Physics for Life Sciences Pre-Test Questions - 2135 Verified Questions by Quizplus

Physics for Life Sciences

Pre-Test Questions

Course Introduction

Physics for Life Sciences introduces fundamental physics concepts with a focus on their applications in biological and medical contexts. Topics include mechanics, thermodynamics, fluid dynamics, waves, optics, electricity, and magnetism, all tailored to illustrate how physical principles underpin processes in living systems. Students will explore real-world scenarios such as movement in organisms, circulatory and respiratory systems, sensory mechanisms, and medical instrumentation. Emphasis is placed on developing problem-solving and analytical skills relevant to life sciences, preparing students to integrate physics knowledge into their understanding of biological phenomena and health-related technologies.

Recommended Textbook Physics 10th Edition by John D. Cutnell

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32 Chapters

2135 Verified Questions

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Chapter 1: Introduction and Mathematical Concepts

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Sample Questions

Q1) Town A lies 20 km north of town B. Town C lies 13 km west of town A. A small plane flies directly from town B to town C. What is the displacement of the plane?

A)33 km, 33° north of west

B)19 km, 33° north of west

C)24 km, 57° north of west

D)31 km, 57° north of west

E)6.6 km, 40° north of west

Answer: C

Q2) A runaway dog walks 0.64 km due north. He then runs due west to a hot dog stand. If the magnitude of the dog's total displacement vector is 0.91 km, what is the magnitude of the dog's displacement vector in the due west direction?

A)0.27 km

B)0.33 km

C)0.41 km

D)0.52 km

E)0.65 km

Answer: E

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Chapter 2: Kinematics in One Dimension

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Sample Questions

Q1) A turtle takes 3.5 minutes to walk 18 m toward the south along a deserted highway. A truck driver stops and picks up the turtle. The driver takes the turtle to a town 1.1 km to the north with an average speed of 12 m/s. What is the magnitude of the average velocity of the turtle for its entire journey?

A)3.6 m/s

B)9.8 m/s

C)6.0 m/s

D)2.6 m/s

E)11 m/s

Answer: A

Q2) Alexa's hair grows with an average speed of 3.5 × 10-9 m/s. How long does it take her hair to grow 0.30 m? Note: 1 yr = 3.156 × 107 s.

A)1.9 yr

B)1.3 yr

C)0.37 yr

D)5.4 yr

E)2.7 yr

Answer: E

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Kinematics in Two Dimensions

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Q1) A car travels due east at 22 m/s. It makes a turn due south and continues to travel at 22 m/s. What is the change in velocity of the car?

A)22 m/s, due east

B)22 m/s, due south

C)31 m/s, 45° south of west

D)31 m/s, 45° south of east

E)zero m/s

Answer: C

Q2) A boat that can travel at 4.0 km/h in still water crosses a river with a current of 2.0 km/h. At what angle must the boat be pointed upstream (that is, relative to its actual path) to go straight across the river?

A)27°

B)30°

C)60°

D)63°

E)90°

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Forces and Newtons Laws of Motion

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Q1) Suppose that the system were placed in an elevator that accelerates downward at 2 m/s2. What would the scale read?

A)6 N

B)8 N

C)0 N

D)4 N

E)2 N

Q2) Which one of the following statements concerning the two "gravitational constants" G, the universal gravitational constant, and g the magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity is true?

A)The values of g and G depend on location.

B)The values of g and G do not depend on location.

C)The value of G is the same everywhere in the universe, but the value of g is not.

D)The value of g is the same everywhere in the universe, but the value of G is not.

E)The values of g and G are equal on the surface of any planet, but in general, G varies with location in the universe.

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Chapter 5: Dynamics of Uniform Circular Motion

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Q1) What is the magnitude of the frictional force between the tires and the road as the Jeep negotiates the curve from B to C?

A)9600 N

B)7200 N

C)3600 N

D)1800 N

E)1000 N

Q2) A rock is whirled on the end of a string in a horizontal circle of radius R with a constant period T. If the radius of the circle is reduced to R/3, while the period remains T, what happens to the centripetal acceleration of the rock?

A)The centripetal acceleration remains the same.

B)The centripetal acceleration increases by a factor of 3.

C)The centripetal acceleration increases by a factor of 9.

D)The centripetal acceleration decreases by a factor of 3.

E)The centripetal acceleration decreases by a factor of 9.

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Chapter 6: Work and Energy

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Q1) What is the coefficient of kinetic friction, \(\mu\)k, of the surface from A to B?

