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Physician Assistant Studies Exam Practice Tests - 2459 Verified Questions

Page 1


Physician Assistant Studies Exam Practice Tests

Course Introduction

Physician Assistant Studies is an interdisciplinary course designed to prepare students for clinical practice as physician assistants. The curriculum emphasizes foundational medical sciences, clinical reasoning, diagnostic techniques, patient assessment, and evidence-based healthcare. Students gain knowledge and skills in anatomy, pathophysiology, pharmacology, and hands-on patient care while also developing competencies in medical ethics, communication, and professional practice settings. Supervised clinical rotations in various medical specialties offer practical experience and exposure to diverse patient populations, enabling graduates to collaborate effectively with healthcare teams and deliver high-quality medical care across multiple clinical environments.

Recommended Textbook

Principles of Anatomy Physiology 13th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora

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27 Chapters

2459 Verified Questions

2459 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body

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96 Verified Questions

96 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following noninvasive diagnostic techniques is an example of inspection?

A)tapping and listening for an echo to detect fluid in the lungs

B)feeling the abdomen to detect tender organs

C)listening for crackling sounds during breathing

D)examining the surface of patient's skin for presence of a rash

E)feeling the gonads to detect abnormal masses

Answer: D

Q2) Which of the following describes a body process that is controlled using a positive feedback loop?

A)increasing body temperature in response to a drop in body temperature

B)decreasing body temperature in response to elevated body temperature

C)decreasing blood [glucose] in response to elevated blood [glucose]

D)increasing strength of uterine contractions in response to cervical stretch

E)decreasing heart rate in response to elevated blood pressure

Answer: D

Q3) Describe the differences between positive and negative feedback systems.

Answer: No Answer

Q4) Name the cavities of the trunk and the serous membranes that line them.

Answer: No Answer

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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization

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99 Verified Questions

99 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The number of protons in an atom is represented by an element's

A)mass number.

B)atomic number.

C)atomic mass.

D)valence number.

E)None of these choices.

Answer: B

Q2) Which of the following illustrates the use of a radioisotope as a tracer?

A)monitor blood flow through the heart

B)shrink a tumor by killing tumor cells with emitted radiation

C)destroy overactive thyroid gland

D)treat prostate cancer

E)treat advanced cervical cancer

Answer: A

Q3) List the six major functions of proteins.

Answer: No Answer

Q4) Define mixture and then distinguish between the three types of mixtures called solutions,colloids and suspensions.

Answer: No Answer

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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization

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109 Verified Questions

109 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A cell lacking ribosomes will be unable to make the following compounds

A)lipids

B)nucleotides

C)proteins

D)carbohydrates

E)phospholipids

Answer: C

Q2) This organelle is responsible for synthesis of steroids,phospholipids and functions as a reservoir for Ca2+?

A)mitochondrion

B)secretory vesicle

C)smooth endoplasmic reticulum

D)rough endoplasmic reticulum

E)lysosome

Answer: C

Q3) Define homologous chromosomes.

Answer: No Answer

Q4) Briefly describe the driving force for the movement of water across plasma membranes.

Answer: No Answer

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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of epithelial tissues?

A)Cells are tightly packed together.

B)Large amount of extracellular matrix.

C)Contains no blood vessels within tissue.

D)Found on the exposed surfaces of the body.

E)Line the inside of blood vessels.

Q2) This type of epithelial tissue lines the ducts of sweat glands and esophageal glands.

A)Simple squamous epithelium

B)Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

C)Stratified squamous epithelium

D)Stratified cuboidal epithelium

E)Transitional epithelium

Q3) Flat sheets of pliable tissue that cover or line a part of the body are referred to as A)lymph.

B)stroma.

C)interstitium.

D)membranes.

E)serum.

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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following structures found in the skin help prevent water loss and inhibit bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?

A)Arrector pili

B)Lunula

C)Sweat glands

D)Hair follicles

E)Oil glands

Q2) You stepped on a nail.List the sequential layers (or strata)of the epidermis that the nail penetrated through to finally reach the dermis.

