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Introduction
Physics for Engineers is designed to introduce engineering students to fundamental principles of physics with a strong emphasis on real-world applications in various engineering disciplines. The course covers classical mechanics, thermodynamics, electromagnetism, waves, and modern physics, integrating theoretical concepts with practical problem-solving techniques relevant to engineering. Through lectures, laboratory experiments, and collaborative projects, students develop analytical skills, quantitative reasoning, and a solid scientific foundation essential for advanced study and professional practice in engineering fields.
Recommended Textbook Physics 10th Edition by John D. Cutnell
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Q1) Complete the following statement: Today, the standard unit of mass is defined in terms of
A)a specified volume of water at 4 °C.
B)a standard platinum-iridium cylinder.
C)a specified number of cesium atoms.
D)a standard platinum bar.
E)the speed of light.
Answer: B
Q2) Which one of the following choices is equivalent to 8.0 m<sup>2</sup>?
A)8.0 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup><sup> </sup>cm<sup>2</sup>
B)8.0 × 10<sup>2</sup><sup> </sup>cm<sup>2</sup>
C)8.0 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>2</sup><sup> </sup>cm<sup>2</sup>
D)8.0 × 10<sup>4</sup><sup> </sup>cm<sup>2</sup>
E)8.0 × 10<sup>3</sup><sup> </sup>cm<sup>2</sup>
Answer: D
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Q1) A Canadian goose flew 845 km from Southern California to Oregon with an average speed of 28.0 m/s. How long, in hours, did it take the goose to make this journey?
A)27.7 h
B)8.33 h
C)66.1 h
D)7.70 h
E)8.38 h
Answer: E
Q2) A hammer is accidentally dropped from rest down a vertical mine shaft. How long does it take for the rock to reach a depth of 79 m? Neglect air resistance.
A)2.8 s
B)9.0 s
C)8.0 s
D)4.9 s
E)4.0 s
Answer: E
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Q1) At which point is the velocity vector changing most rapidly with time?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)It is changing at the same rate at all four points.
Answer: E
Q2) On a two lane highway, a car is following a pickup truck. At one instant, the car has a speed of 32 m/s and is 184 m behind the truck. At the same time, the truck has a speed of 28 m/s. If neither vehicle accelerates, how long will it take the car to catch up to the truck?
A)4.8 s
B)24 s
C)46 s
D)82 s
E)96 s
Answer: C
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Q1) Which one of the following terms is used to indicate the natural tendency of an object to remain at rest or in motion at a constant speed along a straight line?
A)velocity
B)inertia
C)acceleration
D)equilibrium
E)force
Q2) An astronaut orbits the earth in a space capsule whose height above the earth is equal to the earth's radius. How does the mass of the astronaut in the capsule compare to her mass on the earth?
A)Her mass is equal to her mass on earth.
B)Her mass is approximately equal to one-fourth her mass on earth.
C)Her mass is approximately equal to one-half of her mass on earth.
D)Her mass is approximately equal to one-third of her mass on earth.
E)Her mass is approximately equal to one-sixteenth her mass on earth.
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Q1) A space station is designed in the shape of a large, hollow donut that is uniformly rotating. The outer radius of the station is 350 m. With what period must the station rotate so that a person sitting on the outer wall experiences "artificial gravity," i.e. an acceleration of 9.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>?
A)230 s
B)170 s
C)110 s
D)76 s
E)38 s
Q2) Complete the following statement: The maximum speed at which a car can safely negotiate an unbanked curve depends on all of the following factors except
A)the diameter of the curve.
B)the acceleration due to gravity.
C)the coefficient of static friction between the road and the tires.
D)the coefficient of kinetic friction between the road and the tires.
E)the ratio of the static frictional force between the road and the tires and the normal force exerted on the car.
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Q1) An elevator supported by a single cable descends a shaft at a constant speed. The only forces acting on the elevator are the tension in the cable and the gravitational force. Which one of the following statements is true?
A)The magnitude of the work done by the tension force is larger than that done by the gravitational force.
B)The magnitude of the work done by the gravitational force is larger than that done by the tension force.
C)The work done by the tension force is zero joules.
D)The work done by the gravitational force is zero joules.
E)The net work done by the two forces is zero joules.
