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Physical Therapy is a comprehensive course designed to provide students with a foundational understanding of the principles and practices involved in the rehabilitation and enhancement of physical function. The course covers topics such as human anatomy, biomechanics, therapeutic exercises, patient assessment, treatment planning, and modalities used in physical therapy. Emphasis is placed on developing clinical reasoning and hands-on skills necessary for assessing and managing a variety of musculoskeletal, neurological, and cardiopulmonary conditions. Students will also explore the ethical and professional responsibilities of a physical therapist, preparing them for further specialized study or entry into clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Kinesiology Scientific Basis of Human Motion 12th Edition by Nancy Hamilton
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Q1) President Bush's high approval ratings after his response to the September 11 attacks are an example of the ________ effect.
A) signing statement
B) balanced ticket
C) commander in chief
D) honeymoon period
E) rally 'round the flag
Answer: E
Q2) Describe the movement phases which might be used in an analysis of an overhand throw.
Answer: preparation, power, propulsion
Q3) Outline the chief roles and functions of the vice president in a presidential administration.
Answer: The vice president, often chosen by presidential candidates to construct a balanced ticket, performs a variety of ceremonial and functional roles. They are often chosen because of their previous policy experience, as in the cases of Joe Biden, a foreign policy expert, and Dick Cheney, whose expertise lay in national security.
Q4) Name and explain the three primary components of a kinesiological analysis.
Answer: description, evaluation, prescription
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Q1) Name the joint actions involved at the ankle, knee, hip, shoulder, and elbow in the propulsion phase of a jumping jack exercise.
Answer: ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, hip extension, shoulder abduction
Q2) Consider the motion of lifting one's foot up in preparation for placing it on a bench. Analyze the joint type, joint motion, plane and axis for movement in the ankle, knee, and hip joints:
Answer: 11ea74a0_e365_f2cd_a57a_7f64a64a60d5_TB3983_00
11ea74a0_e365_f2ce_a57a_7949376ff034_TB3983_00
Q3) Which of the following movements occurs in a horizontal plane around a vertical axis?
A) arm action in golf drive resulting in no spin ball
B) arm action in tennis forehand resulting in no spin
C) leg action in football, no spin
D) leg action in walking
Answer: B
Q4) Discuss the reasons why it is inadvisable to have young children involved in activities that require hard contact or heavy resistance. Answer: damage to epiphyseal areas of long bones
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Q1) Which of the following illustrates primarily eccentric muscle contraction?
A) bending forward to touch fingers to floor
B) stepping up on a bench
C) holding a tennis racquet in ready position
D) standing at attention
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is not an important factor in determining muscle function?
A) insertion (attachment) landmarks
B) joint that muscle crosses
C) muscle line of pull
D) muscle cross section
Answer: D
Q3) What is the function of a stabilizer in muscular performance?
A) causes opposite action to one desired
B) cooperates with other muscles
C) prevents undesirable action of contracting muscles
D) supports body segment against pull of contracting muscles
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of neurons conduct impulses from the stimulus toward the spinal cord?
A) afferent
B) efferent
C) ganglia
D) spinal nerves
Q2) Where are movement patterns remembered?
A) brain stem
B) cerebellum
C) cerebral cortex
D) basal ganglia
Short Answer Questions
Q3) Which head position would facilitate elbow flexion?
A) flexion and rotation to same side
B) flexion and rotation to opposite side
C) hyperextension and rotation to same side
D) hyperextension and rotation to opposite side
Q4) Disregarding arm motion, why is it easier to jump higher if one flexes the lower extremity and then immediately extends, with no hesitation between motions?
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Q1) Starting and ending in a prone position, analyze the shoulder action in the pushup exercise.
Q2) What is the primary action of the anterior deltoid?
A) shoulder flexion
B) shoulder abduction
C) shoulder extension
D) shoulder adduction
Q3) Which muscle supports the arm in a position of 90 degrees of abduction?
A) anterior deltoid
B) middle deltoid
C) posterior deltoid
D) pectoralis major
Q4) What are the three major articulations of the shoulder?