A)basale,spinosum,granulosom,corneum

B)granulosom,spinosum,lucidum,corneum,basale

C)corneum,lucidum,granulosom,spinosum,basale

D)corneum,granulosom,spinosum,basale

E)corneum,granulosom,lucidum,spinosum,basale

Q3) Describe the structural characteristics of the epidermis that contribute to its ability to protect the surface of an animal.

Q4) Briefly describe the steps in epidermal wound healing.

Q5) List and briefly describe the major functions of the skin.

Q6) Describe the structure and function of arrector pili.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) This is a layer of hyaline cartilage that reduces friction between bones involved in a joint.

A)periosteum

B)distal epiphysis

C)nutrient foramen

D)articular cartilage

E)epiphyseal plate

Q2) Patient X has a tumor of the parathyroid glands that causes a hypersecretion of PTH from these glands.Predict the effect this hypersecretion would have on the skeletal system and on the secretion of calcitonin from the thyroid gland.

Q3) Briefly describe the processes by which bone increases in length and diameter.

Q4) Bone mass reduction is promoted by which hormone?

A)calcitriol

B)calcitonin

C)human growth hormone

D)parathyroid hormone

E)insulin

Q5) Briefly describe the steps in bone resorption.

Q6) List and briefly describe the six main functions of the skeletal system.

Page 8

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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: The Axial Skeleton

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Sample Questions

Q1) What are the three correct components of the nasal septum?

A)inferior nasal concha,vomer and lacrimal bone

B)vomer,superior nasal concha,and septal cartilage

C)inferior nasal concha,septal cartilage,perpendicular plate of ethmoid

D)vomer,septal cartilage,and perpendicular plate of ethmoid

E)vomer,septal cartilage,and crista galli of ethmoid

Q2) Bones in the following area protect the brain.

A)Cranium

B)Vertebral column

C)Sacrum

D)Face

E)Ribcage

Q3) These projections found on both sides of the foramen magnum articulate with depressions on the first cervical vertebrae.

A)Mastoid processes

B)Mandibular condyles

C)Foramen magnum

D)Occipital condyles

E)Sella turcica

Q4) Briefly describe the function of the fontanels.

Page 9

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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System: The

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Sample Questions

Q1) The route taken by the baby's head during childbirth follows the ______ as it travels through the pelvis.

A)pelvic axis

B)plane of the pelvic outlet

C)pelvic brim

D)sacral promontory

E)pectineal line

Q2) Which of the following bone markings on the scapula is an indentation into which the head of the humerus fits?

A)Coracoid process

B)Glenoid cavity

C)Acromion

D)Scapular notch

E)Supraspinous fossa

Q3) How many phalanges are in each hand?

A)10

B)12

C)14

D)16

E)20

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Chapter 9: Joints

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Sample Questions

Q1) List and briefly describe the three common types of arthritis.

Q2) The functional joint classification that a suture joint fits into is A)synarthrosis.

B)amphiarthrosis.

C)diarthrosis.

D)synovial.

E)cartilaginous.

Q3) This special movement involves moving your thumb across the palm to touch the tips of the fingers on the same hand.

A)Pronation

B)Supination

C)Eversion

D)Retraction

E)Opposition

Q4) Which feature goes with the temporomandibular joint?

A)sphenomandibular ligament

B)glenoid labrum

C)radial annular ligament

D)zona orbicularis

E)acetabular labrum

Page 11

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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many arteries and veins usually accompany a single nerve penetrating a skeletal muscle?

A)one artery and one or two veins

B)two arteries and two veins

C)three arteries and two veins

D)one artery and three veins

E)one artery and a varied amount of veins

Q2) How does a nerve impulse elicit a muscle action potential?

Q3) Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe aerobic cellular respiration in skeletal muscles?

A)Pyruvic acid generated by glycolysis enters the mitochondria.

B)O2 is essential.

C)CO2 is produced as a waste product.

D)Lactic acid is continually produced.

E)Can be used to generate ATP from fats,proteins or carbohydrates.

Q4) List the four steps of the contraction cycle in order of occurrence.What is needed for these steps to continuously repeat?

