Physics for Pre-Med Students Exam Practice Tests - 3839 Verified Questions

Physics for Pre-Med Students Exam Practice Tests

Course Introduction

This course introduces fundamental concepts of physics with a focus on applications relevant to the medical and biological sciences. Topics include mechanics, thermodynamics, optics, electricity and magnetism, and modern physics, all discussed in contexts such as human physiology, medical instrumentation, and diagnostic techniques. Emphasis is placed on problem-solving skills, quantitative reasoning, and the integration of physics principles in understanding bodily functions and medical technologies, preparing students for success in health-related professional programs.

Recommended Textbook College Physics 10th Edition by Raymond A. Serway

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61 Chapters

3839 Verified Questions

3839 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Introduction

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Q1) A train slowly climbs a 450-m mountain track which is at an angle of 10.0° with respect to the horizontal.How much altitude does it gain?

A) 78.1 m

B) 225.0 m

C) 83.1 m

D) 443.2 m

E) 450 m

Answer: A

Q2) Suppose an equation relating position,x,to time,t,is given by x = b t³ + c t⁴,where b and c are constants.The dimensions of b and c are respectively:

A) T³,T⁴.

B) 1/T³,1/T⁴.

C) L/T³,L/T⁴.

D) L² T³,L² T⁴.

Answer: C

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Page 3

Chapter 1: Introduction: Part A

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Q1) A furlong is a distance of 220 yards.A fortnight is a time period of two weeks.A horse is running at a speed of 4.00 yards per second.What is his speed in furlongs per fortnight?

A) 2200 furlongs/fortnight

B) 4980 furlongs/fortnight

C) 11,000 furlongs/fortnight

D) 22,000 furlongs/fortnight

Answer: D

Q2) Water flows into a swimming pool at the rate of 12 gal/min.The pool is 16 ft wide,32 ft long and 6.0 ft deep.How long does it take to fill? (1 U.S.gallon = 231 cubic inches)

A) 32 hours

B) 64 hours

C) 48 hours

D) 24 hours

Answer: A

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4

Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension

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Q1) A cheetah can run at approximately 100 km/hr and a gazelle at 80.0 km/hr.If both animals are running at full speed,with the gazelle 55.0 m ahead,how long before the cheetah catches its prey?

A) 9.9 s

B) 14.9 s

C) 19.8 s

D) 4.95 s

E) 21.9 s

Answer: A

Q2) Displacement is which of the following types of quantities?

A) vector

B) scalar

C) magnitude

D) dimensional

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension: Part A

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Q1) A car is moving along a straight highway and accelerates at a constant rate while going from point A to point B.If the acceleration is positive,increasing the speed of the car,where does the position where the instantaneous speed equals the average speed occur for the interval from A to B?

A) midway between A and B

B) closer to A than to B

C) closer to B than to A

D) Any of the answers could be correct depending on the original speed.

Q2) Arvin the Ant is on a picnic table.He travels 30 cm eastward,then 20 cm northward,and finally 15 cm westward.What is the magnitude of Arvin's net displacement?

A) 25 cm

B) 65 cm

C) 50 cm

D) 29 cm

Q3) Which of the following is not a vector quantity?

A) temperature

B) velocity

C) acceleration

D) displacement

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Chapter 3: Vectors and Two-Dimensional Motion

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Q1) A projectile is fired at an angle of elevation of 45°.Neglecting air resistance,what are possible angles in flight between the acceleration vector and the velocity vector?

A) 160° and 40°

B) 20° and 70°

C) 90° and 45°

D) none of the above

E) 10° and 45°

Q2) A plane is moving due north,directly towards its destination.Its airspeed is 240 mph.A constant breeze is blowing from west to east at 50 mph.At what rate is the plane moving north?

A) 235 mph

B) 245 mph

C) 230 mph

D) 225 mph

E) 220 mph

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Chapter 3: Vectors and Two-Dimensional Motion: Part A

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Q1) A baseball batter hits an incoming 40 m/s fastball.The ball leaves the bat at 60 m/s after a ball-on-bat contact time of 0.030 s.What is the force exerted on the 0.15 kg baseball?

A) 450 N

B) 250 N

C) 90 N

D) 500 N

Q2) A horizontal force of 750 N is needed to overcome the force of static friction between a level floor and a 250-kg crate.What is the acceleration of the crate if the 750-N force is maintained after the crate begins to move and the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.16?

A) 1.8 m/s²

B) 1.4 m/s²

C) 3.0 m/s²

D) 2.1 m/s²

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Chapter 4: The Laws of Motion

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Q1) As I slide a box at constant speed up a frictionless slope,pulling parallel to the slope,the tension in the rope will be:

A) greater than the tension would be if the box were stationary.

B) greater than the weight of the box.

C) equal to the weight of the box.

D) less than the weight of the box.

Q2) A sled weighs 200 N.It is held in place on a frictionless 20° slope by a rope attached to a stake at the top;the rope is parallel to the slope.What is the normal force of the slope acting on the sled?

A) 188 N

B) 68 N

C) 213 N

D) 585 N

E) 73 N

Q3) The maximum possible value for the coefficient of static friction is:

A) 0.50.

B) 1.00.

C) a value up to but not quite 1.00.

D) greater than 1.00.

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Page 9

Chapter 4: The Laws of Motion: Part A

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Q1) Plane A is flying at 600 mph in the northeast direction relative to the Earth.Plane B is flying at 500 mph in the north direction relative to the Earth.What is the speed of Plane B as observed from Plane A?

A) 900 mph

B) 431 mph

C) 357 mph

D) 100 mph

Q2) A 6.0-kg object is falling downward with an acceleration of 3.27 m/s².Of the following values,which is nearest to the drag force on the object?

A) 3.3 N

B) 65 N

C) 20 N

D) 39 N

Q3) A baseball is moving in the air along the customary parabola.Ignoring air drag,where is the force on the baseball zero?