Q2) A block is dropped from a high tower and is falling freely under the influence of gravity. Which one of the following statements is true concerning this situation? Neglect air resistance.
A)As the block falls, the net work done by all of the forces acting on the block is zero joules.
B)The kinetic energy increases by equal amounts over equal distances.
C)The kinetic energy of the block increases by equal amounts in equal times.
D)The potential energy of the block decreases by equal amounts in equal times.
E)The total energy of the block increases by equal amounts over equal distances.
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Q1) A stationary bomb explodes in space breaking into a number of small fragments. At the location of the explosion, the net force due to gravity is zero newtons. Which one of the following statements concerning this event is true?
A)Kinetic energy is conserved in this process.
B)All of the fragments must have equal kinetic energies.
C)The sum of the kinetic energies of the fragments must be zero.
D)The vector sum of the linear momenta of the fragments must be zero.
E)The mass of any one fragment must be equal to the mass of any other fragment.
Q2) Two objects constitute an isolated system. In an elastic collision between the two objects, which one of the following statements is a false statement?
A)The total kinetic energy is conserved.
B)The kinetic energy of each object is the same before and after the collision.
C)The total momentum is conserved.
D)The magnitude of the force exerted by each object on the other object is equal.
E)The total kinetic energy before the collision is equal to the total kinetic energy after the collision.
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Q1) Through how many revolutions does the grindstone turn during the 4.0-second interval?
A)0.64
B)3.8
C)4.0
D)6.4
E)40
Q2) A circular disk of radius 0.015 m rotates with a constant angular speed of 5.0 rev/s. What is the acceleration of a point on the edge of the disk?
A)0.31 m/s<sup>2</sup>
B)1.6 m/s<sup>2</sup>
C)9.9 m/s<sup>2</sup>
D)15 m/s<sup>2</sup>
E)zero m/s<sup>2</sup>
Q3) How far did the bicycle travel during the 5.0 seconds of braking?
A)1.8 m
B)8.8 m
C)22 m
D)42 m
E)44 m
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Q1) A solid sphere rolls without slipping along a horizontal surface. What percentage of its total kinetic energy is rotational kinetic energy?
A)33 %
B)50 %
C)12 %
D)75 %
E)29 %
Q2) Which one of the following statements is true concerning the angular momentum of this hoop?
A)It points into the paper.
B)It points out of the paper.
C)It points to the left.
D)It points to the right.
E)It varies from point to point on the hoop.
Q3) What is the total kinetic energy of the hoop?
A)36 J
B)54 J
C)72 J
D)96 J
E)140 J
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Q1) Complete the following statement: Young's modulus cannot be applied to A)a stretched wire.
B)a compressed rod.
C)a bending beam.
D)a compressed liquid.
E)a stretched rubber band.
Q2) The acceleration of a certain simple harmonic oscillator is given by a = -(15.8 m/s<sup>2</sup>) cos (2.51t). What is the amplitude of the simple harmonic motion?
A)2.51 m
B)4.41 m
C)6.30 m
D)11.1 m
E)15.8 m
Q3) Complete the following statement: In general, the term stress refers to A)a change in volume.
B)a change in length.
C)a force per unit area.
D)a fractional change in length.
E)a force per unit length.
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Q1) What is the average density of the balloon?
A)0.2 kg/m<sup>3</sup>
B)0.4 kg/m<sup>3</sup>
C)0.8 kg/m<sup>3</sup>
D)1.0 kg/m<sup>3</sup>
E)1.2 kg/m<sup>3</sup>
Q2) At standard temperature and pressure, carbon dioxide has a density of 1.98 kg/m<sup>3</sup>. What volume does 1.70 kg of carbon dioxide occupy at standard temperature and pressure?
A)0.43 m<sup>3</sup>
B)0.86 m<sup>3</sup>
C)1.7 m<sup>3</sup>
D)2.3 m<sup>3</sup>
E)4.8 m<sup>3</sup>
Q3) What is the average force exerted by each nail on the professor's body?
A)0.201 N
B)0.398 N
C)1.42 N
D)0.809 N
E)142 N
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Q1) Three thermometers are in the same water bath. After thermal equilibrium is established, it is found that the Celsius thermometer reads 0 °C, the Fahrenheit thermometer reads 12<sup> </sup>°F, and the Kelvin thermometer reads 273 K. Which one of the following statements is the most reasonable conclusion?