Q5) What is the major difference between the two types of smooth muscle tissue?

Q6) In embryonic muscle development,what happens to the somites?

Page 12

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Chapter 11: The Muscular System

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128 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) In which of the following body regions,would you find the external anal sphincter?

A)peritoneum

B)perineum

C)pelvic cavity

D)abdominal cavity

E)thoracic cavity

Q2) Briefly describe four main benefits of stretching before exercising.

Q3) A muscle that decreases the size of an opening is a A)rotator.

B)tensor.

C)pronator.

D)sphincter.

E)depressor.

Q4) With reference to the effort and load,describe the main difference between a lever operating with a mechanical advantage versus a lever operating at a mechanical disadvantage.

Q5) Discuss the roles of agonists,antagonists,synergists,and fixators in movement.

Q6) Name the layers,in order,that a bullet will go through if entered through the anterior abdominal wall.

13

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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue

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87 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Saltatory conduction

A)can occur in unmyelinated axons

B)happens due to an even distribution of voltage-gated Na channels

C)encodes only action potentials that are initiated in response to pain.

D)occurs in unmyelinated axons and happens due to even distribution of voltage-gated Na channels

E)occurs only in myelinated axons

Q2) Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.

Q3) Schwann's cells begin to form myelin sheaths around axons in the peripheral nervous system

A)when neurons are injured.

B)during fetal development.

C)after birth.

D)only in response to electrical stimulation by neuroglial cells.

E)during the early onset of Alzheimer's disease.

Q4) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults?

Q5) List the three ways that neurotransmitters can be removed from a synapse.

Q6) Briefly describe the events that occur during the depolarizing phase of an action potential.

Page 14

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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves

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90 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The area of the skin that provides sensory input to the CNS via one pair of spinal nerve is called

A)a dermatome.

B)a microtome.

C)perineurium.

D)a fascicle.

E)an epitome.

Q2) Which of the following parts of a nervous reflex arc is usually a muscle or gland?

A)Sensory receptor

B)Sensory neuron

C)Motor neuron

D)Effector

E)Integration center

Q3) Describe the basic anatomy of a spinal nerve plexus.

Q4) Describe the cross-sectional anatomy of the spinal cord.

Q5) Describe the gross external anatomy of the spinal cord.

Q6) Identify and describe the function of each of the components of a spinal reflex arc.

Q7) Discuss the clinical significance of dermatomes.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves

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87 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements best describes the structure of the blood-brain barrier that provides its functional characteristics?

A)Processes of astrocytes wrap tightly around capillaries in the brain.

B)Tight junctions tightly seal endothelial cells of capillaries in the brain.

C)Gap junctions tightly seal endothelial cells of capillaries in the brain.

D)Spot desmosomes tightly link capillary endothelial cells together.

E)The basement membrane of capillaries in the brain contains extremely small pores.

Q2) Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for regulating visceral activity?

A)Oculomotor

B)Trigeminal

C)Spinal accessory

D)Facial

E)Vagus

Q3) Describe the structural and functional relationship between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland.

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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements describes a common response of an autonomic effector during the "fight-or-flight" response?

A)Gastric motility and secretory activity increases.

B)Blood vessels serving skeletal muscles constrict.

C)Adipose tissues stores away triglycerides for later use.

D)The pupils of the eyes dilate.

E)Blood vessels serving the kidneys and digestive organs dilate.

Q2) Describe the potential roles that autonomic neurons that release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine perform in the ANS.Be sure to describe the types of postsynaptic effector cells including their receptors that could be potentially activated by acetylcholine release from autonomic neurons.

Q3) Which of the following types of neurons would normally have the shortest axon?

A)Somatic motor neurons

B)Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons

C)Postganglionic sympathetic neurons

D)Preganglionic sympathetic neurons

E)Somatosensory neurons.

Q4) Explain how blood flow to tissues changes during the fight-or-flight response.

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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor and Integrative Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many sensory modalities can a single sensory neuron have?

A)One

B)Dozens

C)Hundreds

D)Thousands

E)None

Q2) This type of sensory receptor responds to stimuli resulting from physical or chemical damage to tissue.

