Physician Assistant Clinical Skills
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Physician Assistant Clinical Skills is a comprehensive course designed to equip students with the practical and diagnostic abilities essential for effective patient care. Through a combination of lectures, laboratory sessions, and hands-on practice, students learn to conduct thorough patient histories, perform physical examinations, interpret basic diagnostic tests, and utilize clinical reasoning to guide medical decision-making. The course emphasizes key clinical procedures such as venipuncture, suturing, wound management, and basic life support techniques. Special focus is given to ethical considerations, patient communication, and interprofessional collaboration to ensure students develop the confidence and competence required for clinical rotations and future practice as physician assistants.
Recommended Textbook
Seidels Guide to Physical Examination 9th Edition by Jane W. Ball
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26 Chapters
648 Verified Questions
648 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/185
Page 2
Chapter 1: The History and Interviewing Process
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2604
Sample Questions
Q1) JM has been seen in your clinic for 5 years. She presents today with signs and symptoms of acute sinusitis. The type of history that is warranted is a(n) _________ history.
A) complete
B) inventory
C) problem or focused
D) interim
Answer: C
Q2) Tom is a 16-year-old diabetic who does not follow his diet. He enjoys his dirt bike and seems unconcerned about any consequences of his activities. Which factor is typical of adolescence and pertinent to Tom's health?
A) Attachment to parents
B) High self-esteem
C) Low peer support needs
D) Propensity for risk taking
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Cultural Competency
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The motivation of the healthcare professional to "want to" engage in the process of becoming culturally competent, not "have to," is called:
A) cultural knowledge.
B) cultural awareness
C) cultural desire
D) cultural skill.
Answer: C
Q2) A 22-year-old female nurse is interviewing an 86-year-old male patient. The patient avoids eye contact and answers questions only by saying, "Yeah," "No," or "I guess so."
Which of the following is appropriate for the interviewer to say or ask?
A) "We will be able to communicate better if you look at me."
B) "It's hard for me to gather useful information because your answers are so short."
C) "Are you uncomfortable talking with me?"
D) "Does your religion make it hard for you to answer my questions?"
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Examination Techniques and Equipment
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During percussion, a dull tone is expected to be heard over:
A) healthy lung tissue.
B) emphysemic lungs.
C) the liver.
D) most of the abdomen.
Answer: C
Q2) The dorsal surface of the hand is most often used for the assessment of:
A) crepitus.
B) temperature.
C) texture.
D) vibration.
Answer: B
Q3) A variant of the percussion hammer is the neurologic hammer, which is equipped with which of the following?
A) Brush and needle
B) Tuning fork and cotton swab
C) Penlight and goniometer
D) Ruler and bell
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Clinical Reasoning
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After the subjective and objective data have been prioritized, the next step is to:
A) order laboratory tests.
B) formulate a problem list.
C) initiate appropriate referrals.
D) initiate therapy.
Q2) Mr. Johnson actually has streptococcal pharyngitis; however, the throat culture is initially read as negative. This situation describes a test with a:
A) low sensitivity.
B) high sensitivity.
C) high specificity.
D) low specificity.
Q3) New findings of unknown causes are:
A) problems to be noted on the problem list.
B) deferred for subsequent visits.
C) diagnosed before physical examination.
D) reserved for specialists.
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6
Chapter 5: Documentation
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Information recorded about an infant differs from that recorded about an adult, mainly because of the infant's:
A) attention span.
B) developmental status.
C) nutritional differences.
D) source of information.
Q2) Drawing of stick figures is most useful to:
A) compare findings in extremities.
B) demonstrate radiation of pain.
C) indicate consistency of lymph nodes.
D) indicate mobility of masses.
Q3) George Michaels, a 22-year-old patient, tells the nurse that he is here today to "check his allergies." He has been having "green nasal discharge" for the last 72 hours. How would the nurse document his reason for seeking care?
A) GM is a 22-year-old male here for "allergies."
B) GM came into the clinic complaining of green discharge for the past 72 hours.
C) GM, a 22-year-old male, states that he has allergies and wants them checked.
D) GM is a 22-year-old male here for having "green nasal discharge" for the past 72 hours.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Vital Signs and Pain Assessment
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The perception of pain:
A) is the same across cultures.
B) can be easily assessed in neonates.
C) is predictable with the same circumstances.
D) is affected by emotions and quality of sleep.
Q2) Which occurs with malignant hypertension? (Select all that apply.)
A) Blurred vision
B) Sleep disturbance
C) Tachycardia
D) Dyspnea
E) Encephalopathy
Q3) Which pulse characteristic in the neonate may indicate infection?