A) at the top of the parabola

B) just when it has started upward

C) where it is about to impact

D) nowhere

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Page 10

Chapter 5: Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Rupel pushes a box 3.00 m by applying a 19.0-N horizontal force.What work does she do?

A) 6.33 J

B) 0.16 J

C) 57 J

D) -57 J

E) 19 J

Q2) Adisa pulls a 40-N crate up a 6.0-m long inclined plane at a constant velocity.If the plane is inclined at an angle of 38° to the horizontal and there is a constant force of friction of 10 N between the crate and the surface,what is the net change in potential energy of the crate?

A) 148 J

B) 148 J

C) 189 J

D) 189 J

E) None of these

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Chapter 5: Energy: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) An Earth satellite is orbiting at a distance from the Earth's surface equal to two Earth radii.At this location,the acceleration due to gravity is what factor times the value of g at the Earth's surface?

A) There is no acceleration since the satellite is in orbit.

B) 1/9

C) 1/4

D) The answer is not given.

Q2) An object of mass 0.50 kg is transported to the surface of Planet X where the object's weight is measured to be 10 N.The radius of the planet is 4.0 × 10⁶ m.What free fall acceleration will the 0.50 kg object experience when transported to a distance of 2.0 × 10⁶ m from the surface of this planet?

A) 90 m/s²

B) 8.9 m/s²

C) 13 m/s²

D) 18 m/s²

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Chapter 6: Momentum and Collisions

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Sample Questions

Q1) In an automobile collision,how does an airbag lessen the blow to the passenger? Assume as a result of the collision,the passenger stops.

A) The air bag decreases the momentum change of the passenger in the collision.

B) During the collision,the force from the air bag is greater than would be the force from the windshield or dashboard so the passenger cannot hit the hard objects.

C) The stopping impulse is the same for either the hard objects or the airbag.Unlike the windshield or dashboard,the air bag gives some increasing the time for the slowing process and thus decreasing the average force on the passenger.

D) The airbag is there to insure the seatbelt holds.

Q2) A billiard ball collides in an elastic head-on collision with a second stationary identical ball.After the collision which of the following conditions applies to the first ball?

A) maintains the same velocity as before

B) has one half its initial velocity

C) comes to rest

D) moves in the opposite direction

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13

Chapter 6: Momentum and Collisions: Part A

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Q1) In 1908 there was a huge explosion referred to as the Tunguska event which occurred in Siberia.Apparently this was caused by a very large meteorite,a small asteroid,or a comet colliding with the Earth.If the energy released,estimated at 5 × 10¹⁶ J,were from the kinetic energy of the object,what would have been its approximate mass if its speed had been 10⁴ m/s?

A) 10⁶ kg

B) 10⁹ kg

C) 10¹² kg

D) 10¹⁴ kg

Q2) Rupel pushes a box 4.00 m by applying a 25.0-N horizontal force.What work does she do?

A) 10.0 J

B) 100 J

C) 125 J

D) 550 J

Q3) Which of the following is not true about potential energy?

A) Potential energy is stored energy.

B) Potential energy is related to position.

C) Potential energy is a scalar quantity.

D) Potential energy has direction.

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Chapter 7: Rotational Motion and the Law of Gravity

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Q1) Somewhere between the Earth and the Moon is a point where the gravitational attraction of the Earth is canceled by the gravitational pull of the Moon.The mass of the Moon is 1/81 that of the Earth.How far from the center of the Earth is this point?

A) 8/9 the way to the Moon

B) 9/10 the way to the Moon

C) 3/4 the way to the Moon

D) 80/81 the way to the Moon

Q2) A ceiling fan is turned on and reaches an angular speed of 120 rev/min in 20 s.It is then turned off and coasts to a stop in 40 s.In the one minute of rotation,through how many revolutions did the fan turn?

A) 20

B) 60

C) 0

D) 600

Q3) Consider a child who is swinging.As she reaches the lowest point in her swing:

A) the tension in the rope is equal to her weight.

B) the tension in the rope is equal to her mass times her acceleration.

C) her acceleration is downward at 9.8 m/s².

D) none of the above.

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Page 15

Chapter 7: Rotational Motion and the Law of Gravity: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) A cannon of mass 1500 kg fires a 10-kg shell with a velocity of 200 m/s at an angle of 30° above the horizontal.Find the recoil velocity of the cannon across the level ground.

A) 1.15 m/s

B) 0.94 m/s

C) 2.41 m/s

D) 1.94 m/s

Q2) A billiard ball is moving in the x direction at 40.0 cm/s and strikes another billiard ball moving in the y direction at 30.0 cm/s.As a result of the collision,the first ball moves at 50.0 cm/s,and the second ball stops.What is the change in kinetic energy of the system as a result of the collision?

A) 0

B) some positive value

C) some negative value

D) No answer above is correct.

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Chapter 8: Rotational Equilibrium and Rotational Dynamics

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Q1) A baseball pitcher loosens up his pitching arm.He tosses a 0.20-kg ball using only the rotation of his forearm,0.32 m in length,to accelerate the ball.What is the moment of inertia of the ball alone as it moves in a circular arc with a radius of 0.32 m?

A) 7.7 × 10 ² kg·m²

B) 1.9 × 10 ² kg·m²

C) 3.8 × 10 ² kg·m²

D) 1.2 × 10 ² kg·m²

E) 6.2 × 10 ² kg·m²

Q2) A 0.30-m radius grinding wheel starts at rest and develops an angular speed of 20 rad/s in 5 s.What is the average tangential acceleration of a point on the wheel's edge?

A) 6 m/s²

B) 1.2 m/s²

C) 66.7 m/s²

D) 2.4 m/s²

E) 100 m/s²

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Chapter 8: Rotational Equilibrium and Rotational Dynamics:

Part A

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Q1) Which of the first units given below can be units for angular acceleration while the second units can be units for angular velocity?