A)0.11

B)0.26

C)0.33

D)0.47

E)0.52

Q2) A 10.0-g bullet traveling horizontally at 755 m/s strikes a stationary target and stops after penetrating 14.5 cm into the target. What is the average force of the target on the bullet?

A)1.97 × 104 N

B)2.07 × 105 N

C)6.26 × 103 N

D)3.13 × 104 N

E)3.93 × 104 N

Q3) Which one of the following choices is an example of a non-conservative force?

A)gravitational force

B)electrical force

C)kinetic frictional force

D)elastic spring force

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Chapter 7: Impulse and Momentum

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two objects of equal mass collide on a horizontal frictionless surface. Before the collision, object A is at rest while object B has a constant velocity of 12 m/s. After the collision, the two objects are stuck together. What is the speed of the composite body (A +B) after the collision?

A)3.0 m/s

B)6.0 m/s

C)12 m/s

D)24 m/s

E)36 m/s

Q2) While a car is stopped at a traffic light in a storm, raindrops strike the roof of the car. The area of the roof is 5.0 m2. Each raindrop has a mass of 3.7 × 10-4 kg and speed of 2.5 m/s before impact and is at rest after the impact. If, on average at a given time, 150 raindrops strike each square meter, what is the impulse of the rain striking the car?

A)0.69 N . s

B)0.046 N . s

C)0.14 N . s

D)11 N . s

E)21 N . s

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Page 9

Chapter 8: Rotational Kinematics

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the tangential speed of a lug nut on a wheel of a car if the lug nut is located 0.114 m from the axis of rotation; and the wheel is rotating at 6.53 rev/sec?

A)0.745 m/s

B)1.49 m/s

C)2.98 m/s

D)4.68 m/s

E)9.36 m/s

Q2) Through how many revolutions did the wheel rotate during the 5.0 seconds of braking?

A)10 rev

B)2.0 rev

C)9.6 rev

D)5.0 rev

E)0.4 rev

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Chapter 9: Rotational Dynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the angular speed of the skaters after they have linked together?

A)4 rad/s

B)5 rad/s

C)10 rad/s

D)20 rad/s

E)40 rad/s

Q2) A 60.0-kg skater begins a spin with an angular speed of 6.0 rad/s. By changing the position of her arms, the skater decreases her moment of inertia to one-half its initial value. What is the skater's final angular speed?

A)3.0 rad/s

B)4.5 rad/s

C)9.0 rad/s

D)12 rad/s

E)18 rad/s

Q3) What is the total kinetic energy of the hoop?

A)36 J

B)54 J

C)72 J

D)96 J

E)140 J

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Chapter 10: Simple Harmonic Motion and Elasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) A spring required a force of 5.0 N to compress it 0.1 m. How much work is required to stretch the spring 0.4 m?

A)0.4 J

B)0.6 J

C)0.8 J

D)2 J

E)4 J

Q2) Which one of the following statements concerning Hooke's law is false?

A)Hooke's law relates stress and strain.

B)Hooke's law is valid only for springs.

C)Hooke's law can be verified experimentally.

D)Hooke's law can be applied to a wide range of materials.

E)Hooke's law is valid only within the elastic limit of a given material.

Q3) What is the elongation strain on the wire?

A)1.0 × 102

B)1.0 × 10-2

C)5.0 × 102

D)2.5 × 10-3

E)4.0 × 102

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Fluids

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Q1) The density of gold is 19 300 kg/m3. What is the mass of a gold sphere whose diameter is 0.25 m?

A)87.5 kg

B)158 kg

C)947 kg

D)1260 kg

E)3790 kg

Q2) A curtain hangs straight down in front of an open window. A sudden gust of wind blows past the window; and the curtain is pulled out of the window. Which law, principle, or equation can be used to explain this movement of the curtain?

A)Poiseuille's law

B)Bernoulli's equation

C)the equation of continuity

D)Archimedes' principle

E)Pascal's principle

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Chapter 12: Temperature and Heat

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 4.0-g sample of ice at 0.0 °C falls through a distance of 30.0 m and undergoes a completely inelastic collision with the earth. If all of the mechanical energy is absorbed by the ice, how much of it melts?

A)2.9 × 10-3 g

B)3.3 × 10-3 g

C)7.6 × 10-3 g

D)1.8 × 10-2 g

E)2.1 × 10-2 g

Q2) The coefficient of linear expansion of a certain solid is 11 × 10-6/C°. Assuming this solid behaves like most solids, what is its coefficient of volume expansion?