A) glenohumeral, coraco-humeral, acromioclavicular
B) glenohumeral, coracoclavicular, acromioclavicular
C) coracoclavicular, acromiohumeral, thoracoscapular
D) coracoclavicular, glenohumeral, thoracoscapular
Q5) What might be the consequences of muscular weakness or atrophy in the muscles that move the scapula?
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Q1) The ligament that forms a ring within which the radial head rotates is called the ____ ligament.
A) volar
B) annular
C) ulnar
D) collateral
Q2) List the prime movers in elbow extension in each of the following conditions: from the flexed position in a biceps curl from flexed position in a biceps curl in a weightless environment from a position of elbow flexion with the shoulder abducted to 90<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
Q3) Which of the following muscles attaches to the styloid process of the radius?
A) brachioradialis
B) biceps brachii
C) brachialis
D) triceps brachii
Q4) What would be the primary differences in muscular action (prime movers) between grasping something with a closed fist and pinching an object between finger and thumb?
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Q1) What are the actions of the pelvis and femurs in the propulsive phase of the golf drive?
A) right femur-inward rotation; left femur-outward rotation; pelvis-left rotation
B) right femur-inward rotation; left femur-outward rotation; pelvis-right rotation
C) right femur-outward rotation; left femur-inward rotation; pelvis-left rotation.
D) right femur-outward rotation; left femur-inward rotation; pelvis-left rotation
Q2) What is the muscle action in the hips in the preparatory phase of the standing long jump?
A) concentric contraction of the hamstrings
B) concentric contraction of the rectus femoris and iliopsoas
C) eccentric contraction of the hamstrings
D) eccentric contraction of the rectus femoris and iliopsoas
Q3) Why is pelvic girdle rotation necessary in both walking and running gaits?
Q4) Why is it easier to keep the low back flat on the floor in a supine lying position if the knees and hips are flexed?
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Q1) In performing a deep squat the prime movers at the knee are: 1) rectus femoris
2) biceps femoris
3) vastus lateralis
4) vastus medialis
5) semimembranosus
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 2, 5
C) 1, 4, 5
D) 1, 3, 4
Q2) Which of the following muscles contracts in pronation to counteract the supination action of the tibialis anterior and the extensor hallicus longus?
A) tibialis posterior
B) flexor hallicus longus
C) extensor digitorum longus
D) flexor digitorum longus
Short Answer Questions
Q3) Many people find it more difficult to grasp the ankles in a long sit position if the ankle joint is dorsiflexed. Explain this phenomenon.
Q4) Why are deep knee bends considered to be a potentially dangerous exercise?
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Q1) Which of the following is not true of the vertebral column?
A) acts to protect internal organs
B) acts as link between upper and lower extremities
C) acts as freely moveable link system
D) acts as motion segment for the trunk
Q2) In the exercise of slow leg raising and lowering in a supine lying position, what is the function of the abdominal muscles during the lowering phase and what type of contraction is involved?
A) controlling extension of legs--eccentric contraction
B) stabilizing the pelvis--static contraction
C) tilting the pelvis backward--concentric contraction
D) tilting the pelvis forward--concentric contraction
Q3) Which type of joint he atlanto-occipital joint?
A) condyloid
B) pivot
C) hinge
D) ball & socket
Q4) Explain, anatomically, the differences in mobility in the three mobile regions of the vertebral column.
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Q1) How is the resultant portrayed in the graphic representation of vectors?
A) the vertical side of a rectangle
B) the horizontal side of a rectangle
C) the diagonal of a rectangle
D) the area of a rectangle
Q2) Name at least three vector quantities that are important in each of the following activities: soccer getting a box out of a cupboard walking
Q3) You walk north across campus for 200 meters, then turn and walk west for 150 meters. What is your resultant displacement?
Q4) Which of the following may be assumed if the angle at which a vector quantity is applied is less than 45<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>?
A) the x component is greater than the y component
B) the y component is greater than the x component
C) the x and y components are equal in magnitude
D) the resultant is less than either component
Q5) A runner pushes off of the ground with a force of 500 N at an angle of 30<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>. How much of this force is directed vertically? How much is horizontal?
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Q1) Neglecting air resistance, which of the following statements best represents the velocity of a projectile at the top of the path?
