Physics for Health Sciences Practice Exam - 1470 Verified Questions by Quizplus

Physics for Health Sciences

Practice Exam

Course Introduction

Physics for Health Sciences introduces fundamental concepts of physics with a focus on applications relevant to health and medical fields. The course covers topics such as mechanics, fluid dynamics, thermodynamics, electricity, magnetism, optics, and modern physics, emphasizing their roles in human physiology, diagnostic imaging, medical instrumentation, and treatment technologies. Students will develop a conceptual understanding of how physical principles underpin biological processes and medical practices, preparing them for advanced studies or careers in health sciences.

Recommended Textbook

College Physics Strategic Approach with Mastering Physics 2nd Edition by Randall D. Knight

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30 Chapters

1470 Verified Questions

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Representing Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) A person on a diet loses 1.6 kg in a week.How many micrograms/second (µg/s)are lost?

A)2.6 × 103 g/s

B)1.6 × 105 g/s

C)44 g/s

D)6.4 × 104 g/s

Answer: A

Q2) A weight lifter can bench press 171 kg.How many milligrams (mg)is this?

A)1.71 × 108 mg

B)1.71 × 109 mg

C)1.71 × 107 mg

D)1.71 × 106 mg

Answer: A

Q3) What are some advantages of using scientific notation to express very large or very small numbers?

Answer: The main advantage is the ability to express these numbers in a minimum amount of space.For example:

1 trillion = 1,000,000,000,000 = 1 × 1012

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Motion in One Dimension

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Q1) A toy rocket is launched vertically from ground level (y = 0 m),at time t = 0.0 s.The rocket engine provides constant upward acceleration during the burn phase.At the instant of engine burnout,the rocket has risen to 81 m and acquired a velocity of 40 m/s.The rocket continues to rise in unpowered flight,reaches maximum height,and falls back to the ground.The upward acceleration of the rocket during the burn phase is closest to:

A)9.9 m/s2

B)9.6 m/s2

C)9.3 m/s2

D)9.0 m/s2

E)8.7 m/s2

Answer: A

Q2) A bicyclist starts a timed race at 6.0 mi/h.In order to win,he must average 21 mi/h.Assuming constant acceleration from the start,how fast must he be traveling at the end of the race?

A)36 mi/h

B)30 mi/h

C)24 mi/h

D)42 mi/h

Answer: A

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Vectors and Motion in Two Dimensions

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Sample Questions

Q1) A hobby rocket reaches a height of 72.3 m and lands 111 m from the launch point.What was the angle of launch?

A)69.0°

B)67.4°

C)22.6°

D)-44.8°

Answer: A

Q2) A small boat is moving at a velocity of 3.35 m/s when it is accelerated by a river current perpendicular to the initial direction of motion.If the current acceleration is 0.750 m/s2,what will the new velocity of the boat be after 33.5 s?

A)25.3 m/s at 82.4° from initial direction of motion

B)25.3 m/s at 7.59° from initial direction of motion

C)640.1 m/s at 82.4° from initial direction of motion

D)640.1 m/s at 7.59° from initial direction of motion

Answer: A

Q3) Are projectiles subject to constant acceleration in two dimensions?

Answer: Yes,they are subject to the constant acceleration (g)along the vertical.

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Chapter 4: Forces and Newtons Laws of Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two forces act on a 55 kg object.One force has magnitude 65 N directed 59° clockwise from the positive x-axis,and the other has a magnitude 35 N at 32° clockwise from the positive y-axis.What is the magnitude of this object's acceleration?

A)1.1 m/s2

B)1.3 m/s2

C)1.5 m/s2

D)1.7 m/s2

Q2) A stalled car is being pushed up a hill by three people,and it is moving at a constant speed.The net force on the car is A)zero.

B)in the same direction of the car's motion.

C)in the opposite direction of the car's motion.

D)None of the above

Q3) A 27 kg object is accelerated at a rate of 1.7 m/s2.What force does the object experience?

