polar R-group H?
A) Glutamic Acid
B) Histidine
C) Isoleucine
D) Serine
E) Tyrosine
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following can be considered a unique characteristic of histidine?
A) Its side chain is attached to the alpha carbon
B) It has a basic side chain
C) It has a side chain that is chemically basic but has an acidic pKa
D) It is technically an "imino" acid
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Q1) Which of the following best defines a domain?
A) A supersecondary region, often shared by proteins, that has a specific function.
B) A repetitive supersecondary structure.
C) A double-layered arrangement formed so that the polar groups face the aqueous environment, while the nonpolar regions are kept away from the aqueous environment.
D) An unfolded region of a protein.
Q2) As an animal ages,the amount of cross-linking of collagen in tissue A) tends to decrease.
B) tends to increase.
C) tends to remain unchanged.
Q3) Which of the following amino acids is unlikely to be found in an a-helix due to its cyclic structure?
A) phenylalanine
B) tryptophan
C) proline
D) lysine
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Chapter 5: Protein Purification and Characterization Techniques
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Q1) How many bands would be produced when hemoglobin is subjected to SDS-PAGE?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 2, but only if the size of the pores in the gel would allow two proteins of slightly different size to be separated
Q2) The most efficient method for determining the sequence of a short peptide is:
A) Edman degradation
B) Trypsin digestion
C) Chymotrypsin digestion
D) Cyanogen bromide digestion
Q3) In gel filtration chromatography
A) materials are separated based on their size, the smaller ones eluting first.
B) materials are separated based on their size, the larger ones eluting first.
C) materials are separated based on their hydrophobic nature, the more hydrophobic ones eluting first.
D) materials are separated based on their hydrophobic nature, the less hydrophobic ones eluting first.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes
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Q1) The Michaelis constant is
A) the rate constant for the formation of the substrate-enzyme (E-S) complex.
B) the rate constant for the breakdown of the substrate-enzyme (E-S) complex to form free enzyme and substrate.
C) the rate constant for the breakdown of the substrate-enzyme (E-S) complex to form free enzyme and product.
D) a compilation of several rate constants for the reaction.
Q2) To study the nature of an enzyme,V<sub>max</sub> is not as good a measurement as the catalytic rate constant k<sub>cat</sub> because:
A) The V<sub>max </sub>is not a true constant since it depends on the concentration of enzyme
B) The V<sub>max</sub> cannot be measured
C) The V<sub>max</sub> is only valid for allosteric enzymes
D) none of these
Q3) The amount of energy released during a reaction tells nothing about the rate at which that reaction will occur.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes, Mechanisms, and Control
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Q1) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide is
A) an enzyme inhibitor used in smoking cessation programs.
B) an inhibitor of ATP production.
C) a coenzyme in reactions that transfer acyl groups.
D) a coenzyme in oxidation-reduction reactions.
Q2) Which of the following is true?
A) Allosteric enzymes are rarely important in the regulation of metabolic pathways.
B) Michaelis-Menten kinetics describe the reactions of allosteric enzymes
C) Allosteric enzymes have a hyperbolic plot of reaction rate vs. substrate concentration
D) none of these is true
Q3) How do each of these compounds affect the function of ATCase?
A) ATP is a K effector and CTP is a V effector.
B) ATP V effector and CTP K effector.
C) Both ATP and CTP are K effectors.
D) Both ATP and CTP are V effectors.
Q4) The term K<sub>0.5</sub> is analogous to the K<sub>M</sub>
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Lipids and Proteins Are Associated in Biological Membranes
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Q1) With what compound are fatty acids reacted to make a fat or oil?
A) cholesterol
B) glycerol
C) sphinganine
D) ceramide
Q2) Which of the following is not a function or characteristic of membrane proteins?
A) Transport
B) Catalytic activity
C) Blood clotting
D) Receptor sites
Q3) Glycolipids are characterized by containing the following non-lipid component:
A) Sugars
B) Glycerol
C) Phosphate
D) Sphingosine
E) More than one of these characterize glycolipids.