A)22 × 10-6/C°

B)33 × 10-36/C°

C)33 × 10-6/C°

D)13 × 10-5/C°

E)13 × 10-4/C°

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Chapter 13: The Transfer of Heat

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Q1) The ends of a cylindrical steel rod are maintained at two different temperatures. The rod conducts heat from one end to the other at a rate of 10 cal/s. At what rate would a steel rod twice as long and twice the diameter conduct heat between the same two temperatures?

A)5 cal/s

B)10 cal/s

C)20 cal/s

D)40 cal/s

E)80 cal/s

Q2) A cabin has a 0.159-m thick wooden floor [k = 0.141 W/(m · C°)] with an area of 13.4 m2. A roaring fire keeps the interior of the cabin at a comfortable 18.0 °C while the air temperature in the crawl space below the cabin is -16.4 °C.

What is the rate of heat conduction through the wooden floor?

A)19 J/s

B)138 J/s

C)264 J/s

D)408 J/s

E)459 J/s

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Page 15

Chapter 14: The Ideal Gas Law and Kinetic Theory

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Q1) Two moles of a monatomic gas with an rms speed of 294 m/s are contained in a tank that has a volume of 0.12 m3. If each gas particle has a mass of 8.220 × 10-26 kg, what is the absolute pressure of the gas?

A)2.1 × 105 Pa

B)1.1 × 104 Pa

C)4.8 × 104 Pa

D)2.4 × 104 Pa

E)3.0 × 104 Pa

Q2) What is the internal energy of 1.75 kg of helium (atomic mass = 4.00260 u) with a temperature of 100 °C?

A)4.65 × 103 J

B)5.44 × 105 J

C)2.03 × 106 J

D)8.16 × 106 J

E)1.22 × 107 J

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Chapter 15: Thermodynamics

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Q1) A heat pump is found to remove 2400 J of heat from the exterior of a house and deliver 3500 J of heat to the interior of the house. What is the coefficient of performance of the heat pump?

A)1.5

B)3.2

C)2.7

D)3.9

E)2.2

Q2) What change in temperature occurs when 1600 J of heat are removed from 3.0 moles of monatomic gas under constant pressure?

A)-8.1 K

B)-12 K

C)-15 K

D)-26 K

E)-38 K

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Chapter 16: Waves and Sound

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Q1) During a typical workday (eight hours), the average sound intensity arriving at Larry's ear is 1.8 × 10-5 W/m2. If the area of Larry's ear through which the sound passes is 2.1 × 10-3 m2, what is the total energy entering each of Larry's ears during the workday?

A)1.8 × 10-5 J

B)2.2 × 10-4 J

C)7.4 × 10-4 J

D)1.1 × 10-3 J

E)4.1 × 10-3 J

Q2) Two canoes are 10 m apart on a lake. Each bobs up and down with a period of 8.0 seconds. When one canoe is at its highest point, the other canoe is at its lowest point. Both canoes are always within a single cycle of the waves. Determine the speed of the waves.

A)2.5 m/s

B)1.3 m/s

C)5.0 m/s

D)0.65 m/s

E)0.75 m/s

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Chapter 17: The Principle of Linear Superposition and

Interference Phenomena

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Q1) What is the lowest possible frequency for standing waves on this string?

A)50.0 Hz

B)33.3 Hz

C)25.0 Hz

D)16.7 Hz

E)8.33 Hz

Q2) If pulse 1 were reflected from a wall, which one of the patterns above would represent the reflected pulse?

A)1

B)2

C)3

D)4

E)5

Q3) How many antinodes will be found on the 112 Hz resonance?

A)1

B)2

C)3

D)4

E)5

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Chapter 18: Electric Forces and Electric Fields

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Q1) A charge Q exerts a 1.2 N force on another charge q. If the distance between the charges is doubled, what is the magnitude of the force exerted on Q by q?

A)0.30 N

B)0.60 N

C)2.4 N

D)3.6 N

E)4.8 N

Q2) Which one of the following statements is true concerning the electrostatic charge on a conductor?

A)The charge is uniformly distributed throughout the volume.

B)The charge is confined to the surface and is uniformly distributed.

C)Most of the charge is on the outer surface, but it is not uniformly distributed.

D)The charge is entirely on the surface and it is distributed according to the shape of the object.

E)The charge is dispersed throughout the volume of the object and distributed according to the object's shape.

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Chapter 19: Electric Potential Energy and the Electric

Potential

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Q1) What is the potential difference, VB - VA, between corners A and B?

A)-8.4 × 105 V

B)-7.8 × 105 V

C)-7.2 × 105 V

D)-6.0 × 105 V

E)zero volts

Q2) How much work is required to move a -1.0 \(\mu\)C charge from A to E?