A) vertical velocity is zero
B) horizontal velocity is changing
C) horizontal velocity is zero
D) resultant velocity is maximal
Q2) What is the acceleration when the velocity of an object is constant?
A) zero
B) increasing
C) decreasing
D) constant
Q3) The radian is a unit of displacement used in which type of measurement?
A) rotary
B) linear
C) speed
D) time
Q4) If a sprinter starting a race covers 13 meters in the first 1.5 seconds of the race, what will the velocity be at the end of this 1 second? What will the acceleration from the start be?
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Q1) Why will a steel ball bounce when dropped on a trampoline but not when dropped on a wooden floor?
Q2) Ball A is the same mass as Ball B. If Ball A is hit with twice as much force as Ball B, Ball A's acceleration will be _____ that of Ball B.
A) one-half
B) one-fourth
C) twice
D) four times
Q3) What is the name of the upward force acting on a body submerged in water?
A) buoyancy
B) drag
C) thrust
D) weight
Q4) The _____ the time it takes to move a given distance, the greater is the power.
A) greater
B) larger
C) shorter
D) same
Q5) Why is it more difficult to run on the beach than on the street?
Q6) Why does one tend to shorten one's stride when walking on the ice?
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Q1) Why is a second-class lever well adapted to moving heavy loads?
A) axis is located between effort and resistance
B) effort is located between axis and resistance
C) effort arm is longer than resistance arm
D) resistance arm is longer than effort arm
Q2) What does a machine with a resistance arm greater than a force arm favor?
A) speed
B) force
C) acceleration
D) torque
Q3) Why is it easier for a runner to move his recovery leg forward more rapidly when it is flexed than when extended?
A) mass of the leg is greater when it is flexed
B) mass of the leg is less when it is flexed
C) moment of inertia of the leg is greater when leg is flexed
D) moment of inertia of the leg is less when leg is flexed
Q4) Why do sprinters lean when running the curve on a track?
Q5) Why is it easier for a gymnast doing giant swings to stop in a handstand at the top of the bar than to stop in a long hang at the bottom of the bar?
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Q1) Which of the following must be true in order for a state of equilibrium to exist?
A) all linear forces acting on the object must be balanced, torques may be unbalanced
B) all torques acting on the object must be balanced, linear forces may be unbalanced
C) neither torques nor linear forces acting on the object must equal zero
D) the sum of all forces and torques acting on the object must equal zero
Q2) Name three things a basketball player might do in order to go from a stationary position to a fast run very quickly.
Q3) Why is it difficult (impossible) to bend over and touch one's toes with the heels and the buttocks against a wall?
Q4) Which of the following defines the line of gravity of the body?
A) intersection of cardinal sagittal & frontal planes
B) vertical line bisecting the body laterally
C) intersection of cardinal sagittal & frontal planes AND vertical line passing through center of gravity
D) intersection of cardinal sagittal & horizontal planes AND vertical line bisecting the body laterally
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Q1) Which of the following is most likely to be a causal factor in poor postural alignment?
A) increased muscle strength
B) decreased muscle strength
C) increased flexibility
D) decreased flexibility
Q2) Which of the following defines the concept of "good" alignment in the standing posture?
A) must be broadly interpreted to fit a variety of individual differences
B) the alignment of all weight bearing segments
C) there are a set of bony landmarks that should align
D) the posture that requires the least energy is the best
Q3) Which of the following is true of the joints in the erect standing posture?
A) all joints are in extension
B) all joints of the lower extremity are in extension
C) all weight bearing joints except the ankle are in extension
D) none of the above
Q4) What are some changes that might occur in the standing posture in elderly people?
Q5) Discuss two reflexes which may play a role in the erect standing posture.
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Q1) What type of exercise is an exercise in which the velocity of muscle contraction is controlled?
A) isometric
B) isotonic
C) isokinetic
D) plyometric
Q2) Which is the most important factor in designing exercises for maximum strength?
A) maximum repetitions
B) maximum speed
C) maximum time
D) maximum resistance
Short Answer Questions
Q3) Consider the exercise of slow leg raising and lowering in the supine, long lying position. What is the function of the abdominal muscles during the lowering phase and what type of contraction is involved?