A)The Kelvin thermometer is incorrect.
B)The Celsius thermometer is incorrect.
C)The Fahrenheit thermometer is incorrect.
D)All three thermometers are incorrect.
E)The three thermometers are at different temperatures.
Q2) The units of heat are equivalent to those of which one of the following quantities?
A)force/time
B)work
C)temperature
D)specific heat capacity
E)power
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Q1) Assuming a filament in a 100 W light bulb acts like a perfect blackbody, what is the temperature of the hottest portion of the filament if it has a surface area of 6.3 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> m<sup>2</sup>? The Stefan-Boltzmann constant is 5.67 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>8</sup> W/(m<sup>2</sup> · K<sup>2</sup>).
A)130 K
B)1100 K
C)2300 K
D)5800 K
E)30 000 K
Q2) What is the temperature at the interface between A and B?
A)296 K
B)306 K
C)313 K
D)323 K
E)332 K
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Q1) Heat is supplied to a sample of a monatomic ideal gas at 40 °C. It is observed that the gas expands until its volume and pressure are doubled. What is the final temperature of the gas?
A)10 °C
B)20 °C
C)40 °C
D)980 °C
E)1600 °C
Q2) A flask contains 1.00 mole of oxygen gas, O<sub>2</sub>, at 0.00 °C and 1.013 × 10<sup>5</sup> Pa. What is the rms speed of the molecules? Note: the atomic mass of O is 16 u.
A)230 m/s
B)460 m/s
C)651 m/s
D)920 m/s
E)1302 m/s
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Q1) What is the maximum possible efficiency of an engine operating between the boiling and freezing points of water at sea level?
A)0.27
B)0.49
C)0.61
D)0.85
E)1.0
Q2) How much work is done on the gas as it is compressed isobarically from state C to state D?
A)zero joules
B)50 J
C)100 J
D)200 J
E)400 J
Q3) What is the temperature of the gas when it is in state B?
A)437 K
B)573 K
C)927 K
D)1200 K
E)1473 K
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Q1) The intensity of a spherical wave 2.5 m from the source is 120 W/m<sup>2</sup>. What is the intensity at a point 9.0 m away from the source?
A)9.3 W/m<sup>2</sup>
B)24 W/m<sup>2</sup>
C)53 W/m<sup>2</sup>
D)80 W/m<sup>2</sup>
E)270 W/m<sup>2</sup>
Q2) A wave has a frequency of 58 Hz and a speed of 31 m/s. What is the wavelength of this wave?
A)1.9 m
B)3.5 m
C)0.29 m
D)0.53 m
E)31 m
Q3) How far does the car move in one period of the sound emitted from the horn?
A)0.08 m
B)0.16 m
C)8 m
D)16 m
E)35 m
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Q1) What is the distance to the nearest antinode from the fixed end of a guitar string vibrating at its first harmonic?
A)\(\lambda\)
B)2\(\lambda\)
C)\(\lambda\)/2
D)\(\lambda\)/4
E)3\(\lambda\)/4
Q2) When plucked, a 0.62-m guitar string produces a sound wave with a fundamental frequency of 196 Hz. The speed of sound in air is 343 m/s. Determine the ratio of the wavelength of the sound wave to the wavelength of the waves that travel on the string.
A)0.071
B)0.28
C)0.49
D)1.4
E)2.0
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Q1) Which path would be followed by a charge +6Q?
A)path 1
B)path 2
C)path 3
D)path 4
E)path 5
Q2) One mole of a substance contains 6.02 × 10<sup>23 </sup>protons and an equal number of electrons. If the protons could somehow be separated from the electrons and placed in very small, individual containers separated by a million meters, what would be the magnitude of the electrostatic force exerted by one box on the other?
A)8.7 × 10<sup>3 </sup>N
B)9.5 × 10<sup>4 </sup>N
C)2.2 × 10<sup>5 </sup>N
D)8.4 × 10<sup>7 </sup>N
E)1.6 × 10<sup>8 </sup>N
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Q1) A parallel plate capacitor has plates of area 2.0 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>3</sup> m<sup>2</sup> and plate separation 1.0 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup> m. Air fills the volume between the plates. What potential difference is required to establish a 3.0 \(\mu\)C charge on the plates?