A)+3.0 × 10-5 J

B)-4.0 × 10-5 J

C)+7.0 × 10-5 J

D)-7.0 × 10-5 J

E)zero joules

Q3) At what distance from a 1.0-C charge is the electric potential equal to 12 V?

A)8.3 × 107 m

B)7.5 × 108 m

C)9.0 × 108 m

D)1.1 × 109 m

E)3.0 × 109 m

Page 21

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Chapter 20: Electric Circuits

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Q1) A 3.0-A current is maintained in a simple circuit that consists of a resistor between the terminals of an ideal battery. If the battery supplies energy at a rate of 25 W, how large is the resistance?

A)0.40 \(\varOmega\)

B)0.80 \(\varOmega\)

C)2.4 \(\varOmega\)

D)4.2 \(\varOmega\)

E)8.8 \(\varOmega\)

Q2) When a light bulb is connected to a 4.5 V battery, a current of 0.12 A passes through the bulb filament. What is the resistance of the filament?

A)440 \(\varOmega\)

B)28 \(\varOmega\)

C)9.3 \(\varOmega\)

D)1.4 \(\varOmega\)

E)38 \(\varOmega\)

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Chapter 21: Magnetic Forces and Magnetic Fields

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Q1) What is the magnitude of the magnetic force acting on the wire?

A)0.12 N

B)0.24 N

C)0.48 N

D)67 N

E)zero newtons

Q2) Which one of the following statements concerning permanent magnets is false?

A)The north pole of a permanent magnet is attracted to a south pole.

B)All permanent magnets are surrounded by a magnetic field.

C)The direction of a magnetic field is indicated by the north pole of a compass.

D)Magnetic field lines outside a permanent magnet originate from the north pole and end on the south pole.

E)When a permanent magnet is cut in half, one piece will be a north pole and one piece will be a south pole.

Q3) What is the direction of the magnetic field at the point P?

A)to the left of the page

B)to the right of the page

C)toward the bottom of the page

D)out of the plane of the page

E)into the plane of the page

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Chapter 22: Electromagnetic Induction

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Q1) What is the induced current in the loop?

A)0.048 A

B)0.024 A

C)7.2 × 10-3 A

D)3.8 × 10-3 A

E)zero amperes

Q2) A solenoid with 1000 turns has a cross-sectional area of 7.0 cm2 and length of 25 cm. How much energy is stored in the magnetic field of the solenoid when it carries a current of 10.0 A?

A)0.10 J

B)2.8 J

C)0.18 J

D)28 J

E)0.36 J

Q3) Determine the magnitude of the force required to pull the loop.

A)1.3 × 10-4 N

B)2.1 × 10-4 N

C)3.7 × 10-4 N

D)6.8 × 10-4 N

E)9.0 × 10-4 N

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Chapter 23: Alternating Current Circuits

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Q1) What is the inductance of the inductor in a series RCL circuit with a resonant frequency of 640 Hz if the only other element in the circuit is a 1.2-µF capacitor?

A)52 mH

B)74 mH

C)0.12 H

D)2.1 H

E)13 H

Q2) What is the average power supplied to the circuit?

A)48 W

B)54 W

C)63 W

D)83 W

E)112 W

Q3) What is the impedance of the circuit?

A)150 \(\varOmega\)

B)190 \(\varOmega\)

C)360 \(\varOmega\)

D)390 \(\varOmega\)

E)440 \(\varOmega\)

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Page 25

Chapter 24: Electromagnetic Waves

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Q1) What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at t = 6.0 × 10-9 s?

A)1.7 × 10-8 T

B)2.3 × 10-8 T

C)2.8 × 10-8 T

D)3.3 × 10-8 T

E)zero tesla

Q2) Determine the rms value of the electric field magnitude.

A)7.1 N/C

B)12 N/C

C)14 N/C

D)19 N/C

E)28 N/C

Q3) Which one of the following will not generate electromagnetic waves or pulses?

A)a steady direct current

B)an accelerating electron

C)a proton in simple harmonic motion

D)an alternating current

E)charged particles traveling in a circular path in a mass spectrometer

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Page 26

Chapter 25: The Refl Ection of Light: Mirrors

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Q1) A plane mirror is 6 ft tall. What is its focal length?

A)zero feet

B)3 ft

C)6 ft

D)12 ft

E)infinity

Q2) Which one of the following statements concerning the image formed by a concave spherical mirror is true?

A)When the object distance is less than the focal length, the image is virtual.

B)When the object distance is larger than the focal length, the image is virtual.

C)When the object is at the center of curvature, the image is formed at infinity.

D)When the object distance is less than the focal length, the image is inverted relative to the object.

E)When the object distance is larger than the focal length, the image is upright relative to the object.