A) Bounding pulse rate
B) Regular pulse rate
C) Sustained high pulse rate
D) Intermittent slow pulse rate
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8
Chapter 7: Mental Status
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2610
Sample Questions
Q1) An aversion to touch or being held, along with delayed or absent language development, is characteristic of:
A) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
B) autism.
C) dementia.
D) mental retardation.
Q2) Which type of hallucination is most commonly associated with alcohol withdrawal?
A) Olfactory
B) Visual
C) Auditory
D) Tactile
Q3) Peripheral neuropathy is most likely to be manifested by:
A) impaired memory.
B) impaired abstract reasoning.
C) impaired writing ability.
D) hallucinations.
Q4) Under most conditions, adult patients should be able to repeat forward a series of _____________ numbers.
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Chapter 8: Growth, Measurement, and Nutrition
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2611
Sample Questions
Q1) The term large for gestational age (LGA) indicates that an infant is larger than ____% of infants born at the same number of weeks' gestation.
Q2) Optimal infant birth weight is difficult for pregnant adolescents to obtain because:
A) they have not completed their own growth spurt.
B) there are insufficient uterine supporting structures.
C) the amniotic fluid is variable in pregnant adolescents.
D) blood volume has not reached adult proportions.
Q3) Skeletal mass and organ systems double in size during:
A) infancy.
B) early childhood.
C) adolescence.
D) early adulthood.
Q4) The rate of weight gain during pregnancy is expected to be:
A) greatest in the first trimester.
B) greatest in the second trimester.
C) greatest in the third trimester.
D) about the same in each trimester.
Q5) Infants normally increase their birth length by ____% during the first year of life.
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Chapter 9: Skin, Hair, and Nails
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2612
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an ABCDE characteristic of malignant melanoma?
A) Asymmetric borders
B) Borders well demarcated
C) Color of lesion is uniform
D) Diameter less than 6 mm
Q2) The most common inflammatory skin condition is:
A) cutis marmorata.
B) eczematous dermatitis.
C) intradermal nevus.
D) pityriasis rosea.
Q3) A 5-year-old child presents with discrete vesicles on an erythematous base that began near her scalp and are spreading to the trunk. The child has a low-grade fever and feels tired. What is the nurse's next action?
A) Teach infectious control measures.
B) Inquire about other patterns of physical abuse.
C) Inspect the buccal mucosa for Koplik spots.
D) Inform the parent that this will resolve within a couple of days.
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11
Chapter 10: Lymphatic System
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nodes are also called Virchow nodes?
A) Internal mammary
B) Anterior axillary
C) Deep cervical
D) Supraclavicular
Q2) Which disorder is characterized by a single node that is chronically enlarged and nontender in a patient with no other symptoms?
A) Retropharyngeal abscess
B) Streptococcal pharyngitis
C) Mononucleosis
D) Toxoplasmosis
Q3) The most important clue to the diagnosis of immunodeficiency disease in a child is: A) family history.
B) illness in siblings.
C) previous hospitalizations.
D) serious recurring infections.
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Chapter 11: Head and Neck
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2614
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the best way to position a patient's neck for palpation of the thyroid?
A) Flexed away from the side being examined
B) Flexed directly forward
C) Flexed toward the side being examined
D) Hyperextended directly backward
Q2) The premature union of cranial sutures that involves the shape of the head without mental retardation is:
A) craniosynostosis.
B) encephalocele.
C) microcephaly.
D) myxedema.
Q3) Observation during history taking is the best way to examine for:
A) head position.
B) scalp lice.
C) thyroid size.
D) tracheal alignment.
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13
Chapter 12: Eyes
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2615
Sample Questions
Q1) When inspecting the region of the lacrimal gland, palpate:
A) the lower orbital rim, near the inner canthus.
B) in the area between the arch of the eyebrow and upper lid.
C) beneath the lower lid, adjacent to the inner canthus.
D) adjacent to the lateral aspect of the eye, just beneath the upper lid.
Q2) When drusen bodies are noted to be increasing in number or in intensity of color, the patient should be further evaluated with a(n):
A) Amsler grid.
B) Snellen E chart.
C) litmus test.
D) confrontation test.
Q3) To differentiate between infants who have strabismus and those who have pseudostrabismus, use the:
A) confrontation test.
B) corneal light reflex.
C) E chart.
D) Amsler grid.
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14
Chapter 13: Ears, Nose, and Throat
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2616
Sample Questions
Q1) To approximate vocal frequencies, which tuning fork should be used to assess hearing?
A) 100 to 300 Hz
B) 200 to 400 Hz
C) 500 to 1000 Hz
D) 1500 to 2000 Hz
Q2) You are performing hearing screening tests. Who would be expected to find difficulty in hearing the highest frequencies?