A) rev/min²,m/s

B) deg/hour,rev/minute

C) rad/s²,deg/hour

D) rad/s,rad/s²

Q2) A bucket filled with water has a mass of 23 kg and is attached to a rope,which in turn,is wound around a 0.080-m radius cylinder at the top of a well.What torque does the weight of water and bucket produce on the cylinder if the cylinder is not permitted to rotate? (g = 9.8 m/s²)

A) 34 N·m

B) 18 N·m

C) 11 N·m

D) 36 N·m

Q3) 1300 rev/min is equivalent to which of the following?

A) 2600 rad/s

B) 136 rad/s

C) 273 rad/s

D) 60 rad/s

Page 18

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Chapter 9: Solids and Fluids

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Q1) The bulk modulus of a material,as a meaningful physical property,is applicable to which of the following?

A) only solids

B) only liquids

C) only gases

D) solids,liquids and gases

Q2) The bottom of a flat-bottomed aluminum boat has area = 4.2 m² and mass = 60 kg.If two fishermen and their fishing gear with total mass of 315 kg are placed in the boat,how much lower will the boat ride in the water? (H₂O density = 1.0 × 10³ kg/m³)

A) 0.014 m

B) 0.061 m

C) 0.075 m

D) 0.089 m

E) 1.323 m

Q3) In an elastic solid there is a direct proportionality between strain and:

A) elastic modulus.

B) temperature.

C) cross-sectional area.

D) stress.

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Chapter 9: Solids and Fluids: Part A

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Q1) A 40-kg boy is standing on the edge of a stationary 30-kg circular platform that is free to rotate.The boy tries to walk around the platform in a counterclockwise direction.As he does:

A) the platform doesn't rotate.

B) the platform rotates in a clockwise direction just fast enough so that the boy remains stationary relative to the ground.

C) the platform rotates in a clockwise direction while the boy goes around in a counterclockwise direction relative to the ground.

D) both go around with equal angular velocities but in opposite directions.

Q2) A bus is designed to draw its power from a rotating flywheel that is brought up to its maximum speed (3000 rpm)by an electric motor.The flywheel is a solid cylinder of mass 250 kg and radius 0.500 m (I_cylinder = MR²/2).If the bus requires an average power of 10.0 kW,how long will the flywheel rotate?

A) 154 s

B) 308 s

C) 463 s

D) 617 s

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Page 20

Chapter 10: Thermal Physics

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Q1) An interval of one Celsius degree is equivalent to an interval of:

A) one Fahrenheit degree.

B) one kelvin.

C) 5/9 Fahrenheit degree.

D) 5/9 kelvin.

Q2) An automobile gas tank is filled to its capacity of 19 gallons with the gasoline at an initial temperature of 14°C.The automobile is parked in the sun causing the gasoline's temperature to rise to 56°C.If the coefficient of volume expansion for gasoline is 9.6 × 10 ⁴/C°,what volume runs out the overflow tube? Assume the change in volume of the tank is negligible.

A) 0.26 gallons

B) 1.02 gallons

C) 0.77 gallons

D) 0.96 gallons

E) 0.57 gallons

Q3) What happens to a given mass of water as it is cooled from 4°C to zero?

A) expands

B) contracts

C) vaporizes

D) Neither expands,contracts,nor vaporizes.

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Chapter 10: Thermal Physics: Part A

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Q1) Spherical particles of density 3.0 g/cm³ are shaken in a container of water (viscosity = 1.0 × 10 ³ N·s/m³).The water is 8.0 cm deep and is allowed to stand for 30 minutes.What is the radius of the largest particles still in suspension at that time?

A) 4.5 × 10 ⁶ m

B) 9.0 × 10 ⁶ m

C) 2.6 × 10 ⁶ m

D) 5.6 × 10 ⁶ m

Q2) A block of wood has density 0.50 g/cm³ and mass 2250g.It floats in a container of oil (the oil's density is 0.75 g/cm³).What volume of oil does the wood displace?

A) 3000 cm³

B) 2250 cm³

C) 1500 cm³

D) 1000 cm³

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22

Chapter 11: Energy in Thermal Processes Heat and Internal Energy

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Q1) A person has a thermal conductivity of 0.18 W/m·K between his inner core and his skin with an effective shell thickness of 1.6 cm between his core and skin.If his inner core is at the normal 98.6°F,and his skin has a surface area of 1.62 m²,what will be his rate of loss of thermal energy due to conduction through his skin if his skin temperature is 31.0°C?

A) 68 W

B) 123 W

C) 177 W

D) 109 W

E) 175 W

Q2) Which type of heating causes sunburn?

A) conduction

B) convection

C) radiation

D) all of the above

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Page 23

Chapter 11: Energy in Thermal Processes Heat and Internal

Energy: Part A

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Q1) A 0.20-kg block rests on a frictionless,level surface and is attached to a horizontally aligned spring with a spring constant of 80 N/m.The block is initially displaced 4.0 cm from the equilibrium point and then released to set up a simple harmonic motion.What is the speed of the block when it passes through the equilibrium point?

A) 2.1 m/s

B) 1.6 m/s

C) 0.80 m/s

D) 0.57 m/s

Q2) A mass on a spring vibrates in simple harmonic motion at a frequency of 4.0 Hz and amplitude of 8.0 cm.If the mass of the object is 0.25 kg,what is the spring constant?

A) 40 N/m

B) 87 N/m

C) 126 N/m

D) 158 N/m

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Chapter 12: The Laws of Thermodynamics Work in Thermodynamic Processes

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Q1) An 870-MW electric power plant has an efficiency of 30%.It loses its waste heat in large cooling towers.Approximately how much waste heat (in MJ)is discharged to the atmosphere per second?