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Chapter 26: The Refraction of Light: Lenses and Optical Instruments

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Q1) The index of refraction of this lens is 1.51 for red light and 1.53 for blue light. Blue light is focused at the point F. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the focal point for red light?

A)It is also at F.

B)It is very close to D.

C)It is very close to the lens.

D)It is to the left of and close to F.

E)It is to the right of and close to F.

Q2) Which pair of terms most accurately describes the image?

A)real, upright

B)real, inverted

C)virtual, upright

D)virtual, inverted

E)virtual, reduced

Q3) Which color(s) could, in principle, be seen by the observer?

A)only red light

B)only green light

C)only violet light

D)only green and red light

E)only green and violet light

Page 28

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Chapter 27: Interference and the Wave Nature of Light

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Q1) Two slits are separated by 2.00 × 10-5 m. They are illuminated by light of wavelength 5.60 × 10-7 m. If the distance from the slits to the screen is 6.00 m, what is the separation between the central bright fringe and the third dark fringe?

A)0.421 m

B)0.224 m

C)0.168 m

D)0.084 m

E)0.070 m

Q2) A 30.0-mm wide diffraction grating produces a deviation of 30.0° in the second order principal maxima. The wavelength of light is 600.0 nm. What is the total number of slits on the grating?

A)10 000

B)11 500

C)12 500

D)14 000

E)15 000

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Chapter 28: Special Relativity

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Q1) Determine the ratio of the kinetic energy of rocket B to its rest energy.

A)0.80

B)0.67

C)0.54

D)0.33

E)0.25

Q2) Observer O finds that the block takes 12 s to go from A to B. How long would this time interval appear to be to an observer riding on the block?

A)3 s

B)6 s

C)12 s

D)24 s

E)48 s

Q3) How much energy would be released if 1.0 g of material were completely converted into energy?

A)9 × 108 J

B)9 × 109 J

C)9 × 1011 J

D)9 × 1013 J

E)9 × 1016 J

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Chapter 29: Particles and Waves

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54 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A laser emits photons of energy 5.0 eV with a power of 10-2

W. How many photons are emitted each second?

A)4.0 × 1014

B)2.7 × 1015

C)5.0 × 1018

D)3.1 × 1021

E)2.5 × 1021

Q2) The work function for a particular metal is 4.0 eV. Which one of the following best describes the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation needed to eject electrons from this metal?

A)310 nm or greater

B)310 nm or smaller

C)620 nm or greater

D)620 nm or smaller

E)800 nm or greater

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Chapter 30: The Nature of the Atom

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which electron energy will produce the largest cutoff wavelength for X-ray production from a nickel (Z = 28) surface?

A)25 keV

B)30 keV

C)35 keV

D)40 keV

E)45 keV

Q2) Electrons in an X-ray tube are accelerated through a potential difference of 40 kV. The electrons then strike a zirconium (Z = 40) target. Determine the cutoff frequency for X-ray production.

A)4.7 × 1019 Hz

B)9.7 × 1018 Hz

C)3.2 × 1018 Hz

D)6.7 × 1017 Hz

E)1.1 × 1016 Hz

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Chapter 31: Nuclear Physics and Radioactivity

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nucleus of an atom has a radius of 5.61 × 10-15 m. If the nucleus contains 45 protons, how many neutrons does the nucleus contain?

A)45

B)57

C)69

D)84

E)102

Q2) The ratio of the abundance of carbon-14 to carbon-12 in a sample of dead wood is one quarter the ratio for living wood. If the half-life of carbon-14 is 5730 years, which one of the following expressions determines how many years ago the wood died?

A)2 × 5730

B)4 × 5730

C)0.75 × 5730

D)0.50 × 5730

E)0.25 × 5730

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Chapter 32: Ionizing Radiation, Nuclear Energy, and Elementary Particles

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Sample Questions

Q1) Complete the following statement: The average biologically equivalent dose of radiation from consumer products received by a resident of the United States is about

A)10 mrem/yr.

B)15 mrem/yr.

C)20 mrem/yr.

D)50 mrem/yr.

E)200 mrem/yr.

Q2) What is the antiparticle of an electron?

A)\(\pi\)+

B)v+

C)electron (self)

D)photon

E)\(\beta\)+

Q3) What is the importance of thermal neutrons in nuclear processes?

A)Thermal neutron capture results in uranium fission.

B)Thermal neutrons are released in radioactive decay.

C)Thermal neutrons are necessary in the fusion of deuterium.

D)Thermal neutrons are commonly released in fusion reactions.

E)Thermal neutrons are sources of gamma rays.

Page 34

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