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Physical Therapy is a dynamic healthcare discipline centered on the assessment, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of physical disabilities, injuries, and movement disorders. This course introduces students to foundational principles of human anatomy, biomechanics, and kinesiology as they relate to restoring function and improving mobility. Emphasis is placed on therapeutic exercise, manual therapy techniques, and patient education designed to enhance strength, flexibility, and overall quality of life. Through both theoretical learning and practical application, students gain the knowledge and clinical skills necessary to develop individualized treatment plans, promote recovery, and support patients in managing chronic conditions and preventing future injury.
Recommended Textbook
Diseases of the Human Body 5th Edition by
Carol D. Tamparo
Available Study Resources on Quizplus 17 Chapters
956 Verified Questions
956 Flashcards
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Q1) Heredity is a predisposing factor when a trait inherited from a parent puts an individual at risk for certain diseases.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Diabetes mellitus is due primarily to insufficient insulin production by the kidneys.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) An iatrogenic disease:
A) Is transmitted genetically.
B) Has no known cause.
C) Is caused by medical treatment.
D) Is caused by trauma.
Answer: C
Q4) A gene is the basic unit of heredity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) It has been shown that good nutrition, proper exercise, and a quality support system help alleviate distress.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following statements is not true about stress?
A) Biological organisms require some stress in order to maintain their well-being.
B) Stress is always an indication of physical pain in the body.
C) Stress may produce pathological changes in the body.
D) The recognition of stress in one's life is essential to a healthy lifestyle.
Answer: B
Q3) Negative emotions that can depress the immune system include:
A) Depression and despair.
B) Panic and fear.
C) Hate and frustration.
D) All of the above
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic pain is defined as:
A) Showing an increase in blood pressure and heart rate.
B) Starting as acute pain but continuing beyond the normal expected time for resolution.
C) A warning sign of a disturbance in physiology.
D) Both B and C
Answer: B
Q2) Therapeutic touch replenishes a client's energy field.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Pain is:
A) Not a common complaint of persons seeking medical attention.
B) A warning that something is wrong in normal body function.
C) Is felt more by males than females.
D) Is better understood by the provider than the client.
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) Koplik spots on the oral mucosa appear in:
A) Rubeola.
B) Rubella.
C) Mumps.
D) Varicella.
Q2) Orchitis
A)Inflammation of a testis
B)Muscle pain
C)Blind spot in the visual field
D)Without or loss of appetite
E)Agent to reduce fever
F)Prevents or relieves itching
G)Weakness or fatigue
H)Abnormal decrease of WBCs
I)Joint pain
J)Inflammation of the nasal mucosa
Q3) Lyme disease occurs in four stages.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Research indicates that all cancers arise due to complex alterations in DNA that result in unrestrained cellular proliferation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following stages of cancer are considered for treatment?
A) Distant
B) Localized
C) Regional
D) All of the above
Q3) Early cancer screening is believed to have contributed to the recent decline in the number of cancer deaths.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The freezing of a malignancy with a liquid nitrogen probe is:
A) Particle-beam therapy.
B) Cryosurgery.
C) Radiation therapy.
D) Chemotherapy.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neural tube defects:
A) Almost always have an excellent prognosis without residual deficits.
B) Are characterized by hyperactive reflexes and rapid muscle contractions.
C) Require aggressive treatment without surgical intervention.
D) Are classified as spina bifida, meningocele, or myelomeningocele.
Q2) One of the following abnormalities to occur in tetralogy of Fallot is:
A) Transposition of the great vessels.
B) Atrial septal defects.
C) Right ventricular hypertrophy.
D) Patent ductus arteriosus.
Q3) A positive Ortolani sign confirms the diagnosis of:
A) Cystic fibrosis.
B) Hirschsprung disease.
C) Congenital hip dysplasia.
D) Clubfoot.
Q4) Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an acquired disorder that usually occurs in adolescence.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Biochemical brain activity, genetic tendencies, and environmental influences are suspect in the cause and triggering of bipolar episodes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Mental Health Parity Act (MHPA) requires insurance coverage for mental issues to equal those of medical and surgical benefits.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Personality disorders:
A) Are found in about 40% to 45% of the general population.
B) Include a persistent inability to cope with the expectations of self, others, and life.
C) Usually appear in early childhood.
D) Are relatively easy to treat.
Q4) Obsessive-compulsive disorder is persistent, recurring thoughts that reflect exaggerated fear.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) The goal of treatment of basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma is to
A) Suppress the skin lesions.
B) Promote muscular function.
C) Completely eradicate the lesions.
D) Free the client of pain.
Q2) Filiform warts are seen near the mouth, nose, or beard area.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Dermatophytosis is a chronic, superficial fungal infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most popular nonsurgical cosmetic procedure is:
A) Breast reduction.
B) Botox.
C) Blepharoplasty.
D) Microdermabrasion.
Q5) Surgery may be necessary in severe cases of decubitus ulcers.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A break in the bone in which a piece of the bone protrudes through the skin is a/an:
A) Closed fracture.
B) Compound fracture.
C) Greenstick fracture.
D) Impacted fracture.