A)46 N

B)16 N

C)63 N

D)98 N

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Page 6

Chapter 5: Applying Newtons Laws

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Q1) A 6.0 kg box slides down an inclined plane that makes an angle of 39° with the horizontal.If the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.19,at what rate does the box accelerate down the slope? (Use g = 9.8 m/s2. )

A)4.7 m/s2

B)5.2 m/s2

C)5.5 m/s2

D)6.2 m/s2

Q2) If I weigh 741 N on Earth and 5320 N on the surface of a nearby planet,what is the acceleration due to gravity on that planet?

A)70.4 m/s2

B)51.4 m/s2

C)61.2 m/s2

D)81.0 m/s2

Q3) If we step on the gas pedal of a car we will accelerate.Why don't we differentiate this action from braking? After all,when the brakes are applied the car decelerates,and that is different from accelerating.

Q4) Explain,from a force standpoint,how a rear spoiler on a race car helps keep the car on the road at high speeds.

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Chapter 6: Circular Motion,orbits,and Gravity

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the gravitational force acting on a person due to another person standing 2 meters away? Assume each individual has 59 kg mass.

A)5.8 × 10-8 N

B)8.5 × 103 N

C)1.2 × 10-7 N

D)9.8 × 10-10 N

E)2.0 × 10-9 N

Q2) A ball of mass 8.0 kg is suspended by two wires from a horizontal arm,which is attached to a vertical shaft,as shown in the figure.The shaft is in uniform rotation about its axis such that the linear speed of the ball equals 2.3 m/s.The tension in wire 1 is closest to:

A)39 N

B)49 N

C)29 N

D)20 N

E)9.8 N

Q3) In uniform circular motion we have an acceleration and the speed doesn't change.But in projectile motion the speed does change under constant acceleration.Why are they both classified as uniform acceleration phenomena?

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Page 8

Chapter 7: Rotational Motion

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Sample Questions

Q1) A disk and a sphere are released simultaneously at the top of an inclined plane.They roll down without slipping.Which will reach the bottom first?

A)the one of smallest diameter

B)the one of greatest mass

C)the disk

D)the sphere

E)They will reach the bottom at the same time.

Q2) A small mass is placed on a record turntable that is rotating at 45 rpm.The linear acceleration of the mass is

A)directed perpendicular to the line joining the mass and the center of rotation.

B)independent (in magnitude)of the position of the mass on the turntable.

C)greater the closer the mass is to the center.

D)greater the farther the mass is from the center.

E)zero.

Q3) There must be equal amounts of mass on either side of the center of mass.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Equilibrium and Elasticity

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the figure,a ladder of weight 200 N and length 10 meters leans against a smooth wall (no friction on wall).A firefighter of weight 600 N climbs a distance x up the ladder.The coefficient of friction between the ladder and the floor is 0.5.What is the maximum value of x if the ladder is not to slip?

A)3.93 m

B)5.00 m

C)6.04 m

D)6.28 m

E)8.44 m

Q2) A 100 kg nonuniform boom,6.0 m long,is loosely pinned at the pivot at P.A 600 kg block is suspended from the end of the boom at A.The boom forms a 30° angle with the horizontal,and is supported by a cable,4.0 m long,between points D and B.Point B is 4.0 m from P,and point D is 4.0 m above P.The center of mass of the boom is at point C,which is 2.0 m from P.In the figure,the tension in the cable is closest to:

A)9300 N

B)8400 N

C)8100 N

D)7500 N

E)6900 N

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Momentum

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two ice skaters of identical mass approach on parallel paths 1.6 m apart.Both are moving at 3.0 m/s.They join hands as they pass,maintaining their 1.6 m separation,and begin rotating about each other.What is their angular speed?

A)3.7 rad/s

B)2.4 rad/s

C)3.0 rad/s

D)4.8 rad/s

Q2) A block of mass m = 7.6 kg,moving on a frictionless surface with a speed vi = 7.6 m/s,makes a perfectly elastic collision with a block of mass M at rest.After the collision,the 7.6 kg block recoils with a speed of vf = 2.5 m/s.In the figure,the blocks are in contact for 0.20 s.The average force on the 7.6 kg block,while the two blocks are in contact,is closest to:

A)384 N

B)336 N

C)289 N

D)241 N

E)194 N

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Chapter 10: Energy and Work

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Sample Questions

Q1) A child swings on a ball of mass m on a rope in a uniform,vertical circle of radius r at a constant speed v.How much work is done by the centripetal force on the ball during one complete revolution?