A)9.3 × 10<sup>2</sup> V
B)2.4 × 10<sup>4</sup> V
C)1.7 × 10<sup>4</sup> V
D)6.9 × 10<sup>3</sup> V
E)3.7 × 10<sup>5</sup> V
Q2) What is the direction of the electric field at B?
A)toward A
B)toward D
C)toward C
D)into the page
E)up and out of the page
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Q1) What is the equivalent resistance between the points A and B?
A)3.8 \(\varOmega\)
B)4.3 \(\varOmega\)
C)5.1 \(\varOmega\)
D)6.8 \(\varOmega\)
E)9.0 \(\varOmega\)
Q2) Which one of the following statements concerning resistance is true?
A)The resistance of a semiconductor increases with temperature.
B)Resistance is a property of resistors, but not conductors.
C)The resistance of a metal wire changes with temperature.
D)The resistance is the same for all samples of the same material.
E)The resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to the length of the wire.
Q3) A 4-A current is maintained in a simple circuit with a total resistance of 2 \(\varOmega\). How much energy is delivered in forty five seconds?
A)1440 J
B)96 J
C)360 J
D)720 J
E)240 J
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Q1) What is the magnitude of the magnetic field at the center of the loop?
A)2.0 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> T
B)1.3 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> T
C)2.0 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup> T
D)1.3 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>4</sup> T
E)zero tesla
Q2) Which ion falls at position 2?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) What is the magnitude of the net magnetic force that acts on the loop?
A)8.0 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>6</sup> N
B)1.1 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> N
C)1.4 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> N
D)1.7 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> N
E)2.3 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> N
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Q1) Which one of the following phrases best describes the direction of the induced magnetic field generated by the current induced in the loop while the loop is being stretched?
A)clockwise
B)counterclockwise
C)into the page
D)out of the page
E)The induced field is zero.
Q2) At what rate is energy dissipated by the resistor?
A)130 W
B)96 W
C)32 W
D)49 W
E)8.0 W
Q3) What is the direction of the magnetic field?
A)to the left
B)to the right
C)out of the paper
D)into the paper
E)toward the top of the page
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Q1) What is the impedance of the circuit?
A)150 \(\varOmega\)
B)190 \(\varOmega\)
C)360 \(\varOmega\)
D)390 \(\varOmega\)
E)440 \(\varOmega\)
Q2) A 14.0-µF capacitor and a 1480-\(\varOmega\) resistor are connected in series to a generator operating at 50.0 Hz and producing an rms voltage of 208 V. What is the average power dissipated in this circuit?
A)190 W
B)28.9 W
C)19.7 W
D)4.18 W
E)zero watts
Q3) Determine the reactance of this circuit element.
A)20 \(\varOmega\)
B)25 \(\varOmega\)
C)40 \(\varOmega\)
D)57 \(\varOmega\)
E)80 \(\varOmega\)
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Q1) What is the direction of polarization of this electromagnetic wave?
A)the x direction
B)the y direction
C)the z direction
D)45° with respect to the x direction
E)the wave is not polarized
Q2) Which one of the following scientists did not attempt to measure the speed of light?
A)Galileo
B)Maxwell
C)Fizeau
D)Foucault
E)Michelson
Q3) Which one of the following colors of visible light has the highest frequency?
A)yellow
B)red
C)green
D)blue
E)violet
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Q1) The radius of curvature of a spherical convex mirror is 52 cm. What is its focal length?
A)+26 cm
B)-26 cm
C)+52 cm
D)-52 cm
E)+104 cm
Q2) Which one of the following groups of terms best describes the image?
A)real, upright, enlarged
B)real, inverted, reduced
C)virtual, upright, enlarged
D)real, inverted, enlarged
E)virtual, inverted, reduced
Q3) An object is 1.0 m in front of a mirror. A virtual image is formed 10.0 m behind the mirror. What is the radius of curvature of the mirror?
A)0.56 m
B)1.1 m
C)2.2 m
D)4.4 m
E)This problem cannot be solved without more information.
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Q1) The compound microscope discussed in Cutnell and Johnson's text is made from two lenses. Which one of the following statements is true concerning the operation of this microscope?
A)Both lenses form real images.
B)Both lenses form virtual images.
C)Only the lens closest to the eye forms an image.
D)The lens closest to the object forms a real image; the other lens forms a virtual image.