A) A 7-year-old
B) An 18-year-old
C) A 30-year-old
D) A 50-year-old
Q3) A hairy tongue with yellowish brown to black elongated papillae on the dorsum:
A) is indicative of oral cancer.
B) is sometimes seen following antibiotic therapy.
C) usually indicates vitamin deficiency.
D) usually indicates anemia.
Q4) When you ask the patient to identify smells, you are assessing cranial nerve __.
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15
Chapter 14: Chest and Lungs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To count the ribs and the intercostal spaces, you begin by palpating the reference point of the:
A) distal point of the xiphoid.
B) manubriosternal junction.
C) suprasternal notch.
D) acromion process.
Q2) Ms. Rudman, age 74 years, has no known health problems or diseases. You are doing a preventive healthcare history and examination. Which symptom is associated with intrathoracic infection?
A) Barrel chest
B) Cor pulmonale
C) Funnel chest
D) Malodorous breath
Q3) The best time to observe and count respirations is while:
A) the patient is answering questions.
B) weighing the patient.
C) palpating the pulse.
D) the patient is sleeping.
Q4) An Apgar score of __________ is given to the infant who demonstrates irregular respiratory effort.
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Chapter 15: Heart
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A condition that is likely to present with dizziness and syncope is:
A) bacterial endocarditis.
B) hypertension.
C) sick sinus syndrome.
D) pericarditis.
Q2) Chest pain with an organic cause in a child is most likely the result of:
A) cardiac disease.
B) asthma.
C) esophageal reflux.
D) arthritis.
Q3) Which of the following information belongs in the past medical history section related to heart and blood vessel assessment?
A) Adolescent inguinal hernia
B) Childhood mumps
C) History of bee stings
D) Previous unexplained fever
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Chapter 16: Blood Vessels
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2619
Sample Questions
Q1) A bounding pulse in an infant may be associated with:
A) patent ductus arteriosus.
B) coarctation of the aorta.
C) decreased cardiac output.
D) peripheral vaso-occlusion.
Q2) Which are risk factors for varicose veins? (Select all that apply.)
A) Gender
B) Alcohol use
C) Lower extremity trauma
D) Increased body mass
E) Hypertension
F) Diabetes
Q3) Induration, edema, and hyperpigmentation are common associated findings with which of the following?
A) Peripheral arterial disease
B) Venous ulcer
C) Arterial embolic disease
D) Venous thrombus
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18
Chapter 17: Breasts and Axillae
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nursing mother complains that her breasts are tender. You assess hard, shiny, and erythemic breasts bilaterally. You should advise the patient to:
A) massage gently and continue nursing.
B) apply warm compresses and stop nursing.
C) monitor her temperature and restrict fluids.
D) sleep wearing a bra and wash her breasts with antibacterial soap.
Q2) Most women with breast cancer:
A) possess the BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene.
B) risk increases with aging.
C) have a mother who had breast cancer.
D) continue to menstruate after age 52.
Q3) If your patient has nipple discharge, you will most likely need a:
A) Vacutainer tube.
B) glass slide and fixative.
C) specimen jar with formaldehyde.
D) tape strip to test pH.
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19
Chapter 18: Abdomen
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is a 48-year-old woman with complaints of severe cramping pain in the abdomen and right flank. Her past medical history includes a history of bladder calculi. You diagnose her with renal calculi at this time. Which of the following symptoms would you expect with her diagnosis? (Select all that apply.)
A) Abdominal pain on palpation
B) Blumberg sign
C) Cullen sign
D) CVA tenderness
E) Fever
F) Grey Turner sign
G) Hematuria
H) Nausea
Q2) To assess for liver enlargement in the obese person, you should:
A) use the hook method.
B) have the patient lean over at the waist.
C) auscultate using the scratch technique.
D) attempt palpation during deep exhalation.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Female Genitalia
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2622
Sample Questions
Q1) The pelvic joint that separates most appreciably during late pregnancy is the:
A) sacroiliac.
B) symphysis.
C) sacrococcygeal.
D) iliofemoral.
Q2) A cervical polyp usually appears as a:
A) grainy area at the ectocervical junction.
B) bright red, soft protrusion from the endocervical canal.
C) transverse or stellate scar.
D) hard granular surface at or near the os.
Q3) A bluish color to the cervix during pregnancy is called (the):
A) McDonald sign.
B) Spinnbarkeit.
C) Goodell sign.
D) Chadwick sign.
Q4) Which structure is located posteriorly on each side of the vaginal orifice?
A) Skene glands
B) Clitoris
C) Perineum
D) Bartholin glands
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Chapter 20: Male Genitalia
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which genital virus infection is known to have a latent phase followed by the production of viral DNA capsids and particles?