Q2) A child pulls on a wagon with a force of 75 N.If the wagon moves a total of 42 m in 3 min,what is the average power generated by the child,in watts?

A)18 W

B)22 W

C)24 W

D)27 W

Q3) Viscous friction allows oil to reduce the heating and wear of moving machine parts.But viscous friction depends on velocity.Is that a nonconservative force?

Q4) You push a heavy box of mass m up a frictionless inclined plane of length l and height h in some time t0.Later,you push the same box up a similar inclined plane of length l/2 and height h in the same time t0.What can you say about the relationship between your power output(s)during these two processes? Assume the box is moved at a constant velocity in both cases.

Q5) Is energy conserved during a two-car collision?

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Using Energy

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Sample Questions

Q1) A Carnot engine operates between a high temperature reservoir at 435 K and a river with water at 280 K.If it absorbs 3700 J of heat each cycle,how much work per cycle does it perform?

A)1318 J

B)2382 J

C)1449 J

D)2251 J

Q2) A Carnot engine operating between a warmer unknown temperature and a reservoir of boiling helium at 1.76 K has an efficiency of 11.0%.What is the warmer temperature?

A)1.98 K

B)0.180 K

C)157 K

D)0.160 K

Q3) A laboratory experiment is to be run at 42.0 K.Express this temperature in Celsius to the nearest degree.

A)-231°C

B)315°C

C)74°C

D)415°C

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Page 13

Chapter 12: Thermal Properties of Matter

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Sample Questions

Q1) 148.0 g of water is heated using 67.0 W of power,with perfect efficiency.How long will it take to raise the temperature of the water from 15ºC to 25ºC?

A)92 s

B)5.3 s

C)22 s

D)410,000 s

Q2) 52 g of methane (CH4)contain 3.25 moles of this gas.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A horizontal line on a PV diagram represents an isobaric process.

A)True

B)False

Q4) A 24.0 kg sample of ice is at 0.00°C.How much heat is needed to melt it? (For water Lf = 334 kJ/kg and Lv = 2257 kJ/kg. )

A)8.02 × 103 kJ

B)2.19 × 106 kJ

C)0.00 kJ

D)5.42 × 104 kJ

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Page 14

Chapter 13: Fluids

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Sample Questions

Q1) A pressurized cylindrical tank,5.0 m in diameter,contains water that emerges from the pipe at point C,with a velocity of 13 m/s.Point A is 10 m above point B and point C is 3 m above point B.The area of the pipe at point B is 0.08 m2 and the pipe narrows to an area of 0.04 m2 at point C.Assume the water is an ideal fluid in laminar flow.The density of water is 1000 kg/m3.In the figure,the mass flow rate in the pipe is closest to:

A)520 Kg/s

B)470 Kg/s

C)420 Kg/s

D)360 Kg/s

E)310 Kg/s

Q2) In the figure,fluid fills the container shown here.At which of the indicated points is the pressure greatest?

A)A

B)B

C)C

D)D

E)The pressure is the same at each of the labeled points.

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Page 15

Chapter 14: Oscillations

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Sample Questions

Q1) A disk and a ball both of radius r and mass m,are suspended at a point on the edge of the object at the maximum radius.Which has the smaller period of oscillation?

A)ball

B)disk

C)the same

D)Not enough information

Q2) A pendulum released from 65 degrees with the vertical will vibrate with the same frequency as if it were released from 5 degrees with the vertical.

A)True

B)False

Q3) An object undergoing simple harmonic motion has an amplitude of 2.3 m.If the maximum velocity of the object is 10 m/s,what is the object's angular frequency?