Q4) Fatty acids with multiple double bonds are usually conjugated.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Nucleic Acids: How Structure Conveys Information
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Q1) The Z-form of DNA
A) does not exist in nature.
B) is right-handed.
C) tends to occur in purine-only sequences.
D) tends to occur in pyrimidine-only sequences.
E) tends to occur in alternating purine-pyrimidine sequences.
Q2) Supercoiling of DNA
A) is not observed in prokaryotes
B) requires the action of topoisomerase enzymes
C) does not require ATP
D) is not observed in eukaryotes
Q3) Which of the following statements concerning small nuclear RNA is true?
A) This RNA is usually found in snurps.
B) This RNA is involved in removing exons from the RNA.
C) This RNA was the first RNA shown to have catalytic activity.
D) This RNA is small in size.
E) All of these describe small nuclear RNA.
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Chapter 10: Biosynthesis of Nucleic Acids: Replication
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Q1) All the following describe the general mechanism of DNA synthesis,except:
A) From the perspective of the DNA template strands, one strand is made 5' 3' while the other strand is made 3' 5'.
B) The strands become separated during synthesis.
C) Synthesis occurs in both directions from the starting site of synthesis.
D) Synthesis of DNA is a very accurate process.
E) All of these are correct.
Q2) Single strand binding proteins are important for this activity:
A) Prevent single-stranded DNA from rewinding.
B) Protect single-stranded DNA from enzymatic degradation.
C) Prevent double helical DNA from unwinding.
D) Prevent double helical DNA from becoming a triple helix.
E) Prevent single-stranded DNA from rewinding and protect it from degradation.
Q3) When the synthesis of new DNA is directed by an original template DNA molecule
A) the DNA produced has two newly formed strands (no change in the original DNA)
B) two DNA molecules are formed, each with one new strand and one strand from the original DNA
C) there is random arrangement of newly formed and original DNA on the two strands of the DNA produced
D) no information is available on this subject
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Chapter 11: Transcription of the Genetic Code: Biosynthesis of Rna
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Q1) Intracellular levels of cyclic AMP can affect the phosphorylation of proteins and enzymes as a secondary messenger.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ribozymes
A) are more efficient catalysts than protein-based enzymes.
B) are involved in protein synthesis.
C) always use the same mechanism of catalysis.
D) probably evolved later than protein-based enzymes.
Q3) Which of the following offers the best description of a Pribnow box?
A) A promoter consensus sequence located at approximately -35.
B) A promoter consensus sequence located at approximately -10.
C) A sequence forming a hairpin loop signaling the termination of transcription.
D) A sequence immediately surrounding the start site of transcription.
Q4) A commonly encountered feature of transfer RNA synthesis is
A) the precursor of several tRNA molecules is transcribed in one long polynucleotide sequence
B) there is little or no base modification after transcription
C) modification of the sugar moiety never takes place
D) the covalent binding of tRNA to specific proteins
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Chapter 12: Protein Synthesis: Translation of the Genetic Message
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Q1) Chaperones assist in protein folding by preventing aggregation of proteins before folding is completed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Leader sequences for protein transport to specific organelles are removed by proteases associated with the:
A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) golgi apparatus
C) nucleus
D) mitochondra
E) none of these
Q3) Under certain conditions,tRNAs can bind to the standard stop codons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The actual functions of the factors in eukaryotes are similar to the functions of these factors in bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Nucleic Acid Biotechnology Techniques
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Q1) Fluorescence and other luminescent methods of visualizing bands offer these advantages over methods dependent on radioactivity.
A) They can detect smaller amounts of material (they are more sensitive).
B) Fluorescent molecules like ethidium bromide offer no health hazard, while radioisotopes do.
C) Special licenses are required to work with radioisotopes.
D) These methods are both more sensitive and require no special license.
E) All of these are advantages.