E)The lens closest to the object forms a virtual image; the other lens forms a real image.
Q2) Complete the following statement: The term dispersion refers to the fact that the index of refraction of certain materials
A)depends on the Brewster angle.
B)depends on the wavelength of light.
C)depends on the angle of incidence.
D)depends on the intensity of light.
E)depends on the polarization of light.
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Q1) A transparent film (n = 1.4) is deposited on a glass lens (n = 1.5) to form a non-reflective coating. What thickness would prevent reflection of light with wavelength 5.00 × 10<sup>2 </sup>nm in air?
A)89 nm
B)125 nm
C)170 nm
D)250 nm
E)357 nm
Q2) Light of wavelength 700.0 nm passes through a diffraction grating. The m = 0 and m = 1 bright spots are 6.0 cm apart on a screen positioned 2.0 m from the grating. What is the spacing between the slits in the grating?
A)23.3 mm
B)42.0 \(\mu\)m
C)46.7 \(\mu\)m
D)73.8 \(\mu\)m
E)124 \(\mu\)m
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Q1) Determine the total energy of an electron traveling at 0.98c.
A)0.25 MeV
B)0.51 MeV
C)0.76 MeV
D)1.8 MeV
E)2.6 MeV
Q2) Determine the diameter of the galaxy as perceived by a person in the spaceship.
A)2.49 light years
B)3.63 light years
C)4.99 light years
D)12.4 light years
E)36.3 light years
Q3) Which one of the following systems would constitute an inertial reference frame?
A)a weather balloon descending at constant velocity
B)a rocket undergoing uniform acceleration
C)a roller coaster traveling around a corkscrew turn at constant speed
D)an orbiting space station
E)a rotating merry-go-round
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Q1) In a computer monitor, electrons approach the screen at 1.20 × 10<sup>8</sup> m/s. What is the de Broglie wavelength of these electrons? Note: the mass of electrons is 9.109 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>31</sup> kg; and use the relativistic momentum in your calculation.
A)4.31 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>12</sup> m
B)5.56 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>12</sup> m
C)6.07 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>12</sup> m
D)6.62 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>12</sup> m
E)7.85 × 10<sup>-</sup><sup>12</sup> m
Q2) Determine the energy of a single photon in a monochromatic beam of light of wavelength 625 nm.
A)1.99 eV
B)2.08 eV
C)2.32 eV
D)3.49 eV
E)4.77 eV
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Q1) Which one of the following will result in an electron transition from the n = 4 level to the n = 7 level in a hydrogen atom?
A)emission of a 0.28 eV photon
B)emission of a 0.57 eV photon
C)absorption of a 0.85 eV photon
D)absorption of a 0.28 eV photon
E)absorption of a 0.57 eV photon
Q2) What is the total number of subshells in the n = 3 level?
A)3
B)6
C)7
D)9
E)18
Q3) Which one of the above configurations represents a neutral atom that readily forms a singly charged positive ion?
A)1
B)2 C)3
D)4
E)5
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Q1) Determine the activity of 6.0 × 10<sup>12</sup> atoms of Rn-220 that has a half-life of 56 s.
A)2.0 Ci
B)2.5 Ci
C)3.0 Ci
D)3.5 Ci
E)4.0 Ci
Q2) Complete the following sentence: In a \(\beta\)<sup>+</sup><sup> </sup>decay process, the emitted particle is
A)an electron.
B)a neutron.
C)a positron.
D)a proton.
E)a photon.
Q3) What is X?
A)\(\alpha\)
B)p
C)\(\beta\)<sup>+</sup>
D)\(\beta\)<sup>-</sup>
E)n
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Q1) A medical researcher wishes to compare the tissue damage produced by slow neutrons, which have a relative biological effectiveness (RBE) of 2.2, to that produced by fast neutrons with an RBE of 8.8. For the slow neutrons, the absorbed dose is 560 rd. What absorbed dose (in rd) of fast neutrons will produce the same biologically equivalent dose (in rem) as that for the slow neutrons?
A)140 rd
B)29 rd
C)560 rd
D)310 rd
E)2240 rd
Q2) Which source of radiation contributes most to the average biological equivalent dose received by a United States resident?
A)radon gas
B)cosmic rays
C)consumer products
D)medical diagnostics
E)internal radioactive nuclei
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