A)4.4 rad/s

B)4.8 rad/s

C)3.5 rad/s

D)4.0 rad/s

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Chapter 15: Traveling Waves and Sound

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Sample Questions

Q1) A weight W is hanging from a light vertical string.If a second weight W is added without stretching the string,the speed of pulses on this string will now be twice as great as it originally was.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The howler monkey is the loudest land animal and can be heard up to a distance of 9.8 km.Assume the acoustic output of a howler to be uniform in all directions.The distance at which the intensity level of a howler's call is 25 dB,in SI units,is closest to:

A)550

B)660

C)830

D)940

E)1100

Q3) Observer A is 2.0 m from a tiny light bulb and observer B is 8.0 m from the same bulb.The intensity of light from this bulb that A sees is 16 times as great as the intensity that B sees.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 16: Superposition and Standing Waves

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Q1) Radio station KBOB broadcasts at a frequency of 85.7 MHz on your dial.Since nearly all of the station's audience is due south of the transmitter,the managers of KBOB don't want to waste any energy broadcasting to the east and west.They decide to build two towers,transmitting at exactly the same frequency,aligned on an east-west axis.For engineering reasons,the two towers must be at least 10 meters apart.What's the shortest distance between the towers that will eliminate all broadcast power to the east and west?

Q2) In Situation 16.1,the number of antinodes in the standing wave pattern is:

A)3

B)4

C)5

D)6

E)7

Q3) If a tube filled with air and closed at both ends is 1.60 m long,the longest possible wavelength of the standing waves in this tube is 1.60 m.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 17: Wave Optics

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Sample Questions

Q1) An oil film (n = 1.48)of thickness 290 nm floating on water is illuminated with white light at normal incidence.What is the wavelength of the dominant color in the reflected light?

A)Green (541 nm)

B)Blue-green (493 nm)

C)Violet (404 nm)

D)Yellow (572 nm)

E)Blue (470 nm)

Q2) How many grating grooves are needed to resolve two spectral lines at = 351 nm separated by 0.59 nm in order m = 4?

A)149 grooves

B)595 grooves

C)0 grooves

D)297 grooves

Q3) Explain what you see when you squeeze your eyes almost shut while looking at a small light source far away in a dark room.

Q4) A single slit gives destructive interference when ml = w sin .A double slit gives constructive interference when ml = d sin .Explain the role of d and w for the single and double slit.

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Chapter 18: Ray Optics

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Sample Questions

Q1) A glass plate whose index of refraction is 1.66 is immersed in a liquid.The surface of the glass is inclined at an angle of 44° with the vertical.A horizontal ray in the glass is incident on the interface.When the liquid is a certain alcohol,the incident ray arrives at the interface at the critical angle.The index of refraction of the alcohol is closest to:

A)1.15

B)1.13

C)1.11

D)1.09

E)1.17

Q2) Two plane mirrors make an angle of 30°.A light ray enters the system and is reflected once off each mirror.Through what angle is the ray turned?

A)60°

B)90°

C)120°

D)150°

Q3) A flashlight forms a 10 ft spot on a far wall.How can you tell if the filament is between the focal point and the spherical reflector or outside of it?

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Optical Instruments

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Sample Questions

Q1) You use a $600 lens from a photocopy machine hoping to make a good telescope.Yet the image is disappointingly bad.Why?

Q2) A simple camera lens with focal object length fo = 3.00 cm perfectly focuses the image of an object on a photographic film located a distance 14.00 cm away from the lens.The object now moves away from the lens and the new focal distance is 13.00 cm. (a)How far did the object move? (b)What is the new magnification?

A)(a)0.08 cm (b)3.33

B)(a)0.03 cm (b)0.30

C)(a)990.00 cm (b)0.23

D)(a)12.22 cm (b)4.33

Q3) A magnifier consists of a converging lens with the object distance greater than the focal length of the lens.

A)True

B)False

Q4) What optical element would you need and how would you use it to determine the focal length of a concave lens.

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Electric Fields and Forces

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Q1) The electric field at point P due to a point charge Q a distance R away has magnitude E.In order to double the magnitude of the field at P,you could

A)double the charge to 2Q.

B)double the distance to 2R.

C)reduce the distance to R/2.

D)reduce the distance to R/4.

E)double the charge to 2Q and at the same time reduce the distance to R/2.