Q2) When fluorescent markers are used for DNA sequencing:
A) the DNA separations are faster
B) four different reaction mixtures must be used
C) computer analysis can help in the detection of sequencing analysis at a faster rate
D) none of these
Q3) The use of the Bt gene is prohibited in corn plants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Antibiotic-resistance genes in vectors are often used as selectable markers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Viruses, Cancer, and Immunology
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Q1) Which of the following does not arise from a defect in the immune system?
A) Allergies.
B) Sugar intolerance.
C) Autoimmune diseases.
D) Immunodeficiency.
E) All of these can be caused by defects in the immune system.
Q2) A virus life cycle that involves the incorporation of the viral DNA into the host chromosome is
A) lysogeny.
B) lytic.
C) oncogenic.
D) non-existent.
Q3) The first vaccine was made against A) smallpox.
B) rhinoviruses.
C) HIV.
D) SV40.
Q4) Antibodies are the most variable protein sequences in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Importance of Energy Changes and Electron
Transfer in Metabolism
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Q1) The phosphorylation of ADP to produce ATP is endergonic because
A) a negatively charged ion is bonded to a molecule that already carries a negative charge
B) ATP is more stable than ADP
C) the entropy of the products is less than that of the reactants
D) polyphosphate chains are the storage form of phosphorus in living organisms
Q2) The linking of an exergonic reaction to drive an endergonic reaction is called:
A) coupling
B) a state function
C) resonance
D) catabolsim
Q3) The oxidation of nutrients supplies the energy to produce ATP.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The energy released during metabolism of nutrients can be used to synthesize ATP from ADP and phosphate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Carbohydrates
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Q1) Amino or acid derivatives of sugars are very important in which of the following biological functions?
A) Structural roles
B) Lubricating fluids
C) Cell surface sugars used in cell identity
D) Both structural roles and lubricating fluids.
E) All of the above are functions of amino and acid sugar derivatives.
Q2) Which of the following molecules have the highest degree of a[1-6] branching linkages
A) Amylose
B) Amylopectin
C) Starch
D) Glycogen
E) All of these have the same degree of branching
Q3) A pyranose is a sugar that
A) contains a five-membered ring as part of its cyclic structure.
B) contains a six-membered ring as part of its cyclic structure.
C) is a five-carbon open-chain sugar.
D) is a six-carbon open-chain sugar.
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Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) The reduction of pyruvate to lactate
A) allows for recycling of NAD<sup>+</sup>.
B) is the process that aids in the recovery of sore muscles after exercise.
C) is accompanied by phosphorylation of ADP.
D) does not occur in aerobic organisms.
Q2) During anaerobic metabolism in yeast,the carbons of glucose end up in
A) CO<sub>2</sub>.
B) ethanol.
C) lactic acid.
D) both CO<sub>2</sub> and ethanol.
E) all of these
Q3) The amino acid cysteine is important in adding a second phosphate to glyceraldehyde phosphate in the glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the conversion of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
A) an alcohol group is phosphorylated.
B) an alcohol is oxidized to an aldehyde.
C) an alcohol is oxidized to a carboxylic acid.
D) an aldehyde is oxidized to a carboxylic acid.
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Chapter 18: Storage Mechanisms and Control in Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) Starting from glucose and UTP and ATP,how many high-energy bonds are broken/consumed to add that glucose to a glycogen molecule?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) The answer cannot be determined form the information given.
Q2) The first reaction of gluconeogenesis is
A) an oxidative decarboxylation
B) a carboxylation
C) a redox reaction
D) a phosphate transfer
Q3) The compound uridine diphosphate glucose (UDPG) plays a role in
A) glycogen breakdown.
B) glycogen synthesis.
C) glycolysis.
D) gluconeogenesis.
Q4) Properly used,glycogen loading by athletes is a safe process.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Citric Acid Cycle
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Q1) When the citric acid cycle is not functioning,the most common fate of acetyl-CoA from sugar metabolism in humans is the formation of fatty acids or cholesterol.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinate,GTP is produced from GDP in a reaction in which the source of the added phosphate is
A) ATP.