A) 3,770 MJ

B) 2,030 MJ

C) 870 MJ

D) 2,900 MJ

E) 4,060 MJ

Q2) On a PV diagram,2 curves are plotted,both starting at the same point and both ending at the same final increased volume.One curve is for an isothermal process;the other is for an adiabatic process.What does the area between these two curves represent?

A) Q absorbed by the isothermal process.

B) W done by the adiabatic process.

C) U for the isothermal process.

D) Neither Q,W,nor U for either of the processes is represented.

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Chapter 12: The Laws of Thermodynamics Work in

Thermodynamic Processes: Part A

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Q1) A long string is pulled so that the tension in it increases by a factor of four.If the change in length is negligible,by what factor does the wave speed change?

A) 0.25

B) 0.50

C) 2.0

D) 4.0

Q2) Bats can detect small objects such as insects that are of a size approximately that of one wavelength.If bats emit a chirp at a frequency of 50 kHz,and the speed of sound waves in air is 330 m/s,what is the smallest size insect they can detect?

A) 1.5 mm

B) 3.7 mm

C) 5.5 mm

D) 6.6 mm

Q3) The superposition principle has to do with which of the following?

A) effects of waves at great distances

B) the ability of some waves to move very far

C) how displacements of interacting waves add together

D) relativistic wave behavior

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Chapter 13: Vibrations and Waves

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Q1) A runaway railroad car,with mass 36 × 10⁴ kg,coasts across a level track at 2.7 m/s when it collides with a spring-loaded bumper at the end of the track.If the spring constant of the bumper is 2.7 × 10⁶ N/m,what is the maximum compression of the spring during the collision? (Assume the collision is elastic. )

A) 0.99 m

B) 1.39 m

C) 0.7 m

D) 1.88 m

E) 1.97 m

Q2) The position of a 0.67-kg mass undergoing simple harmonic motion is given by x = (0.160 m)cos ( t/15).What is its period of oscillation?

A) 100 s

B) 30 s

C) 15 s

D) 7.5 s

E) 3.75 s

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Chapter 13: Vibrations and Waves: Part A

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Q1) Two vibrating tuning forks,held side by side,will create a beat frequency of what value if the individual frequencies of the two forks are 321 Hz and 326 Hz,respectively?

A) 323.5 Hz

B) 647 Hz

C) 5 Hz

D) 2.5 Hz

Q2) While standing at a crosswalk,you hear a frequency of 540 Hz from an approaching police car.After the police car passes,its frequency is 480 Hz.What is the speed of the police car? (speed of sound = 340 m/s)

A) 13.1 m/s

B) 17.4 m/s

C) 20.0 m/s

D) 26.2 m/s

Q3) A series of ocean waves,2.5 m between crests,move past at 2.0 waves/s.Find their speed.

A) 2.5 m/s

B) 5.0 m/s

C) 8.0 m/s

D) 10 m/s

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Page 28

Chapter 14: Sound

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Q1) A standing wave is set up in a 5-m string fixed at both ends.The string vibrates in 7 distinct segments when driven by a 110-Hz source.In how many distinct standing wave segments will the string vibrate if the tension is increased by a factor of 5?

A) 2

B) 18

C) 35

D) 79

E) No standing wave pattern occurs.

Q2) What is the intensity of sound from a band with a sound level of 123 dB?

(I₀ = 10 ¹² W/m²)

A) 2.0 W/m²

B) 1.23 W/m²

C) 20 W/m²

D) 12.3 W/m²

E) 123 W/m²

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Chapter 14: Sound: Part A

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Q1) A silver bar of length 30 cm and cross-sectional area 2.0 cm² is used to transfer heat from a 100°C reservoir to a 0°C block of ice.How much ice is melted per second? (For silver,k = 427 W / m · °C.For ice,L_f = 334,000 J/kg. )

A) 4.2 g/s

B) 0.085 g/s

C) 0.80 g/s

D) 0.043 g/s

Q2) 133°F is how many degrees Celsius?

A) 31

B) 49

C) 56

D) 158

Q3) An object at 27°C has its temperature increased to 47°C.The power then radiated by this object increases by how many percent?

A) 3.3

B) 14

C) 29

D) 253

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Chapter 15: Electric Forces and Electric Fields

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Q1) Two identical iron spheres have equal positive charges and the force between them when they are 1.4 m apart is 1.4 N.What percentage of the electrons has been removed from each sphere if each sphere has 1 mole (6 × 10²³)of iron atoms? (k_e = 8.99 × 10⁹ N m²/C²,the atomic number of iron is 26,and the electron charge is 1.6 × 10 ¹⁹ C)

A) 0.001%

B) 0.000 002%

C) 1 × 10 ⁸ %

D) 7 × 10 ¹⁰ %

E) 7 × 10 ¹² %

Q2) A charge,+Q,is placed inside a balloon and the balloon is inflated.As the radius of the balloon r increases the number of field lines going through the surface of the balloon:

A) increases proportional to r².

B) increases proportional to r.

C) stays the same.

D) decreases as 1/r.

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Chapter 15: Electric Forces and Electric Fields: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) For a monatomic gas,3R/2 is

A) the specific heat per mole at constant volume.

B) the specific heat per unit mass at constant volume.

C) N_Ak_B.

D) none of the above.

Q2) Estimate the volume of a helium-filled balloon if it is to lift a payload of 1000 kg.The density of air is 1.29 kg/m³ and helium has a density of 0.178 kg/m³.

A) 4410 m³

B) 900 m³

C) 450 m³

D) 225 m³

Q3) What thermodynamic quantity is held constant in Boyle's law?

A) pressure

B) volume

C) temperature

D) Both pressure and volume are each held constant.

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Chapter 16: Electrical Energy and Capacitance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Doubling the voltage across a parallel plate capacitor does not double which of the following?