Q2) If the electric field strength is 500 N/C at a point 2 cm from an infinite line of charge,the field will be 125 N/C at a point 4 cm from this line.

A)True

B)False

Q3) If the electric field strength is 900 N/C at a point 5 cm from an infinite plane of charge,its strength will be reduced to 9 N/C at a point 50 cm from the plane.

A)True

B)False

Q4) It is impossible for any object to have a charge of 7.5 e.

A)True

B)False

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Electric Potential

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Q1) A proton with a speed of 2.0 x 105 m/s falls through a potential difference V and thereby increases its speed to 4.0 × 105 m/s.Through what potential difference did the proton fall?

A)630 V

B)210 V

C)840 V

D)1000 V

E)100 V

Q2) A 6.0 C negative charge is attracted to a large,well-anchored,positive charge.How much kinetic energy does the negatively charged object gain if the potential difference through which it moves is 3 mV?

A)18 nJ

B)0.50 kJ

C)0.50 J

D)6.0 J

Q3) If the potential is constant on a surface,then any electric field present can only be perpendicular to that surface.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 22: Current and Resistance

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Q1) A 3.0 V battery that can store 400.0 J of energy is connected to a resistor.How much electrical charge must flow between the battery's terminals to completely drain the battery if it is fully charged?

A)130 C

B)0.01 C

C)1200 C

D)0.02 C

Q2) When current is flowing in a metal,the electrons are moving at nearly the speed of light.

A)True

B)False

Q3) A jeweler needs to electroplate gold (atomic mass 196.97 u)onto a bracelet.He knows that the charge carriers in the ionic solution are gold ions,and has calculated that he must deposit 0.20 g of gold to reach the necessary thickness.How much current does he need to plate the bracelet in 3.0 hours? (Avogadro's number is 6.02 × 1023. )

A)9.1 mA

B)540 mA

C)33 A

D)1800 mA

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Chapter 23: Circuits

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Q1) If a 75 W bulb and a 100 W bulb are connected in series across a 120 V outlet,the 75 W bulb will dissipate 75 W of power and the 100 W bulb will dissipate 100 W of power.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A 1.0 F capacitor is charged until it acquires a potential difference of 700.0 V across its plates,then the emf source is removed.If the capacitor is then discharged through a 200.0 k resistance of a circuit,what is the voltage drop across the capacitor 7.0 ms later?

A)680 V

B)720 V

C)24 V

D)-25 V

Q3) Of voltmeters and ammeters,which is/are connected in series?

Q4) A circuit requires a 500 resistor,but all that is available are 1 k resistors.If the 1 k resistors are in abundant supply,how can they be combined to achieve the desired resistance?

Q5) The high potential end of a resistor is the end at which the current enters it.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 24: Magnetic Fields and Forces

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Q1) Two long,parallel bars carry equal currents in opposite directions.The magnetic fields due to these two currents cancel each other midway between the two bars.

A)True

B)False

Q2) If the magnetic field strength is 20 T at a distance of 3.0 cm from a long,straight,very thin current-carrying wire,the field will be 5 T 12 cm away from the wire.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Consider a solenoid of length L,N windings,and radius b (L is much longer than b).A current I is flowing through the wire.If the length of the solenoid became twice as long (2L),and all other quantities remained the same,the magnetic field inside the solenoid would

A)stay the same.

B)become twice as strong as initially.

C)become half as strong as initially.

Q4) The net magnetic field inside a conductor must be zero.

A)True

B)False

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Page 26

Chapter 25: Electromagnetic Induction and Electromagnetic Waves

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Q1) Light of intensity So and polarized horizontally passes through three polarizers.The first and third are horizontal,but the second is oriented 0.34907 rad to the horizontal.In terms of So,what is the intensity of the light that passes through the set of polarizers?

A)0.780 So

B)0.103 So

C)0.442 So

D)0.883 So

Q2) In the figure,two parallel wires carry a current I in opposite directions.A rectangular loop is midway between the wires.The current I is decreasing.The induced current through the resistor R is:

A)zero

B)from a to b

C)from b to a

Q3) What is the energy of a photon in light of 610 nm wavelength? Express your answer in eV.