B) ADP.
C) phosphenolpyruvate.
D) inorganic phosphate ion.
Q3) Which of the following enzymes contains a non-heme iron?
A) citrate synthase
B) succinyl-CoA synthetase
C) succinate dehydrogenase
D) fumarase
Q4) One round of the citric acid cycle generates about ten equivalents of ATP.
A)True
B)False
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21
Chapter 20: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of using multiple steps in electron transport?
A) By using several steps the net -DG is higher (more energy is released).
B) More heat can be generated by using small steps.
C) More energy can be captured to synthesize ATP by using small steps.
D) Small steps allow for both more heat generation and more ATP synthesis.
E) All of these statements are advantages of using multiple steps.
Q2) Another name for Complex III in the mitochondria is
A) Cytochrome C oxidase.
B) NADH-CoQ reductase.
C) succinate-CoQ reductase.
D) Cytochrome A oxidase.
E) Cytochrome bc<sub>1</sub> complex.
Q3) Which of the following terms describes ATP synthesis in mitochondria?
A) substrate-level phosphorylation
B) oxidative phosphorylation
C) photophosphorylation
Q4) The F<sub>1</sub>F<sub>0</sub> complex is actually a transmembrane complex.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) Of the processes listed below,which is not an important source of acetyl-CoA?
A) pentose phosphate pathway
B) amino acid degradation
C) glycolysis
D) fatty acid oxidation
Q2) Isoprenoid derivatives play what role in steroid biosynthesis?
A) inhibit a key step
B) are key intermediates
C) compete with steroid biosynthesis for a limited precursor
D) its role is unknown
Q3) The first committed precursor in the pathway for the synthesis of cholesterol is:
A) Isoprene
B) Lanosterol
C) Mevalonic acid
D) Squalene
E) None of these is correct.
Q4) During fatty acid synthesis,the growing fatty acid is always bound to a protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Photosynthesis
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Q1) The Hatch-Slack Pathway is important in tropical zones since,in order to conserve water,the pores of tropical leaves are very small.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The enzyme ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase
A) consists of eight catalytic subunits encoded by a chloroplast and eight regulatory subunits encoded by a nuclear gene.
B) is difficult to isolate and study because it occurs in small amount in plant cells.
C) is nonallosteric.
D) is not involved in reactions linked to oxygen.
Q3) Photosynthetic bacteria which do not use water as the ultimate source of electrons
A) only contain chlorophyll a.
B) only contain chlorophyll b.
C) do not produce oxygen.
D) have two photosystems.
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24
Chapter 23: The Metabolism of Nitrogen
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Q1) If an amino acid's degradation pathway leads to a-ketoglutarate,is it glucogenic?
A) Yes.
B) No.
C) Only if the organism has a glyoxylate pathway.
D) Only if the organism does not have a glyoxylate pathway.
Q2) The following two amino acids are key to the transfers of amino groups during breakdown and synthesis of amino acids.
A) GLU and ASP
B) GLU and ARG
C) GLU and GLN
D) ALA and GLN
E) ASP and GLN
Q3) In the urea cycle,the molecule that is synthesized in the cytosol and transported to the mitochondrial matrix for subsequent reaction is
A) citrulline
B) ornithine
C) argininosuccinate
D) aspartate
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Chapter 24: Integration of Metabolism: Cellular Signaling
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Q1) Many hormones come in pairs,which have opposing metabolic activity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a macronutrient?
A) carbohydrates
B) fats
C) proteins
D) iron
Q3) The American Heart Association advocates that 30% or less of our calories should come from fats,but the typical US diet actually exceeds 40% fat.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not true concerning leptin?
A) It is a hormone related to obesity
B) It stimulates acetyl-CoA carboxylase
C) It stimulates fatty acid oxidation
D) It is produced by the ob gene
E) all of these are true
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