A)Photoreceptors

B)Mechanoreceptors

C)Proprioceptors

D)Nociceptors

E)Thermoreceptors

Q3) Which disorder is characterized by a person's breathing repeatedly stopping for 10 or more seconds while sleeping?

A)narcolepsy

B)insomnia

C)sleep apnea

D)coma

E)amnesia

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Chapter 17: The Special Senses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cataract leads to blindness due to A)loss of transparency of the lens.

B)a high intraocular pressure.

C)photophobia.

D)scotoma.

E)trachoma.

Q2) Which of the following nerves conducts impulses associated with the sense of gustation?

A)Vestibulocochlear

B)Oculomotor

C)Vagus

D)Trigeminal

E)Spinal accessory

Q3) How many extrinsic eye muscles are responsible for moving each eye?

A)10

B)12

C)6

D)4

E)20

Q4) Explain the process by which smell sensations are sensed and perceived.

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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates general body growth?

A)Growth hormone

B)Prolactin

C)Thyrotropin

D)Luteinizing hormone

E)Adrenocorticotropic hormone

Q2) Which of the following is an example of hormone that is secreted from an endocrine gland in response to a chemical change in the blood?

A)Parathyroid hormone release from the parathyroid gland.

B)Insulin release from the pancreas.

C)Glucagon release from the pancreas.

D)ADH release from the posterior pituitary gland.

E)All the answer selections are correct.

Q3) Which of the following glands is NOT an endocrine gland?

A)pituitary gland

B)thyroid gland

C)adrenal gland

D)sebaceous gland

E)pineal gland

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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: The Blood

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following are characteristics of BOTH erythrocytes and thromobocytes?

A)no nucleus

B)large segmented nucleus

C)cytoplasmic granules

D)lifespan of 5 to 9 days

E)develop from myeloblasts

F)more than one answer selection is correct

Q2) The process of a white blood cell squeezing between endothelial cells to exit a blood vessel is called

A)emigration.

B)diaphysis.

C)adhesion.

D)opsonization.

E)phagocytosis.

Q3) Explain the proposed role of hemoglobin in the regulation of blood flow and blood pressure.

Q4) Why does damaged endothelium present an increased risk of blood clotting?

Q5) List and briefly describe the major functions of blood.

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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: The Heart

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Sample Questions

Q1) Contraction of the atria of the heart leads to blood moving directly

A)into auricles.

B)into arteries.

C)into veins

D)through atrioventricular valves

E)through semilunar valves.

Q2) What type of tissue comprises the valves of the heart?

A)Dense connective tissue

B)Areolar connective tissue

C)Hyaline cartilage

D)Cardiac muscle tissue

E)Adipose tissue

Q3) Discuss the common nutrient sources used by cardiac muscle to produce ATP in a resting individual.

Q4) In comparison to skeletal muscle fibers,the contractile fibers of the heart are depolarized for ____ period of time.

A)a shorter

B)a longer

C)the same

Q5) Define arrhythmia and discuss different categories of arrhythmias.

Page 22

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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) When an artery or arteriole is damaged,its smooth muscle layer contracts producing A)tear in the vessel.

B)new vessel branching off the artery or arteriole.

C)a vascular spasm.

D)tetanus.

E)increased blood flow to the damaged vessel.

Q2) Cardiac output is dependent on both

A)heart rate and stroke volume.

B)stroke volume and systemic vascular resistance.

C)heart rate and systemic vascular resistance.

D)blood type and stroke volume.

E)blood pressure and heart rate

Q3) Which of the following effectors would NOT be activated as described below in response to hypovolemic shock?

A)Adrenal cortex releases aldosterone.

B)Kidneys conserve salt and water.

C)Heart rate increases.

D)Systemic arterioles vasodilate.

E)Heart contractility increases.

Page 23

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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System, Nonspecific Resistance to Disease, and Immunity

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Sample Questions

Q1) When B and T cells are fully developed and mature,they are described as being A)Immunocompetent

B)Pluripotent stem cells

C)Primary lymphatic cells

D)Specifically promoted

E)Germ cells

Q2) Natural exposure to an infectious agent leads to:

A)Passive immunity

B)Active immunity

C)Both of these choices

D)None of these choices

Q3) Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic and immune system?