A) the charge

B) the electric field between the plates

C) the energy stored

D) both a and b

Q2) Find the electrical potential at 0.5 m from a point charge of 4 C.(k_e = 8.99 × 10⁹ N m²/C²)

A) 1.2 × 10⁴ V

B) 0.7 × 10⁵ V

C) 1.1 × 10⁶ V

D) 1.1 × 10⁷ V

E) 1.2 × 10⁵ V

Q3) A free electron is in an electric field.With respect to the field,it experiences a force acting:

A) parallel.

B) anti-parallel (opposite in direction).

C) perpendicular.

D) along a constant potential line.

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Page 33

Chapter 16: Electrical Energy and Capacitance: Part A

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Q1) You have a PV diagram for a device going through a cyclic process forming a closed loop on the diagram.How can you tell from the diagram whether the device is acting as a heat engine and not as a refrigerator?

A) The loop is longer than it is high which means it is acting as a refrigerator.

B) The loop is higher than it is long which means it is acting as a refrigerator.

C) The loop proceeds clockwise which means it is acting as a heat engine.

D) The loop proceeds counterclockwise which means it is acting as a heat engine.

Q2) A gasoline engine with an efficiency of 40.0% operates between a high temperature T₁ and a low temperature T₂ = 320 K.If this engine operates with Carnot efficiency,what is the high-side temperature T₁?

A) 1070 K

B) 868 K

C) 533 K

D) 457 K

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Chapter 17: Current and Resistance Electric Current

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Q1) A 400-W heater carries a current of 4.0 A.How much does it cost to operate the heater for 50 min if electrical energy costs 6 cents per kWh?

A) 2 cents

B) 12 cents

C) 2.9 cents

D) 0.1 cents

E) 40 cents

Q2) Carbon has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance of -0.5 × 10^-3 (°C) ¹.What temperature increase would result in a resistance decrease of 4% for a carbon resistor?

A) 8°C

B) 80°C

C) 19°C

D) 13°C

E) 400°C

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Chapter 17: Current and Resistance Electric Current: Part A

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Q1) Object A has a charge q on it,object B has a charge q on it,and object C has a charge 2q on it.These charges are arranged,one each,at the vertices of an equilateral triangle.Which charge has the greatest magnitude electric force on it?

A) A

B) C

C) B

D) All have equal magnitude forces on them.

Q2) The electric field in a cathode ray tube is supposed to accelerate electrons from 0 to 1.60 × 10⁷ m/s in a distance of 4.00 cm.What electric field is required?

(m_e = 9.11 × 10 ³¹ kg and e = 1.60 × 10 ¹⁹ C)

A) 18,200 N/C

B) 9110 N/C

C) 36,400 N/C

D) 72,800 N/C

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Chapter 18: Direct-Current Circuits Sources of EMF

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Q1) When a 21- resistor is connected across a 14-V battery,a current of 458 mA flows.What is the internal resistance of the battery?

A) 212

B) 9.6

C) 30.6

D) 0.7

E) 1.1

Q2) If one doubles the emfs in a circuit and doubles the resistances in the circuit at the same time,what happens to the currents through the resistors? Assume there are only emfs and resistors in the circuit.

A) They stay the same.

B) They double.

C) They quadruple.

D) They halve.

Q3) Which voltage is not caused by a source of emf?

A) the voltage across a charged capacitor

B) the voltage across two copper-iron junctions at different temperatures

C) the voltage across the terminals of a dry cell battery

D) the voltage from an electric generator

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Page 37

Chapter

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Q1) Two charges,each of charge q,are separated by a distance d.The distance between the charges is doubled.If the original potential energy of the arrangement was 40 mJ,by how much does the potential energy change when the charges are moved to the increased distance?

A) It decreases by more than 20 mJ.

B) It decreases by less than 20 mJ

C) More information is needed.

D) It decreases by 20 mJ.

Q2) An ion is released from rest and moves due to the force from an electric field from a position in the field having a potential of 14 V to a position having a potential of 8 V.The ion:

A) can have either a positive or a negative charge.

B) must be neutral.

C) must have a positive charge.

D) must have a negative charge.

Q3) Equipotential surfaces around a point charge are

A) spherical.

B) cylindrical.

C) planar.

D) none of these choices.

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Chapter 19: Magnetism Magnets

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Q1) The magnetic domains in a non-magnetized piece of iron are characterized by which orientation?

A) parallel to the magnetic axis

B) anti-parallel (opposite direction)to the magnetic axis

C) random

D) perpendicular to the magnetic axis

Q2) A horizontal wire of length 4.3 m carries a current of 6.2 A and is oriented so that the current direction is 75° S of W.The Earth's magnetic field is due north at this point and has a strength of 0.14 × 10 ⁴ T.What is the size of the force on the wire?

A) 3.6 × 10 ⁴ N

B) 3.4 × 10 ⁴ N

C) 1.4 × 10 ⁴ N

D) 1.0 × 10 ⁴ N

E) 3.7 × 10 ³ N

Q3) There is a magnetic force on a particle.It is possible that the particle is:

A) uncharged.

B) stationary.

C) moving in the direction of the magnetic field.

D) not part of a wire.

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Page 39

Chapter 19: Magnetism Magnets: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) A hair dryer draws 1500 W,a curling iron draws 800 W,and an electric light fixture draws 500 W.If all three of these appliances are operating in parallel on a 120 V circuit,what is the total current drawn?

A) 23.3 A

B) 20.8 A

C) 36.7 A

D) 19.4 A

Q2) A resistor is connected to a battery with negligible internal resistance.If you replace the resistor with one that has quadruple the resistance,by what factor does the power dissipated in the circuit change?

A) 0.25

B) 4.0

C) 2.0

D) 0.50

Q3) A 300-A·h battery can deliver how many coulombs starting from a full charge?