A) controlling extension of legs--eccentric contraction
B) stabilizing the pelvis--static contraction
C) tilting the pelvis backward--concentric contraction
D) tilting the pelvis forward--concentric contraction
Q4) Why should a person not "bounce" during stretching exercises?
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Q1) Which of the following is not true when attempting to produce a motion for maximum accuracy?
A) use the fewest number of segments
B) use the smallest segments possible
C) use maximum possible contact time
D) use the highest possible velocity
Q2) Why is it more difficult to shoot a free throw from a seated position than from a stand?
Q3) Which of the following is the prime mover in elbow extension during the up phase of the pushup?
A) biceps brachii
B) pectoralis major
C) triceps brachii
D) brachialis
Q4) Why is it often easier to stand from a seated position if the feet are brought as close to the chair as possible?
Q5) Why should the arm motion in the shot put be simultaneous rather than sequential in nature?
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Q1) Which of the following does not illustrate an underarm throwing pattern?
A) softball pitch
B) golf swing
C) tennis drive
D) bowling delivery
Q2) The wind-up (preparatory phase) is a very important part of the forceful throwing motion. Give a neuromuscular reason and at least one mechanical reason why this is true.
Q3) Which best describes the striking segment when hitting a ball with as high a velocity as possible?
A) be as close to the axis of rotation as possible
B) have a low angular velocity
C) have a low linear velocity
D) be as far from the axis as possible
Q4) Which of the following factors has the least effect on the development of momentum in a striking implement?
A) air resistance
B) length of lever
C) mass of the implement
D) speed of application of force
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Q1) What muscle action is involved in the movement of the knee joints in the power phase of the standing long jump?
A) concentric contraction of the knee flexors
B) concentric contraction of the knee extensors
C) eccentric contraction of the knee flexors
D) eccentric contraction of the knee extensors
Q2) What is the effect of joint actions in the propulsive phase of the long jump?
1) action at the ankle moves lower leg backward for balance
2) action at metatarsal-phalangeal joints lifts body upward
3) hip action helps keep trunk in alignment
4) knee action causes thigh to move forward and upward
A) 1, 4
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Q3) Which of a bicycles rear gears (smallest or largest) would you use when riding up a steep hill?
Explain your answer.
Q4) Why must a jumper strive for height when executing a long jump?
Q5) Why do sprinters use starting blocks instead of just pushing off the ground?
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Q1) What happens to drag on the body as velocity increases?
A) increases
B) decreases
C) stays the same
D) not enough information
Q2) Which are the two forces that are primarily responsible for propulsion in swimming?
A) drag and reaction forces
B) lift and buoyancy
C) drag and lift forces
D) reaction forces and buoyancy
Q3) Which factor contributes to form drag in swimming and objects moving through the air?
A) displacement
B) total surface area
C) size of object
D) cross sectional area
Q4) Explain the function of the S-curve path followed by the hand in most swimming strokes.
Q5) Why is a football lineman more likely to float than a marathon runner?
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Q1) Although an object in motion has no weight in a weightless environment, which of the following does it still possess?
A) mass
B) momentum
C) both a & b
D) none of the above
Q2) How can a diver slow down the speed of rotation?
Q3) Where is the potential energy of a pendulum the greatest?
A) at the bottom of the swing
B) at the top of the swing
C) half way up the swing
D) half way down the swing
Q4) Why is it easier to rotate in a tuck position than a pike position?
A) angular displacement is less
B) angular momentum is less
C) angular velocity is greater
D) linear acceleration is greater
Q5) Discuss some of the problems that occur in prolonged weightlessness. Include a discussion of both neuromuscular and anatomical considerations.
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Q1) Why do you land harder the farther you fall?
Q2) Where should the line of gravity be located when receiving impact from an object with a large horizontal velocity?
A) centered over the base of support
B) near the front edge of the base of support
C) near the back edge of the base of support
D) in any comfortable position
Q3) Which of the following would be good advice for landing from a vertical jump?
A) flex the knees, hips, and ankles
B) land on a soft surface
C) step forward on landing
D) all of the above
Short Answer Questions
Q4) Which of the following determines the amount of force required to stop an object in motion?
A) the mass of the object and the time of force application
B) the velocity of the object and its weight
C) the momentum of the object and the time of force application
D) the initial acceleration of the object
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