A)Draining excess interstitial fluid

B)Maintaining water homeostasis in the body

C)Transporting dietary lipids

D)Carrying out immune responses

Q4) Describe how lymphatic capillaries are one-way only vessels.

Q5) Describe the barriers used in innate defense.

Q6) List the five actions of antibodies.

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Chapter 23: The Digestive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is NOT a primary function of the large intestine?

A)Mechanical digestion

B)Chemical digestion

C)Absorption

D)Feces formation

E)Regulation of blood glucose

Q2) Which of the following secrete hydrochloric acid?

A)Mucous cells

B)Parietal cells

C)Chief cells

D)Serosa cells

E)Chyme cells

Q3) Explain why food does not normally go up into your nasal cavity or down into your lungs when you swallow-even if you are standing on your head when you swallow.

Q4) Identify the protein-hydrolyzing enzymes in the digestive tract,and name their sources.Why are these enzymes released in an inactive form?

Q5) Describe the structures and functions of the enteric nervous system.

Q6) Describe the role of the liver in protein metabolism.

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Chapter 24: Metabolism

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Sample Questions

Q1) Lipogenesis occurs when

A)More calories are consumed than required for ATP need

B)Less calories are consumed than required for ATP need

C)More cholesterol is consumed than required for ATP need

D)Less cholesterol is consumed than required for ATP need

E)Gluconeogenesis fails

Q2) Where does the Krebs cycle take place?

A)Cytosol

B)Plasma membrane

C)Nucleus

D)Mitochondria

E)Golgi Apparatus

Q3) How many reactions take place during the Krebs cycle?

A)4

B)6

C)8

D)10

E)12

Q4) Describe the role of the hypothalamus in regulation of food intake.

Q5) Briefly outline the possible fates of glucose in the body.

Page 26

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Chapter 25: The Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Excessive urine concentration of a normal breakdown product of hemoglobin,caused by pernicious anemia,infectious hepatitis,jaundice or cirrhosis,indicates which condition?

A)albuminuria

B)glucosuria

C)urobilinogenuria

D)hematuria

E)bilirubinuria

Q2) Consumption of salty food will cause an increase in this hormone.

A)Aldosterone

B)Renin

C)ANH

D)Angiotensin-II

E)ADH

Q3) Describe in detail how the renin angiotensin negative feedback loop helps regulate blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate in response to dehydration.

Q4) Discuss the three main pressures that affect glomerular filtration.

Q5) Trace the flow of a water molecule through the nephrons from the afferent arteriole to the minor calyx.

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Chapter 26: The Reproductive Systems

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Sample Questions

Q1) In male embryos,this hormone is responsible for the development of the urethra,prostate,and external genitals.

A)LH

B)FSH

C)Progesterone

D)Esterogen

E)Dihydrotestosterone

Q2) Anterior to the vagina and urethral openings is the

A)Labia majora

B)Labia minor

C)Mons pubis

D)Cervical sphincter

E)Labial frenulum

Q3) This is the site of fertilization.

A)Ureters

B)Urethra

C)Uterine tubes

D)Ovaries

E)Vagina

Q4) Describe the functions of testosterone.

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Chapter 27: Development and Inheritance

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Sample Questions

Q1) During pregnancy stroke volume can increase by

A)10%

B)20%

C)30%

D)40%

E)50%

Q2) Which condition listed gives rise to individuals that are: somewhat mentally disadvantaged,sterile males with undeveloped testes,scant body hair,and enlarged breasts?

A)Emesis gravidarum

B)Deformation

C)Turner's syndrome

D)breech presentation

E)Klinefelter's syndrome

Q3) Distinguish between genotype and phenotype and explain how the environment may affect each.

Q4) Describe the products of the three primary germ layers.

Q5) Describe the hormonal events surrounding parturition.

Q6) Describe the process and purpose of amniocentesis.

Page 29

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