A) 4.8 × 10³

B) 4.3 × 10⁴

C) 7.2 × 10⁵

D) 1.1 × 10⁶

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Page 40

Chapter 20: Induced Voltages and Inductance

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Q1) When a voltage is generated by rotating a coil in a magnetic field at a constant rate,the period of the voltage equals the time that it takes for the coil to rotate through ________ radians.

A) 1

B) /2

C)

D) 2

Q2) The units T·m²/s are equivalent to:

A) W.

B) V.

C) N/m.

D) webers.

Q3) The "back emf" of a motor refers to a source of voltage that:

A) occurs when the motor runs backwards.

B) occurs when the motor is used as a generator.

C) is biggest when the current through the motor is biggest. D) is biggest when the motor turns fastest.

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Chapter 20: Induced Voltages and Inductance: Part A

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Q1) An electron which moves with a speed of 7.5 × 10³ m/s parallel to a uniform magnetic field of 0.40 T experiences a force of what magnitude? (e = 1.6 × 10 ¹⁹ C)

A) 1.9 × 10 ¹⁵ N

B) zero

C) 2.2 × 10 ²⁴ N

D) 4.8 × 10 ¹⁴ N

Q2) Four long wires are perpendicular to the x-y plane.Each wire carries the same magnitude current.Wire 1 goes through point (a,a,0)on the x-y plane,wire 2 goes through the point (-a,a,0),wire 3 goes through the point (-a,-a,0),and wire 4 goes through the point (a,-a,0).Wires 1 and 3 carry their currents in the positive z direction and wires 2 and 4 carry their currents in the -z direction.What is the direction of the resulting magnetic field at the origin?

A) in the +x direction

B) in the -y direction

C) in the -x direction

D) There is no direction since the field is zero at this point.

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42

Chapter 21: Alternating-Current Circuits and Electromagnetic Waves

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Sample Questions

Q1) In an AC series circuit,the voltage in the inductor differs in phase with the voltage in the capacitor by what angle?

A) zero

B) 45°

C) 90°

D) 180°

Q2) In the Doppler effect for electromagnetic waves,which of the following gives the greatest shift in frequency?

A) the source moving toward the non-moving observer at speed v

B) the observer moving toward the non-moving source at speed v

C) the source moving toward the approaching observer,both at speed v/2

D) All of the above give the same shift.

Q3) What is the effective (rms)current value for an AC current with an amplitude of 14 A?

A) 14 A

B) 7.0 A

C) 9.9 A

D) 3.7 A

E) 2.6 A

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Chapter 21: Alternating-Current Circuits and Electromagnetic

Waves: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) A large jetliner with a wingspan of 40 m flies horizontally and due north at a speed of 300 m/s in a region where the magnetic field of the earth is 51 µT directed 24.1° below the horizontal.What is the magnitude of the induced emf between the ends of the wing?

A) 350 mV

B) 750 mV

C) 550 mV

D) 250 mV

Q2) What is the self-inductance in a coil that experiences a 3.0-V induced emf when the current is changing at a rate of 37 A/s?

A) 81 mH

B) 37 mH

C) 27 mH

D) 45 mH

Q3) The self-inductance of a solenoid increases under which of the following conditions?

A) Only the cross sectional area is decreased.

B) Only the number of coils per unit length is decreased.

C) Only the number of coils is increased.

D) Only the solenoid length is increased.

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Chapter 22: Reflection and Refraction of Light

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Sample Questions

Q1) Newton's theory of light treated light as ________ while Young demonstrated that light behaved as ________ with ________ behavior.

A) particles,waves,refractive

B) particles,waves,interference

C) waves,particles,interference

D) waves,particles,refractive

Q2) A ray of light strikes a thick sheet of glass (n = 1.5)at an angle of 23° with the normal.Find the angle of the refracted ray within the glass with respect to the normal.

A) 36°

B) 0.26°

C) 34°

D) 15°

E) 23°

Q3) When light passing through a prism undergoes dispersion,the effect is a result of: A) different wavelengths traveling at different speeds.

B) different wavelengths having different indices of refraction.

C) different wavelengths refracting differently.

D) All of the above.

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Chapter 22: Reflection and Refraction of Light: Part A

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Q1) In an LCR series circuit with X_L > X_C,the phase angle between the current and voltage phasors is 30°.If the AC frequency doubles,what is the magnitude of the resulting phase angle?

A) 30°

B) less than 30°

C) more than 30°

D) Additional information is needed to reach a determination.

Q2) An AC voltage source,with a peak output of 200 V,is connected to a 25- resistor.What is the effective (or rms)current in the circuit?

A) 2.8 A

B) 5.7 A

C) 4.0 A

D) 2.0 A

Q3) In some countries the AC frequency is 50 Hz.What is the time interval for one cycle at this frequency?

A) 0.0050 s

B) 0.020 s

C) 2 s

D) 50 s

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Chapter 23: Mirrors and Lenses

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Q1) In an ideal case rays coming from an object toward a lens or mirror should be reasonably close to the optic axis.To the extent that this condition is not completely met,which one of the following effects occurs?

A) spherical aberration

B) mirages

C) chromatic aberration

D) light scattering

Q2) A goldfish is swimming in water (n = 1.33)inside a spherical plastic bowl of index of refraction 1.33.If the goldfish is 12 cm from the front wall of the 23-cm radius bowl,where does the goldfish appear to an observer in front of the bowl?

A) 7.99 cm behind the plastic

B) 19.3 cm behind the plastic

C) 13.6 cm behind the plastic

D) 10.4 cm behind the plastic

E) 13.6 cm behind the plastic

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Chapter 23: Mirrors and Lenses: Part A

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Q1) An observer is moving in space toward a distant star at 200 km/s while the star is moving toward the observer at 400 km/s;the relative velocity being 600 km/s of approach.What relative change in frequency of the light from the star as seen by the observer? (The speed of light in space is 3.00 × 10⁵ km/s).