A) Condyloma acuminatum
B) Molluscum contagiosum
C) Herpetic lesions
D) Lymphogranuloma venereum
Q2) On palpation, a normal vas deferens should feel:
A) beaded.
B) smooth.
C) ridged.
D) spongy.
Q3) Pearly gray, smooth, dome-shaped, often umbilicated lesions of the glans penis are probably:
A) herpetic lesions.
B) condylomata.
C) molluscum contagiosum.
D) chancres.
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22
Chapter 21: Anus, Rectum, and Prostate
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which finding in an infant may indicate lower spinal deformities?
A) Perirectal redness
B) Shrunken buttocks
C) Rectal prolapse
D) Dimpling in the pilonidal area
Q2) Perianal abscesses, fissures, or pilonidal cysts will cause the patient to experience:
A) bulging and wrinkling.
B) constipation and pallor.
C) diarrhea and redness.
D) tenderness and inflammation.
Q3) Very light tan or gray stools may indicate:
A) upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
B) obstructive jaundice.
C) lower gastrointestinal bleeding.
D) polyposis.
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23
Chapter 22: Musculoskeletal System
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2625
Sample Questions
Q1) Skeletal changes in older adults are the result of:
A) increased bone deposition.
B) increased bone resorption.
C) decreased bone deposition.
D) decreased bone resorption.
Q2) The temporomandibular joint is palpated:
A) under the mandible, anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
B) above the mandible at midline.
C) anterior to the tragus.
D) at the mastoid process.
Q3) When palpating joints, crepitus may occur when:
A) irregular bony surfaces rub together.
B) supporting muscles are excessively spastic.
C) joints are excessively lax.
D) there is excess fluid within the synovial membrane.
Q4) Carpal tunnel syndrome would result in:
A) a negative Tinel sign.
B) a negative Phalen test.
C) reduced abduction of the thumb.
D) palm tingling.
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Chapter 23: Neurologic System
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the technique most often used for evaluating the neurologic system?
A) Auscultation
B) Inspection
C) Palpation
D) Percussion
Q2) When assessing superficial pain, touch, vibration, and position perceptions, you are testing:
A) cerebellar function.
B) emotional status.
C) sensory function.
D) tendon reflexes.
Q3) Motor maturation proceeds in an orderly progression from:
A) peripheral to central.
B) head to toe.
C) lateral to medial.
D) pedal to cephalic.
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Chapter 24: Sports Participation Evaluation
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11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A parent is advised to restrict contact sports participation for their child. An example of a sport in which this child could participate is:
A) hockey.
B) roller skating.
C) riflery.
D) skateboarding.
Q2) Which medical condition would exclude a person from sports participation?
A) Asthma
B) Fever
C) Controlled seizures
D) HIV-positive status
Q3) The goals of preparticipation sports evaluation include:
A) screening for steroid use or abuse.
B) determining the best fit for positions in each sport.
C) determining the risk of injury or death during sports participation.
D) securing a legal contract before recommending limiting participation.
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Chapter 25: Putting it All Together
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which portion of the physical examination is best done with the patient standing?
A) Spinal
B) Rectal
C) Neurologic
D) Musculoskeletal
Q2) What is the "brown-bag approach" in regard to examining an older adult?
A) The patient's stool sample is brought to the examination in a brown bag.
B) The patient's medications are brought to the examination in a brown bag.
C) The patient's change of clothes is brought to the examination in a brown bag.
D) The patient's assistive device is brought to the examination in a brown bag.
Q3) The best way to ease the apprehension of a 3-year-old child before a physical examination is to:
A) explain that you will be gentle.
B) hand the child a picture book.
C) let the child hold the stethoscope while you listen.
D) tell the child that he or she will get a lollipop for good behavior.
Q4) Ms. Stein visits the nurse practitioner for an annual examination. The nurse practitioner tests Ms. Stein's tongue for movement and strength. The nurse practitioner is assessing CN _______.
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Chapter 26: Emergency or Life-Threatening Situations
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paradoxical chest movement suggests a:
A) spontaneous pneumothorax.
B) flail chest.
C) clavicle fracture.
D) pulmonary contusion.
Q2) Adults and children display different physiologic responses to injury and acute illness. An important concept to remember when assessing infants and children is that they:
A) experience lethal dysrhythmias first, progressing to respiratory failure.
B) usually experience cardiac arrest before respiratory failure.
C) usually experience respiratory arrest before circulatory failure.
D) tolerate greater volume changes, with less severe consequences.
Q3) A life-threatening condition is recognized with the assessment of:
A) pain with downward pressure on both anterior superior iliac spines.
B) guarding and intense pain with deep palpation of the abdomen.
C) distant and muffled heart sounds, with distended neck veins.
D) severe throbbing pain in one eye, with photophobia.
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