A)2.04 eV

B)2.20 eV

C)1.87 eV

D)1.71 eV

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Chapter 26: Ac Electricity

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Q1) In an AC circuit consisting of a resistor and capacitor in series with each other,the sum of the peak voltages across the resistor and across the capacitor must add up to the emf of the AC source.

A)True

B)False

Q2) An LC circuit has a resonance frequency of 9.0 kHz.If the inductor in the circuit has a value of 8.0 H,what is the capacitance of the circuit?

A)0.04 pF

B)39 pF

C)1.5 pF

D)4.4 pF

Q3) A circuit containing a 39-H inductor has an alternating current supplied to it.If Irms is 10.0 A and Vp is 18 V,find the frequency of the signal.

A)0.0052 Hz

B)0.21 Hz

C)0.033 Hz

D)0.41 Hz

Q4) If a circuit doubles its peak voltage,what happens to its rms voltage?

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Page 28

Chapter 27: Relativity

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Q1) A spaceship is moving between two distant stars at 0.932 c.To someone in the ship,the distance between the two stars appears to be 26.4 ly.What is the distance between the stars in the stars' rest frame?

A)72.8 ly

B)9.57 ly

C)21.1 ly

D)55.4 ly

Q2) An astronomer on Earth sees a meteor hit the Moon at exactly the same time as he sees a solar flare erupt on the sun.The solar flare and the meteor impact are simultaneous events in this astronomer's reference frame.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Consider two synchronized,extremely accurate clocks.One clock is on the ground,the other is placed in a jet and flown once around the world,then taken out of the plane and compared with the ground clock.Will the clock on the jet read a time earlier than,the same as,or later than the stationary clock? Support your answer?

Q4) Explain why it is impossible for an object to travel at the speed of light.

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Chapter 28: Quantum Physics

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Q1) Upon being struck by 240 nm photons,a material ejects electrons with a maximum kinetic energy of 2.58 eV.What is the work function of this material?

A)2.60 eV

B)2.18 eV

C)3.02 eV

D)3.43 eV

Q2) A blue laser beam is incident on a metallic surface,causing electrons to be ejected from the metal.If the frequency of the laser beam is increased while the intensity of the beam is held fixed,

A)the rate of ejected electrons will decrease and the maximum kinetic energy will increase.

B)the rate of ejected electrons will remain the same but the maximum kinetic energy will increase.

C)the rate of ejected electrons will increase and the maximum kinetic energy will increase.

D)the rate of ejected electrons will remain the same but the maximum kinetic energy will decrease.

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Chapter 29: Atoms and Molecules

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Q1) All atoms of a given element contain exactly the same number of protons in their nucleus,but they may have different numbers of neutrons.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The number of electrons in the nucleus is equal to the number of protons.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The electron in a hydrogen atom is infinitely distant at zero potential energy and is at an average radius of ao = 0.0529 nm when bound by 13.6 eV.A barely bound H atom may have an average radius as large as a bacterium,R = 14 m.What is the nearest principal quantum number in this state?

A)514

B)51

C)16

D)264,650

Q4) In atoms having two or more electrons,no two electrons can have the same value for all four quantum numbers.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 30: Nuclear Physics

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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the nuclear force?

A)The nuclear force has a short range,of the order of nuclear dimensions.

B)For two protons in close proximity,the nuclear force and the electric force have comparable magnitudes.

C)The nuclear force does not depend on charge.

D)A nucleon in a large nucleus interacts via the nuclear force only with nearby nucleons,not with ones far away in the nucleus.

E)The nuclear force favors binding of pairs of protons or neutrons with opposite spin angular momenta.

Q2) A summary of the nuclear reactions that power our sun can be written as 4p $\to$ 4He + 2e-,with masses of 938.272 MeV/c2 for proton,3727.38 MeV/c2 for helium,and 0.511 MeV/c2 for electrons.If this is the reaction that occurs,how much energy is released?

A)24.69 MeV

B)28.3 MeV

C)2790.13 MeV

D)279.01 MeV

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