A) 0.067% increase

B) 0.20% decrease

C) 0.20% increase

D) 0.033% decrease

Q2) The Earth is 1.49 × 10¹¹ m from the Sun.If the solar radiation at the top of the Earth's atmosphere is 1340 W/m²,what is the total power output of the Sun?

A) 2.34 × 10³⁰ W

B) 3.74 × 10²⁶ W

C) 6.62 × 10²⁶ W

D) 7.48 × 10²⁷ W

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Chapter 24: Wave Optics

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Q1) Two flat glass plates are in contact along one end and are separated by a sheet of paper 5.0 × 10 ⁶ m thick at the other end.The top plate is illuminated by a monochromatic light source of wavelength 399 nm.How many dark parallel bands will be evident across the top plate? (1 nm = 10 ⁹ m)

A) 13

B) 23

C) 12

D) 25

E) 21

Q2) Diffraction grating 1 has half the lines/cm that diffraction grating 2 does.When used with a certain wavelength of light,both gratings give first order maxima.Which of the following statements is true for the same wavelength of light.

A) Both gratings must also give second order maxima.

B) Grating 1 must give a second order maximum.

C) Grating 2 must give a second order maximum.

D) It is possible that neither grating gives a second order maximum.

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Chapter 24: Wave Optics: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) You stand three feet away from a plane mirror.How far is it from you to your image?

A) 4.0 ft

B) 6.0 ft

C) 2.0 ft

D) 3.0 ft

Q2) An object is 12.0 cm from the surface of a spherical Christmas tree ornament that is 10.0 cm in diameter.What is the magnification of the image?

A) 0.500

B) 0.200

C) +0.172

D) +0.143

Q3) What is the angle of incidence on an air-to-glass boundary if the angle of refraction in the glass (n = 1.60)is 25°?

A) 40°

B) 25°

C) 43°

D) 16°

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Chapter 25: Optical Instruments

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Q1) A person with limited accommodation is prescribed lenses of power -3.0 diopters for distant vision.Bifocal inserts are added to these lenses to allow vision at 50 cm.What is the power of the inserts?

A) -1.0 diopters

B) 2.0 diopters

C) 5.0 diopters

D) 50 diopters

E) This does not work with negative diopter distance lenses.

Q2) A converging lens will be prescribed by the eye doctor to correct which of the following?

A) farsightedness

B) glaucoma

C) nearsightedness

D) astigmatism

Q3) Young children that need glasses are rarely prescribed bifocals.Why?

A) They are almost always nearsighted.

B) They are almost always farsighted.

C) They have considerable accommodation power.

D) Parents don't go for the additional expense.

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Page 51

Chapter 25: Optical Instruments: Part A

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Q1) A Young's double-slit apparatus is set up.A screen is positioned 1.16 m from the double slits,and the spacing between the two slits is 0.0500 mm.The distance between alternating bright fringes is 1.42 cm.What is the light source wavelength? (1 nm = 10 ⁹ m)

A) 612 nm

B) 280 nm

C) 490 nm

D) 355 nm

Q2) In a single-slit diffraction experiment,the angular width of the central maximum is 0.16°.The width of the slit is then doubled as is the distance to the screen.What is the resulting angular width of the central maximum?

A) 0.64°

B) 0.080°

C) 0.32°

D) 0.16°

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Chapter 26: Relativity

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Sample Questions

Q1) The speed of light is equal to:

A) 5.28 × 10⁷ miles per hour.

B) one meter per nanosecond.

C) one light-year per year.

D) none of the above.

Q2) A satellite is powered by a small nuclear generator that puts out 10 W.How much matter is converted into energy over the 20 year life span of the generator?

A) 70 µg

B) 70 g

C) 7 g

D) 7 kg

E) 4 mg

Q3) The gravitational field is equivalent to:

A) the inertial mass.

B) an accelerated frame of reference.

C) an event horizon.

D) a clock running slowly.

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Chapter 26: Relativity: Part A

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Q1) A camera has a lens that has an adjustable film distance used for focusing purposes.When the object being photographed is at a very large distance,the distance from the lens to the film is 50.0 mm.What would be the lens-to-film distance for an in-focus object 2.00 m from the camera?

A) 66.7 mm

B) 40.0 mm

C) 51.3 mm

D) 48.8 mm

Q2) A refracting astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece lenses of focal lengths 38 cm and 0.40 cm,respectively.What is the angular magnification of this instrument?

A) 95

B) 50

C) 27

D) 19.6

Q3) If a person is nearsighted the corrective lens will

A) take an object at the far point and form an image at 25 cm.

B) take an object at 25 cm and form an image at the far point.

C) take an object at infinity and form an image at the far point.

D) take an object at infinity and form an image at 25 cm.

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Chapter 27: Quantum Physics Blackbody Radiation and Plancks Hypothesis

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Q1) Which change will not change the kinetic energy of the most energetic electrons emitted in the photoelectric effect?

A) changing the brightness of the light

B) changing the frequency of the light

C) changing the metal the light is hitting

D) All of the above will change the electron's kinetic energy.

Q2) In Bragg's law,2d sin = m ,how is measured?

A) from the reflecting crystal plane

B) from the normal to the reflecting crystal plane

C) from the direction of the incident beam

D) from the normal to the direction of the incident beam

Q3) The Compton experiment demonstrated which of the following when an x-ray photon collides with an electron?

A) Momentum is conserved.

B) Energy is conserved.

C) Momentum and energy are both conserved.

D) Wavelength of scattered photon equals that of incident photon.

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Page 55

Chapter 27: Quantum Physics Blackbody Radiation and Plancks

Hypothesis: Part A

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Q1) Doubling the momentum of a particle:

A) does not change its relativistic total energy.

B) quadruples its relativistic total energy.

C) doubles its relativistic total energy.

D) requires less of a speed increase as the speed increases.