Q2) Crepitation
A)Difficulty swallowing
B)Occurs from a sudden impact to the joint
C)Drooping eyelid
D)Intermittent interruptions of blood supply to the fingers and toes
E)Difficulty speaking
F)Cracking sound due to the grating of bones
G)Blood clot
H)The strength and power of an organism
I)Immobility of joint
J)Sensation of numbness, prickling, or tingling
Q3) Musculoskeletal diseases and disorders occur most often in elderly clients.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The thalamus section of the brain is important in:
A) Sleep.
B) Posture.
C) Balance.
D) Equilibrium.
Q2) The loss of voluntary muscular control and sensation on one side of the body is called:
A) Paraplegia.
B) Quadriplegia.
C) Hemiplegia.
D) Agnosia.
Q3) A type of chronic organic brain syndrome characterized by the death of neurons in the cerebral cortex and their replacement by microscopic "plaques" is called:
A) Epilepsy.
B) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
C) Alzheimer disease.
D) Parkinson disease.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A goiter is hyperplasia of the thyroid gland.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Paresthesia is described as:
A) General weakness and fatigue.
B) A life-shortening disease of the bones and soft tissues.
C) A sensation of numbness, prickling, or tingling.
D) The inability to speak clearly.
Q3) Addison disease is when the adrenal glands produce insufficient amounts of cortisol and androgen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The treatment for diabetes mellitus includes a combination of:
A) Hyperglycemic oral agents and analgesics.
B) Diet, exercise, and insulin.
C) Anti-inflammatories and analgesics.
D) Both A and C
Q5) PCOS is a leading cause of infertility.
A)True
B)False

13
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Sample Questions
Q1) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma:
A) Is also called lymphosarcoma.
B) Is less common than Hodgkin lymphoma.
C) Likely affects the B cells important in fighting infection.
D) Both A and C
Q2) Prognosis for acute myelogenous leukemia is:
A) Excellent.
B) Good, with remission lasting many years.
C) Fatal within 1 to 2 months after symptoms begin.
D) Highly variable.
Q3) Signs and symptoms of arteriosclerosis include:
A) Intermittent claudication.
B) Nausea and vomiting.
C) Shortness of breath.
D) All of the above
Q4) Inflammation of a vein in conjunction with the formation of a clot is:
A) Coronary artery disease.
B) Myocardial infarction.
C) Thrombophlebitis.
D) Varicose veins.

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Q1) Thoracotomy
A)Harsh, high-pitched sound during respiration
B)Inspection of a cavity by passing a light through its walls
C)Disease-causing organism
D)Chronic, life-shortening disorder of the bone marrow
E)Fluid that is rich in protein and cellular elements that escapes from blood vessels
F)Profuse sweating
G)Insufficient oxygenation of the blood
H)Incision in the wall of the chest
I)Bulbous swelling of the tips of the fingers and toes
J)Sense of discomfort, weakness, or fatigue
K)Folding over
L)Hospital-acquired infection
M)Substance produced by coughing
N)Spitting of blood
O)Pus in the pleural space
Q2) Another name for infectious mononucleosis is glandular fever.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The procedure or procedures most likely used to diagnose colorectal cancer are:
A) Digital examination of the rectum and barium x-ray study.
B) Testing for occult blood in the stool and sigmoidoscopy.
C) Colonoscopy and CT.
D) All of the above
Q2) Occult blood
A)Formation of numerous small masses on a mucous membrane surface of the digestive tract
B)Abnormally dilated and twisted veins or arteries
C)Vomiting blood
D)Yellowish discoloration of the skin
E)A marked weakness of the body
F)Minute quantities of blood in feces which are detectable by chemical testing
G)Abnormal tubelike passage
H)Common cold
I)Bright red, bloody stools
J)Accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity
Q3) Increasing fiber in a diet helps a person with irritable bowel syndrome.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Renal calculi are:
A) An uncommon cause of urinary obstruction.
B) Also called uroliths or kidney stones.
C) Often caused by hypoparathyroidism.
D) Caused by an insufficient amount of vitamin D intake.
Q2) Pallor
A)Kidney stone
B)Lack of color
C)Produced when protein-containing foods are broken down in the body
D)Distention of the renal pelvis and calyces
E)Unusually high amounts of nitrogenous compounds in the blood
F)Ionized salt
G)Difficult or painful urination
H)Cuplike extension of the renal pelvis
I)Excessive amounts of potassium in the blood
J)Procedure through the urethra to remove cancerous tissue from the bladder
Q3) Continuous renal replacement therapy is generally used in an ambulatory care center.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Prostate cancer is the leading cause of death in males.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The prognosis for testicular cancer is:
A) 20% cure rate if detected early.
B) 90% cure rate if detected early.
C) 100% cure rate.
D) Grave.
Q3) Trichomoniasis is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following has no cure?
A) Trichomoniasis
B) Genital warts
C) Syphilis
D) Genital herpes
Q5) Radiation is not considered effective in treating ovarian cancer.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If a client experiences conductive hearing loss, no treatment is curative.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following eye disorders is called nearsightedness?
A) Hyperopia
B) Presbyopia
C) Myopia
D) Astigmatism
Q3) Macula
A)Surgical repair of the middle ear
B)Pus-filled fluid
C)Uses an ultrasonic device that disintegrates cataracts
D)Instrument for measuring the pressure in an eye
E)Inner mucous membrane surface of the eyelids
F)Growths or spots on the retina
G)Intense, unusual intolerance of light
H)Double vision
I)Yellow disc on the retina directly behind the lens
J)Thin, watery fluid
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