Q2) An unknown particle in an accelerator moving at a speed of 2.00 × 10⁸ m/s has a measured total energy of 1.22 × 10 ⁹ J.What is its mass? (c = 3.00 × 10⁸ m/s)

A) 1.49 × 10 ²⁶ kg

B) 0.650 × 10 ²⁶ kg

C) 0.810 × 10 ²⁶ kg

D) 1.01 × 10 ²⁶ kg

Q3) Muons at speed 0.9994c are sent round and round a circular storage ring of radius 1500 m.If a muon at rest decays into other particles after an average T = 2.2 × 10 ⁶ s,how many trips around the storage ring do we expect the 0.9994c muons to make before they decay?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 0.2

D) 6

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Chapter 28: Atomic Physics

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Q1) The wavelength of coherent ruby laser light is 694 nm.What energy difference exists between the upper excited state involved and the lower unexcited ground state? (h = 6.63 × 10 ³⁴ J s,c = 3.00 × 10⁸ m/s,1 eV = 1.60 × 10 ¹⁹ J,and 1 nm = 10 ⁹ m)

A) 0.56 eV

B) 1.79 eV

C) 1.67 eV

D) 2.87 eV

E) 0.35 eV

Q2) Selenium has atomic number 34.In its ground state,how many electrons are in its n = 2 shell?

A) 8

B) 8.

C) 2

D) 10

E) 16

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Chapter 28: Atomic Physics: Part A

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Q1) How much energy (in eV)does a photon of 500-nm light have? (h = 6.63 × 10 ³⁴ J s,c = 3.00 × 10⁸ m/s,1 eV = 1.60 × 10 ¹⁹ J,and 1 nm = 10 ⁹ m)

A) 1.78 eV

B) 2.48 eV

C) 1.24 eV

D) 3.11 eV

Q2) Sources of red,blue,and yellow light each emit light with a power of 50 mW.Which source emits the least photons per second?

A) the red source

B) They all emit the same number per second.

C) the blue source

D) the yellow source

Q3) According to de Broglie,as the momentum of a moving particle is quartered,the corresponding wavelength changes by what factor?

A) 1/4

B) 1/16

C) 16

D) 4

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Page 58

Chapter 29: Nuclear Physics

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Q1) The isotope ¹⁴C cannot be used in dating old samples of which of the following?

A) charcoal from a fire

B) a bronze implement from a cave

C) a bone buried in mud

D) All of the above can be dated using ¹⁴C.

Q2) The gamma radiation first classified by Rutherford was in fact which of the following?

A) helium nuclei

B) high energy quanta

C) electrons

D) positrons

Q3) In the beta decay of ¹⁴C,the existence of the antineutrino was required to maintain:

A) energy conservation.

B) charge conservation.

C) conservation of the number of nucleons.

D) all of the above.

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Chapter 29: Nuclear Physics: Part A

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Q1) The ionization energy of the hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV.What is the energy of a photon emitted corresponding to a transition from the n = 6 to n = 2 state?

A) 7.9 eV

B) 2.9 eV

C) 3.0 eV

D) 4.0 eV

Q2) The wavelength of a coherent laser is 628 nm.What energy difference exists between the upper excited state involved and the lower unexcited ground state? (h = 6.63 × 10 ³⁴ J s,c = 3.00 × 10⁸ m/s,1 eV = 1.60 × 10 ¹⁹ J,and 1 nm = 10 ⁹ m)

A) 1.86 eV

B) 1.81 eV

C) 1.75 eV

D) 1.98 eV

Q3) When an electron moves from the n = 1 to the n = 3 orbit:

A) the radius doubles and the angular momentum increases by a factor of 9.

B) the radius increases by a factor of 9,and the angular momentum triples.

C) both the radius and the angular momentum increase by a factor of 9.

D) both the radius and the angular momentum triple.

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Page 60

Chapter 30: Nuclear Energy and Elementary Particles

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Q1) What is the "cosmological constant?"

A) The universe has existed forever and on the average (over billions of cubic light years)does not change.

B) This is the ratio between "dark energy" and "dark matter."

C) This is a quantity also referred to as "quintessence."

D) This is a self-admitted blunder in his theory of general relativity by Einstein,that might not be a blunder after all..

Q2) Mesons are composed of ________ quarks,and baryons are composed of ________ quarks.

A) two,two

B) two,three

C) three,two

D) three,three

Q3) In the proton-proton cycle,the eventual product is:

A) heavy hydrogen.

B) tritium.

C) helium-3.

D) helium-4.

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Chapter 30: Nuclear Energy and Elementary Particles: Part

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Q1) If a fossil bone is found to contain 1/16th as much Carbon-14 as the bone of a living animal,what is the approximate age of the fossil? (half-life of ¹⁴C = 5730 years)

A) 7640 years

B) 22,900 years

C) 45,800 years

D) 17,200 years

Q2) Tritium has a half-life of 12.3 years.What proportion of its original radioactivity will a sample have after 6 years?

A) 0.55

B) 0.60

C) 0.84

D) 0.71

Q3) Approximately how many half-life periods must elapse if the activity of a radioactive isotope sample is to be reduced to 0.03 of the original value?

A) 5

B) 3

C) 8

D) 60

62

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Chapter 31: Particle Collisions,

Mediating Photons, and Quark Structures: Exploring the Fundamentals of Physics

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Q1) Of the following mesons,which is its own antiparticle?

A) K^-

B)

C) ⁺

D) none of those given

Q2) The strong force is mediated by A) the gluon.

B) the W^- boson.

C) the W⁺ boson.

D) All of these choices.

Q3) Assuming the Hubble constant is (21 km/s)/(10⁶ ly),what is the recession speed of a galaxy 300 million parsecs away? (1 parsec = 3.26 ly)

A) 4200 km/s

B) 21,000 km/s

C) 640 km/s

D) 7000 km/s

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